News at a Glance
- Andhra Pradesh: New Districts formation in Andhra Pradesh
- 17th Century Telugu inscription found in Prakasam
- Polity and Governance: Centre Defends Forest Rights Act in SC Upholding Tribal Rights
- International Relations: Reviving Multilateralism: Reforming the UN and Rebuilding Global Trust
- Security: Online Radicalisation and the Emergence of Female Terrorist Networks
- Environment and Ecology: Punjab’s Stubble Burning: Fewer Fires, But Larger Burnt Areas Reveal Hidden Challenge
- Air Pollution and Disease Burden in India — SoGA 2025 Report
- Science and Technology: Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare: Moving Beyond Treatment to Prevention
New Districts formation in Andhra Pradesh
Source: Great Andhra
APPSC Relevance: Polity and Governance
Context: District Reorganisation
Why in News?
Andhra Pradesh plans to expand districts from 26 to 32, including the creation of six new districts and reattachment of Kandukur and Addanki to Prakasam, with final Cabinet approval expected in January 2026.
Introduction
- The Andhra Pradesh government is set to finalise a major administrative exercise involving the reorganisation of its districts. Currently comprising 26 districts, the state is preparing to expand this number to 32, a promise highlighted during electoral campaigns.
- The final notification is expected in January 2026, following the Cabinet’s approval.
Key Highlights of the Andhra Reorganisation
Creation of Six New Districts
- Proposed Districts: Palasa, Amaravati, Markapuram, Gudur, Madanapalle, and Rajampet.
- Amaravati: As the proposed capital region, Amaravati is likely to be designated as a separate district.
- Minor adjustments in boundaries may occur before the final notification to accommodate local administrative needs.
Reassignment of Mandals and Revenue Divisions
- The reorganisation may involve shifting district headquarters and realigning revenue divisions to improve administrative efficiency.
- Revenue authorities have been instructed to prepare detailed reports to aid the restructuring process.
Kandukur and Addanki Reattachment
- These mandals were previously split into Nellore and Bapatla districts during the YSRCP regime.
- Civic groups and local representatives have long demanded their reattachment to Prakasam district, citing administrative convenience and historical association.
- Under the new plan, Ongole will continue as the headquarters of Prakasam district, while Addanki and Kandukur will also remain part of it.
Emergence of Markapuram District
- Markapuram is expected to be carved out of existing districts, forming part of the expanded administrative framework.
Process and Timeline
- A Cabinet sub-committee has initiated deliberations and prepared preliminary proposals on new districts and mandal boundaries.
- The final blueprint is expected to be placed before the Cabinet in January 2026, after which official notifications will be issued.
(Image Source: Great Andhra)
Significance of the Reorganisation
- Administrative Efficiency: Smaller districts can improve governance, service delivery, and monitoring of development programmes.
- Local Representation: The reorganisation addresses local demands, ensuring that historically or culturally linked regions are administratively aligned.
- Capital Region Focus: Designating Amaravati as a separate district aligns with the government’s plans to develop it as the state’s capital.
- Revenue and Development Planning: Realigning revenue divisions allows for better fiscal management and targeted development in each district.
Challenges and Considerations
- Resource Allocation: Creating new districts requires significant investment in administrative infrastructure, personnel, and technology.
- Political Sensitivities: Reassignment of mandals, particularly contested areas like Kandukur and Addanki, can lead to political debates and opposition from neighbouring districts.
- Implementation: Effective coordination between state authorities and local bodies is critical for a smooth transition and minimal disruption to public services.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following pairs of mandals and their proposed districts under Andhra Pradesh’s reorganisation plan:
| Mandal | Proposed District (2026) |
|---|---|
| 1. Addanki | Prakasam |
| 2. Kandukur | Bapatla |
| 3. Markapuram | New district carved out of Prakasam |
| 4. Amaravati | Guntur |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only
Answer 1- D
Explanation
- Addanki and Kandukur: Both Addanki and Kandukur will be reattached to Prakasam district, reversing their earlier transfer to Bapatla and Nellore.
- Markapuram: Proposed as a new district, carved partly from Prakasam and adjoining regions such as Nandyal or Nellore.
- Amaravati: Will be constituted as a separate district, not remain under Guntur, reflecting its importance as the capital region.
17th Century Telugu inscription found in Prakasam
Source: The Hindu
APPSC Relevance: Art and Culture
Context: 17th century inscription
Why in News?
A 17th-century Telugu inscription has been discovered on a stone in Anantararayunipalli village, located in Komarolu Mandal, Prakasam district, Andhra Pradesh.
Introduction
- The finding was made by Jyothi Chandramouli, a historian and retired headmaster from Addanki, who subsequently referred it to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), Mysuru, for expert verification.
Key Details:
Dating and Historical Context:
- The inscription is from the 17th century, specifically dated to Yuva Samvatsara, Ashadha Sudha Ekadasi according to the traditional Hindu calendar.
- It reflects the socio-political and religious practices in the Telugu-speaking region during this period, particularly under local chieftains and feudal arrangements.
