APPSC CARE 1st October 2025 Current Affairs

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APPSC CARE 1st October 2025 Current Affairs

News at a Glance

GST adjustments benefit fisheries sector

Source: Hans India

APPSC Relevance: Economy

Context: GST Adjustments Benefit Fisheries Sector

Why in News?

Recent GST reductions, power subsidies, and customs duty cuts aim to reduce operational costs, enhance competitiveness, and promote sustainable

growth in Andhra Pradesh’s fisheries and aquaculture sector.

Introduction

GST awareness programme was organized by the Andhra Pradesh Fisheries Department at Narendrapuram village, focusing on informing stakeholders about new GST adjustments and government support measures for the aquaculture sector.
The programme, titled ‘Super GST – Super Savings’, aims to increase awareness among fish farmers, fishermen, and aquaculture stakeholders regarding the economic advantages of recent GST and related policy measures.

Key Policy Interventions Highlighted

1. GST Rate Reduction

Previous GST Rate: 12% on key fisheries-related items
New GST Rate: 5%
Items covered under the reduced GST include:
- Marine products
- Processed fish
- Shrimp
- Fish oils
- Organic manure
- Aquaculture equipment
- Input subsidies
- Fishing gear
- Ammonia and micronutrients
- Processing services
Implications:
- Reduced operational costs for fish farmers
- Enhanced competitiveness of the fisheries and aquaculture sector
- Encourages formalization of the sector under GST norms
- Supports small and marginal aqua farmers by increasing net profitability

(Image Source: Hans India)

2. Power Subsidy

Concession Rate: ₹1.50 per unit for registered aqua farmers under APSADA (Andhra Pradesh State Aquaculture Development Agency)
Potential Expansion: Extension to aqua farms in non-aqua zones is being considered
Savings Impact: Average saving of ₹20,000 per acre for farmers
Implications:
Reduces production costs for energy-intensive aquaculture operations such as shrimp and fish farming
Promotes sustainability and profitability of small-scale fish farms
Encourages adoption of modern aquaculture practices

3. Customs Duty Reductions (Union Budget 2025-26)

Lower customs duties on:
Shrimp feed
Fish feed
Other aquaculture inputs
Implications:
- Reduces cost of imported raw materials and inputs
- Makes Indian aquaculture more competitive in global seafood markets
- Encourages scale-up of commercial aquaculture

Programme Significance

Awareness and Capacity Building:
The programme educates farmers about policy benefits and compliance requirements, enabling them to take full advantage of GST and subsidies.
Stakeholder Participation:
- Officials from fisheries departments, local leaders, cooperative society heads, and fish farmers participated.
- Collaboration between government and local cooperatives ensures wider dissemination of benefits.

Broader Impact on Fisheries Sector

Cost Reduction: Lower GST, subsidies, and reduced import duties directly cut costs for farmers.
Competitiveness: Lower production costs enhance export competitiveness of Indian seafood.