Content of the Inscription:
- The inscription records a donation of land: the village Ganupulapalli and additional lands in Bomggaraputi of Komaravoli.
- The gift was made for services to Lord Hanumanta (Hanuman), indicating the religious and cultural significance of Vaishnavite or Hanuman worship in the region.
People Mentioned:
- Kondappa Nayani, son of Tirupati Nayani, belonging to the Velugoti chiefs, made the donation.
- Kondappa Nayani had received Komaravoli as amara-nayamkara (a type of feudal administrative grant) from Rangappati Raju, highlighting the feudal and administrative structures in 17th-century Andhra Pradesh.
Significance:
- Such inscriptions provide primary historical evidence of local governance, land grants, and religious patronage.
- They help reconstruct the regional history of feudal chiefs, land revenue systems, and socio-religious customs of the Telugu region during the 17th century.
- They also emphasize the role of regional chiefs (nayaks) in maintaining local administration and religious institutions.
Preservation and Awareness:
- Local community need to protect such inscriptions from decay, underlining the importance of heritage conservation.
- The ASI’s involvement ensures archival recording, preservation, and scholarly analysis.
CARE MCQ
Q2. The term “Amara-Nayak” mentioned in the 17th-century inscription from Prakasam district refers to:
A) Landless soldiers recruited by Vijayanagara kings
B) Feudal lords granted land in return for military and administrative services
C) Priests appointed to manage temple lands
D) Local merchants authorized to collect customs duties
Answer 2: B
Explanation
- Amara-nayaka (or amara-nayakara) was a feudal military-administrative title used widely during the Vijayanagara and post-Vijayanagara periods.
- Nayaks were granted land revenue rights (amara) in return for maintaining troops and assisting in administration.
- The 17th-century Kondappa Nayani inscription shows that such arrangements continued under local rulers in Andhra Pradesh even after the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Centre Defends Forest Rights Act in SC Upholding Tribal Rights
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance
Context: FRA 2006
Why in News?
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs defends the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 and the 2012 Rules in the Supreme Court, emphasizing protection of tribal rights, livelihoods, and cultural identity.
Introduction
- The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) has filed a counter affidavit in the Supreme Court (SC) defending the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, against a petition challenging the legal validity of the 2012 Rules framed under the Act. The challenge alleges a potential conflict between the FRA and existing wildlife protection laws.
About the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006
- Objective: The FRA was enacted to recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in forest land to forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes (STs) and other traditional forest dwellers.
- Focus:
- Restoration of dignity and livelihoods of forest communities.
- Protection of cultural identity and traditional knowledge.
- Legal recognition of community and individual rights over forest resources.
Key Features:
- Recognition of rights: Individual rights (cultivation, habitation) and community rights (grazing, collection of forest produce, minor forest produce, fishing, water bodies).
- No sunset clause: MoTA highlights that the absence of a time limit is intentional to ensure equity and prevent arbitrary denial of rights due to deadlines.
- Empowerment of local communities: Through Gram Sabhas and local authorities to approve claims.
2012 Rules under FRA
- These rules were framed to operationalize the provisions of the FRA.
- They detail procedures for recognition, verification, and vesting of rights, ensuring transparency and participation of forest-dependent communities.
(Image Source: Himachal Watcher)
Centre’s Defence in Supreme Court
- Legal Validity:
- MoTA contends that the 2012 Rules are fully constitutional and legally valid, aligning with the spirit of the FRA.
- Beyond Land Ownership:
- The FRA is not just about land rights; it restores socio-cultural and economic dignity of forest dwellers.
- It recognizes the interconnectedness of forests and livelihoods of tribal communities.
- Equity and Inclusion:
- The absence of a sunset clause is deliberate. It prevents arbitrary deadlines that could disenfranchise communities from claiming their rights.
- Balance with Wildlife Protection:
- The law provides a framework to harmonize forest rights with environmental conservation, ensuring coexistence of human and ecological needs.
Significance of the Defence
- For Tribals: Reinforces the FRA as a tool for social justice and restoration of traditional rights.
- For Policy: Emphasizes the Indian approach of inclusive conservation, where tribal rights are not sacrificed for environmental objectives.
- For Legal Precedent: SC’s ruling will clarify the scope of FRA vis-à-vis wildlife protection laws, impacting forest governance nationwide.
Challenges and Controversies
- Conflict with Wildlife Laws: Critics argue that granting land rights inside protected areas may hamper biodiversity conservation.
- Implementation Gap: Recognition of rights has been slow in some states, limiting the Act’s intended impact.
- Awareness and Participation: Forest dwellers often lack information about filing claims or accessing benefits.
Conclusion
- The Supreme Court case highlights the delicate balance between conservation and tribal rights. By defending the FRA and its rules, the Centre emphasizes equity, cultural dignity, and livelihood security of forest-dependent communities. The outcome will have a far-reaching impact on forest governance, environmental policy, and tribal welfare in India.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Which of the following statements about the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 is/are correct?
- It recognizes individual and community rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
- It includes a sunset clause for filing claims to ensure timely recognition of rights.
- The Act aims to restore livelihoods, dignity, and cultural identity of forest communities while balancing conservation.
Options:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer 1- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: FRA legally recognizes individual rights (e.g., land for habitation or cultivation) and community rights (e.g., grazing, collection of minor forest produce) of forest-dwelling STs and other traditional forest dwellers. This is a core provision of the Act.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The FRA does not have a sunset clause. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) has explicitly highlighted that the absence of a deadline is deliberate, to ensure equity and prevent arbitrary denial of claims.
- Statement 3 is correct: Beyond land ownership, FRA restores livelihoods, dignity, and cultural identity of forest-dependent communities. It also provides a framework to harmonize forest rights with conservation objectives, ensuring sustainable coexistence.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Consider the following statements: (2019)
- As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
- As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
- The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Reviving Multilateralism: Reforming the UN and Rebuilding Global Trust
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations, multilateralism
Context: Multilateralism
Why in News?
The 80th UN General Assembly highlights the challenges and opportunities for multilateralism, emphasizing the need for reform and legitimacy in global cooperation.
Introduction
- As the United Nations marks its 80th anniversary, the world stands at a crossroads. The optimism that once surrounded the UN’s founding — the belief that diplomacy could triumph over destruction — has faded.
- Yet, as Shashi Tharoor argues, multilateralism is not dead; it is wounded and in need of renewal. The survival of global cooperation depends not only on reforming international institutions but also on rebuilding their legitimacy in the eyes of ordinary people.
Background
- As the United Nations marks its 80th anniversary, the world faces an unprecedented convergence of crises — wars, climate change, inequality, and technological disruption.
- While multilateral institutions like the UN are under strain, they remain essential for addressing global challenges. Their survival depends not on nostalgia but on meaningful reform and renewed legitimacy.
The Current Challenges to Multilateralism
The UN and global multilateralism face multiple pressures:
- Declining commitment from major powers: Some states have reduced funding to key UN programmes, withdrawn from certain bodies, or bypassed multilateral processes in favour of bilateral or mini-lateral arrangements.
- Geopolitical tensions: Rivalries among major powers, conflicts in Ukraine, Sudan, and Gaza, and regional nationalism have fragmented global consensus.
- Erosion of public trust: Rising populism and scepticism about global elites have weakened citizens’ faith in international institutions.
- These factors have created a perception that multilateralism is outdated and ineffective, yet the global problems themselves — from pandemics to climate change — remain borderless and require collective solutions.
Achievements of the Multilateral System
Despite its limitations, the UN has delivered notable outcomes:
- Coordinated global humanitarian responses and peacekeeping operations.
- Formulated universal agreements such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, Sustainable Development Goals, and the Paris Climate Accord.
- Provided a platform for smaller nations to voice concerns and engage in global policymaking.
- However, structural constraints — such as Security Council veto powers, weak enforcement, and outdated governance reflecting post-World War II geopolitics — have limited effectiveness.
(Image Source: Indian Express)
The Path to Renewal
The future of multilateralism depends on institutional reform and rebuilding legitimacy:
- Institutional reform: Streamlining mandates, improving cost efficiency, and enhancing accountability can strengthen the system’s operational capacity.
- Rebuilding legitimacy: Global institutions must demonstrate tangible benefits for ordinary citizens — jobs, security, social dignity — not just abstract norms. Multilateralism must become more empathetic, responsive, and inclusive.
- The philosophical challenge lies in balancing global interdependence with national sovereignty and addressing the concerns of citizens who feel left behind by globalization.
Strategic Implications for Emerging Powers
Emerging powers have an opportunity to champion a more equitable global order:
- Promote incremental institutional reforms and transparency in international governance.
- Engage in value-based coalitions to deliver practical solutions on climate, health, and technology.
- Use mini-lateral groupings strategically to pilot initiatives that can later be scaled into universal norms.
- Link multilateral commitments to visible domestic benefits, reducing scepticism about international engagement.
Conclusion
- Multilateralism is fraying but not obsolete. Its survival requires principled yet pragmatic approaches, combining institutional reform with renewed public legitimacy.
- In an interconnected world, no nation can be truly sovereign unless all are, making global cooperation indispensable for addressing the crises of the 21st century.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Which of the following statements about multilateralism and the United Nations is/are correct?
- Multilateralism seeks to address global problems through collective action and negotiation among all nations.
- The UN Security Council’s veto power ensures equality among all member states.
- Institutional reform and rebuilding public legitimacy are key to the survival of multilateralism.
- Mini-lateral or bilateral arrangements among countries are a challenge to global multilateral frameworks.
Options:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer 2- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Multilateralism requires global problems to be addressed collectively through institutions that give equal voice to all nations. This reflects the core principle of global cooperation.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The UN Security Council veto power actually reflects inequality among members, giving disproportionate influence to permanent members rather than ensuring equality.
- Statement 3 is correct: Institutional reform and rebuilding public legitimacy are essential for multilateralism to remain effective, showing that global cooperation can deliver tangible benefits to ordinary citizens.
- Statement 4 is correct: Bilateral or mini-lateral arrangements can fragment global consensus and weaken the multilateral framework, posing a challenge to UN-led global cooperation.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020)
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Ans: (a)
Online Radicalisation and the Emergence of Female Terrorist Networks
Source: New Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS3 Security
Context: Cyber-jihad and transnational terrorism.
Why in News?
Pakistan-based Jaish-e-Mohammed has launched an online course Tufat al-Muminat to recruit and radicalise women into its newly formed female brigade.
Introduction
- Recently, intelligence agencies flagged that Pakistan-based Jaish-e-Mohammed (JeM) is launching an online course, Tufat al-Muminat, to recruit and radicalise women into a newly announced female wing, Jamaat-ul-Muminat.
- The course is scheduled to begin in November 2025 and will be led by relatives of senior JeM leaders, including Masood Azhar’s sisters. A nominal donation is collected from enrollees, which also serves as a fundraising channel for the organisation.
- This move reflects a strategic shift in terrorist recruitment, leveraging online platforms and gendered mobilisation.
(Image Source: Hindustan Times)
Strategic Significance
- Low-cost expansion: Online recruitment overcomes geographic and logistical barriers, allowing rapid scaling.
- Diversification of cadre: Inclusion of women widens operational possibilities, including fundraising, logistics, communications, and potentially active roles in attacks.
- Fundraising avenue: Small enrolment fees and donations contribute to sustained funding for the organisation.
Online Indoctrination
- Mechanisms: The course uses structured pedagogy, live lectures, registration forms to collect personal data, and community-building in closed online groups.
- Narrative framing: Combines theological teachings with identity-based grievance narratives, converting sympathy into obligation.
- Vulnerabilities exploited: Social media algorithms, encrypted communications, and donation gateways make detection difficult.
Cyber-Jihad
- Digital battlefield: Recruitment, propaganda, fundraising, operational coordination, and intelligence gathering are increasingly online.
- Implications for security: Counter-terrorism now requires cyber-surveillance, platform cooperation, and monitoring of financial transactions alongside traditional methods.
Emergence of Female Terrorist Groups
- Globally, militant groups such as LTTE, ISIS, and Hamas have mobilised women for symbolic, logistical, and operational roles.
- Advantages for terrorists: Women often evade suspicion, create propaganda value, and expand the recruitment base.
- Tactical necessity: Expanding to female recruits compensates for pressure on male cadres or operational losses.
Psychological Dimension
- Tactics used: Identity reframing, moral disengagement through gradual exposure, and social/emotional manipulation.
- Countermeasures: Credible counter-narratives, psychosocial interventions, family engagement, and school-based resilience programs reduce susceptibility to online radicalisation.
Security Implementations and Preparedness
A. Intelligence & Detection
- Monitor open-source content, enrolment data, and payment flows.
- Share actionable intelligence among domestic and international agencies.
B. Legal & Financial Measures
- Track micro-donations and enforce KYC norms for online payments.
- Hold platforms accountable for extremist content and require takedown mechanisms.
C. Platform & Technology Responses
- Combine takedown operations with ongoing monitoring to prevent displacement to other platforms.
- Fund credible local counter-messaging campaigns targeting vulnerable populations.
D. Community Resilience
- Promote digital literacy, early detection of grooming, and school/community counseling.
- Engage women leaders, survivors, and NGOs to create gender-sensitive counter-narratives.
E. Gender-Sensitive Rehabilitation
- Offer safe shelters, counseling, and reintegration programs for women exiting extremist groups.
Strategic Implications for India
- Early warning: Digital enrolment and donations provide potential leads for intelligence.
- Transnational cooperation: Close coordination with neighbouring states and international platforms to disrupt recruitment and funding networks.
- Legal readiness: Strengthen cyber laws, counter-terrorism frameworks, and technical capacity to act swiftly.
Conclusion
- JeM’s Tufat al-Muminat represents a new front in online female radicalisation and cyber-jihad.
- Addressing this threat requires a multi-pronged strategy: disruption of online networks, denial of funds, credible counter-narratives, community engagement, gender-sensitive rehabilitation, and international cooperation.
- Balancing civil liberties with security imperatives is critical to prevent the spread of extremism while protecting democratic rights.
CARE MCQ
Q3. Which of the following best defines “cyber-jihad”?
A. Using digital platforms to promote cybersecurity awareness
B. Conducting recruitment, propaganda, fundraising, and operational coordination online by extremist groups
C. Online lobbying for political reforms
D. Digital campaigns for social welfare programs
Answer 3: B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Cyber-jihad involves the use of digital platforms by extremist groups for recruitment, propaganda dissemination, fundraising, and operational coordination.
- Statement 2 is correct: It is a modern adaptation of terrorism to cyberspace, enabling groups to reach a wider audience, coordinate remotely, and reduce the risks associated with physical camps.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Cyber-jihad does not refer to legitimate online activities such as promoting cybersecurity awareness, online political lobbying, or social welfare campaigns.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020)
- Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer
- Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
- Cost of hiring a specialised consultant to minimise the loss in case of cyber extortion
- Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Punjab’s Stubble Burning: Fewer Fires, But Larger Burnt Areas Reveal Hidden Challenge
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology, Air pollution
Context: Stubble burning issue
Why in News?
Punjab reports fewer stubble-burning incidents, but total burnt area remains large, highlighting limitations of satellite detection and continued environmental risk.
Background
- Every year, post-harvest stubble burning in Punjab emerges as a significant environmental issue, contributing to severe air pollution in northern India, including Delhi-NCR.
- Paddy harvesting leaves behind crop residue that farmers often burn to prepare fields for the next wheat crop.
- The short window of approximately three weeks between paddy harvesting and wheat sowing makes stubble burning a prevalent practice despite awareness of its environmental impact.
Current Scenario
- In 2025, the number of reported stubble-burning incidents in Punjab appears relatively lower than previous years. This reduction is partly attributed to severe floods, which left large portions of farmland submerged. The government has claimed a substantial decline in incidents due to measures such as stricter enforcement of burning bans and provision of subsidized machinery for crop residue management.
Data Discrepancy
- Punjab government data, aggregated from satellites, indicates 10,909 farm fire cases in 2024, compared to 36,663 in 2023, marking a 70 percent decline. However, the total area affected by residue burning has largely remained constant, with 19.17 lakh hectares burned in 2024 compared to 19.14 lakh hectares in 2023.
- Earlier years, 2021 and 2022, recorded approximately 15.60 lakh and 15.40 lakh hectares, respectively.
- This discrepancy suggests that while the number of fires has reduced, the total burnt area has not decreased, implying larger or more intense burns in certain locations or underreporting of small-scale burns.
Challenges in Data Accuracy
- Satellite-based fire detection relies on thermal imaging to identify heat signatures. However, several limitations exist:
- Satellites like MODIS and VIIRS pass over the region only a few times a day, potentially missing late afternoon or evening fires.
- Weather conditions such as clouds and haze can obstruct detection.
- Small and fragmented landholdings lead to short-duration or partial fires, which are difficult to detect.
- Farmers may intentionally time or cover fires to avoid detection.
- Advancements in remote sensing, including optical sensors like Sentinel-2, allow for the identification of post-fire discoloration and burn scars, providing more accurate estimates of the total burnt area. Experts recommend integrating thermal and optical satellite data with systematic ground verification to improve assessment accuracy.
Environmental Implications
- A higher burnt area does not automatically translate to increased pollution. Many of the burns are low-intensity and partial, releasing less particulate matter and gaseous emissions than large-scale fires.
- Accurate evaluation of emissions should consider fire intensity, fuel load, and duration, rather than relying solely on the area affected.
Root Causes of Stubble Burning
Farmers continue to burn crop residue due to:
- Time constraints between paddy harvesting and wheat sowing.
- High cost and limited access to crop residue management machinery.
- Labour shortages during the peak harvest season.
- Fragmented landholdings, making mechanized solutions challenging.
- Limited economic incentives for sustainable residue management or biofuel conversion.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Government Initiatives
Efforts to curb stubble burning include:
- Provision of subsidized machinery like the Happy Seeder and Super Straw Management System.
- Financial incentives for adopting in-situ management practices.
- Awareness campaigns and stricter enforcement of burning bans.
- Promotion of ex-situ usage of crop residue in bioenergy plants, composting units, and other industries.
Technological Measures to Reduce Stubble Burning
- Happy Seeder: Tractor-mounted device that sows wheat directly into paddy fields while cutting straw, avoiding burning, saving time, lowering costs, and improving soil health.
- Pusa Decomposer: Microbial formulation that breaks down paddy stubble into compost, enhancing soil fertility and reducing the need to burn residues.
- Crop Residue Pelletization: Converts residues into biomass pellets for energy, reducing burning and providing extra income to farmers.
- Biochar Production: Pyrolysis of crop residues produces biochar, improving soil fertility, water retention, microbial activity, and aiding carbon sequestration.
Way Forward
- Improved Monitoring: Combine thermal and optical satellite observations with systematic ground verification for accurate fire and burnt-area assessment.
- Sustainable Agriculture Practices: Promote crop diversification, direct-seeded rice, and alternate wetting and drying methods to reduce paddy area and residue.
- Economic Incentives: Provide market linkages for crop residue, carbon credits, or subsidies to encourage adoption of non-burning practices.
- Machinery Accessibility: Strengthen last-mile delivery through custom hiring centres for small and marginal farmers.
- Regional Cooperation: Coordinate with neighboring states to implement joint action plans and share real-time data to tackle cross-border air pollution.
Conclusion
- Although the number of stubble-burning incidents in Punjab has decreased, the total burnt area remains significant, indicating that the problem persists. Satellite limitations and ground realities suggest that official data may underestimate the true extent.
- Addressing the issue requires a combination of accurate monitoring, economic support for farmers, and sustainable agricultural transformation to reduce environmental and health impacts in northern India.
CARE MCQ
Q4. Which of the following statements about stubble burning detection in Punjab is/are correct?
- Satellite detection of stubble burning can be limited by cloud cover, fire intensity, and farm size.
- Optical sensors like Sentinel-2 can complement thermal sensors to provide more accurate burnt-area estimates.
Options:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer 4- C
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Satellites can miss fires due to cloud cover, low-intensity fires, small fragmented farms, or timing of burning.
- Statement 2 is correct: Optical sensors like Sentinel-2 detect post-fire discoloration and burn scars, complementing thermal sensors for a more accurate assessment.
- Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q.. Consider the following agricultural practices: (2012)
- Contour bunding
- Relay cropping
- Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them
Ans: (b)
Air Pollution and Disease Burden in India — SoGA 2025 Report
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology
Context: Air Pollution
Why in News?
SoGA 2025 reports that air pollution in India caused 2 million deaths in 2023, largely from NCDs, with emerging evidence linking it to dementia.
Introduction
- The Air pollution has long been recognised as a major environmental hazard, but the State of Global Air (SoGA) 2025 report by the Health Effects Institute (HEI) and the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME), USA, highlights its increasingly alarming impact on public health in India.
The report reveals that nearly two million deaths in India in 2023 were attributable to air pollution-related diseases, marking a 43% increase from 1.4 million in 2000. A significant proportion of these deaths — almost 90% — are linked to non-communicable diseases (NCDs) such as heart disease, lung cancer, diabetes, and dementia.
- This signals a paradigm shift: while infectious diseases once dominated India’s health burden, chronic and degenerative diseases driven by environmental factors are now emerging as the primary threat.
Magnitude of Air Pollution’s Impact in India
Comparison with high-income countries
- India’s air pollution-related death rate stands at 186 per 100,000 people, over 10 times higher than high-income countries (17 per 100,000).
- States most affected include Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, and West Bengal, each reporting over 100,000 deaths in 2023.
Air pollution and non-communicable diseases
- 89% of air pollution deaths in India are attributable to NCDs.
- Air pollution contributes to:
- 70% of COPD deaths
- 33% of lung cancer deaths
- >25% of heart disease deaths
- ~20% of diabetes deaths
- This indicates a rising risk for India’s ageing population, with long-term exposure to PM2.5 significantly affecting cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
Global context
- Worldwide, air pollution causes 8 million deaths annually; 4.9 million from outdoor pollution, 2.8 million from household pollution, and the rest from ozone exposure.
- Deaths from air pollution-related NCDs in adults over 60 account for 95% globally, highlighting the vulnerability of the elderly.
- Household vs ambient pollution
- Deaths from household air pollution (solid fuel use for cooking) have declined in India.
- However, deaths from ambient PM2.5 and ozone pollution have increased, with 75% of India’s population exposed to PM2.5 levels above the WHO Air Quality Interim Target of 35 µg/m³.
Air Pollution and Dementia: A New Front in Public Health
- Global evidence
- SoGA 2025 highlights a direct link between air pollution and dementia, with 626,000 global deaths and 40 million healthy life years lost due to long-term exposure to fine particulate matter (PM2.5).
- Studies suggest that PM2.5 may damage brain tissue, accelerate cognitive decline, and increase susceptibility to degenerative brain diseases.
India’s situation
- Dementia-related deaths linked to air pollution reached 54,000 in 2024.
- Women are disproportionately affected — both as caregivers and in terms of higher risk for developing dementia.
- With rising life expectancy and underdeveloped elderly care systems, dementia poses a growing burden on healthcare infrastructure and families.
(Image Source: Down To Earth)
Regional and Socio-Economic Imperatives
Vulnerability of LMICs
- Low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), including India, face heightened risk due to rapid industrialisation, industrial emissions, urbanisation, and limited healthcare access.
- South Asia, particularly India, remains the worst-affected region globally.
Policy recognition
- The UN High-Level Meeting on NCDs (2018) recognised air pollution as a major risk factor alongside tobacco, unhealthy diets, physical inactivity, and harmful alcohol consumption.
- The World Health Assembly integrated air pollution into the global NCD framework.
- Despite this, progress in India has been uneven, and SDG 3.4 — to reduce premature NCD deaths by one-third by 2030 — may remain out of reach without strong air pollution control measures.
Integrated Action Needed
Health and environment synergy
- Controlling air pollution presents a dual opportunity:
- Reduces NCD and dementia risk
- Supports climate mitigation, energy efficiency, and productivity gains
Policy measures
- Coordinated efforts across health, environment, transport, and energy sectors are critical.
- Interventions may include:
- Phasing out coal and promoting clean energy
- Reducing vehicular and industrial emissions
- Expanding green urban infrastructure
- Integrating air quality monitoring with public health planning
Public awareness and preventive care
- Public campaigns to reduce exposure to PM2.5 and ozone
- Early screening for NCDs and cognitive decline in high-risk populations
- Community-based support for elderly care and caregivers
Conclusion
- The SoGA 2025 report underscores that air pollution is no longer just an environmental issue; it is a critical public health emergency in India. Chronic exposure to pollutants is worsening NCDs and emerging as a significant risk factor for dementia, particularly among the elderly. With 75% of the population exposed to harmful PM2.5 levels, the need for urgent, integrated, and sustained policy action is clear.
CARE MCQ
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding air pollution and health in India as per the SoGA 2025 report:
- Nearly 90% of air pollution-related deaths in India are linked to non-communicable diseases such as heart disease, diabetes, and dementia.
- Deaths due to household air pollution from solid fuel use are rising, while deaths due to ambient PM2.5 are declining.
- Long-term exposure to PM2.5 has been linked to cognitive decline and dementia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 5- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: In 2023, 89% of air pollution-related deaths in India were due to NCDs, including heart disease, lung cancer, diabetes, and dementia.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Deaths from household air pollution (solid fuel use) are declining, while deaths from ambient PM2.5 and ozone are increasing.
- Statement 3 is correct: SoGA 2025 provides firmer evidence that long-term exposure to fine particulate matter (PM2.5) damages brain tissue and contributes to cognitive decline and dementia.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020)
- Automobile exhaust
- Tobacco smoke
- Wood burning
- Using varnished wooden furniture
- Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: A
Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare: Moving Beyond Treatment to Prevention
Source: Down To Earth
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Science and Technology, Artificial Intelligence
Context: Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare
Why in News?
Artificial Intelligence is transforming healthcare from treatment-focused approaches to predictive, preventive, and personalized care, while raising ethical and privacy concerns.
Introduction
- Artificial Intelligence (AI) is transforming the global healthcare landscape — from diagnosis and treatment to disease prevention and health system management.
- With technologies like machine learning, deep learning, and natural language processing, AI is enabling faster diagnosis, personalised treatment, and predictive public health planning.
- However, alongside this transformation, ethical, privacy, and data bias challenges persist, demanding a balanced approach between innovation and regulation.
Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the branch of computer science that enables machines to perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as learning, reasoning, problem-solving, perception, language understanding, and decision-making.
Key Features of AI:
- Learning: Ability to acquire knowledge and improve from experience (e.g., Machine Learning).
- Reasoning: Ability to analyze situations and draw logical conclusions.
- Problem-Solving: Ability to identify and solve complex problems.
- Perception: Ability to interpret sensory inputs (like vision, speech).
- Natural Language Processing (NLP): Understanding and generating human language.
- Autonomy: Ability to perform tasks without human intervention.
Types of AI:
- Narrow AI (Weak AI): Performs a specific task (e.g., virtual assistants, chatbots).
- General AI (Strong AI): Can perform any intellectual task a human can (still theoretical).
- Super AI: Hypothetical AI surpassing human intelligence.
Applications in India:
- Healthcare: Early disease detection, AI-driven diagnostics, preventive healthcare.
- Agriculture: Crop monitoring, predictive analytics, pest detection.
- Education: Personalized learning, smart classrooms.
- Governance: Predictive policing, citizen grievance management, smart city planning.
- Finance: Fraud detection, automated trading, credit scoring.
AI in Healthcare: From Treatment to Prevention
- Traditionally, healthcare systems have focused primarily on treating diseases. However, AI is shifting this paradigm toward prevention and early intervention by predicting disease patterns, identifying risks, and promoting proactive care.
- Predictive Analytics for Prevention:
- AI-driven predictive models use vast datasets — including medical records, lifestyle data, and environmental patterns — to forecast disease outbreaks and identify individuals at risk of chronic diseases such as diabetes or heart ailments.
- Example: AI models have successfully forecasted child malnutrition trends in Kenya up to six months in advance, enabling timely policy action.
- Public Health Surveillance:
- During the COVID-19 pandemic, AI played a pivotal role in tracking infection clusters, forecasting transmission trends, and supporting decision-making through real-time dashboards. These systems continue to be used for epidemic preparedness and disease surveillance.
- Personalised Preventive Care:
- Wearable devices and AI-integrated health apps monitor vital signs and alert users to early signs of illness, thereby promoting a preventive and participatory model of health management.
(Image Source: Down To earth)
Applications of AI Across the Healthcare Spectrum
1. Diagnostic Enhancement
- AI technologies significantly reduce diagnosis time through rapid image analysis and pattern recognition.
- Deep Learning Algorithms process medical images such as X-rays, MRIs, and CT scans to identify conditions like cancer or fractures with high accuracy.
- Natural Language Processing (NLP) tools extract critical information from unstructured clinical notes, improving diagnostic precision.
- Early diagnosis through AI increases the chances of successful treatment and reduces the burden on healthcare infrastructure.
2. Precision Surgery and Robotic Assistance
- AI-powered robotic systems assist surgeons during operations, enhancing precision and minimizing errors.
- These systems enable smaller incisions, reduced complications, and faster recovery times.
- AI-assisted robotic surgery combines real-time imaging with machine precision, marking a new era in minimally invasive procedures.
3. Virtual Care and Patient Engagement
- Virtual nursing assistants and AI chatbots are redefining patient interaction.
- They provide 24/7 health guidance, medication reminders, and preliminary consultations.
- Advanced versions use speech recognition and sentiment analysis to assess patient well-being and emotional state.
4. Drug Discovery and Repurposing
- AI has accelerated pharmaceutical innovation by identifying potential compounds faster than traditional methods.
- IBM Watson and Exscientia’s AI models have been instrumental in oncology drug development.
- AI-based molecular modelling and simulation help reduce costs and time in clinical trials.
5. Administrative Efficiency
- Automation tools like Amazon Transcribe Medical streamline clinical documentation by converting physician-patient conversations into accurate transcripts.
This reduces paperwork and improves efficiency, allowing healthcare professionals to focus more on patient care.
Economic and Operational Impact
- According to McKinsey & Company, AI and big data could save up to $100 billion annually in the U.S. healthcare system by optimizing research, clinical trials, and administrative functions.
In developing countries like India, where resource constraints limit access to healthcare, AI-driven telemedicine and remote diagnostics could democratize healthcare delivery and expand access to rural areas.
Ethical and Privacy Challenges
Despite its potential, AI in healthcare presents several concerns:
- Data Bias: AI models are only as good as the data they are trained on. If training data is skewed toward urban populations or specific ethnic groups, the resulting algorithms may produce biased outcomes, worsening healthcare disparities.
- Privacy and Data Protection: AI systems rely on large-scale data collection from electronic health records, pharmacy databases, and insurance claims.
This raises fears of data misuse, patient surveillance, and loss of confidentiality, especially in the absence of strong data protection frameworks. - Accountability and Transparency: AI algorithms often operate as “black boxes,” making it difficult to trace decision-making processes. In critical healthcare settings, lack of explainability can lead to ethical and legal dilemmas when errors occur.
- Dependence on Technology: Overreliance on automated systems may reduce human oversight and critical thinking among healthcare providers.
AI for Health Equity and Public Health Strengthening
AI can play a transformative role in bridging health inequities:
- Community-level Data Analysis: By analyzing behavioral and environmental data, AI can help governments target awareness campaigns and address social determinants of health.
- Resource Allocation: Predictive analytics can identify regions with healthcare deficits, enabling authorities to prioritize infrastructure and resource distribution effectively.
- Preventive Policy Formulation: AI’s insights can shape evidence-based public health policies that focus on long-term disease prevention rather than short-term crisis response.
Way Forward
- Ethical Governance: Governments and regulatory bodies must establish robust ethical guidelines and AI governance frameworks to ensure transparency, fairness, and accountability.
- Data Protection Legislation: Strengthening data privacy laws such as India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act (2023) is crucial to safeguard patient information.
- Inclusive and Representative Datasets: AI models should be trained using diverse datasets representing rural, urban, gender, and socio-economic variations to reduce bias.
- Human-AI Collaboration: AI should augment, not replace human judgment. Medical professionals must be trained to interpret AI outputs critically.
- Global Cooperation: Collaboration between nations, tech firms, and public health agencies can accelerate safe and equitable AI deployment in global health systems.
Conclusion
- Artificial Intelligence is no longer confined to assisting treatment — it is redefining how societies understand, prevent, and manage health risks.
- By leveraging AI’s predictive and analytical capabilities, healthcare systems can move toward proactive, preventive, and personalized care, fostering healthier and more resilient communities.
- However, the success of this transformation depends on ensuring that ethical integrity, data privacy, and inclusivity remain at the heart of AI-driven healthcare innovation.
CARE MCQ
Q6. Which of the following statements about the application of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in healthcare is/are correct?
- AI-assisted predictive models can help anticipate disease outbreaks and enable preventive interventions.
- AI reduces healthcare disparities automatically, without the need for representative data or ethical governance.
- AI is used in drug discovery, robotic surgery, virtual nursing assistants, and clinical documentation.
- Bias in AI systems can arise if training data is predominantly from urban populations.
Options:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
Answer 6-B
Explanation
- Statement 1 – Correct: AI-assisted predictive models analyse data such as medical records, environmental factors, and behavioral patterns to anticipate disease outbreaks and facilitate preventive healthcare interventions. This aligns with AI’s role in shifting healthcare from treatment to prevention.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect: AI alone cannot reduce healthcare disparities. If datasets are not representative or ethical governance is absent, AI may exacerbate inequalities. Human oversight, inclusive data, and regulation are essential.
- Statement 3 – Correct: AI applications in healthcare include:
- Drug discovery (identifying new or repurposed drugs)
- Robotic surgery (precision-assisted operations)
- Virtual nursing assistants (24/7 patient guidance)
- Clinical documentation (automated transcription via NLP tools)
- Statement 4 – Correct: AI systems are prone to bias if training data is predominantly from urban populations or specific demographics, leading to reduced effectiveness for underrepresented groups, e.g., rural patients.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020)
- Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
- Create meaningful short stories and songs
- Disease diagnosis
- Text-to-Speech Conversion
- Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)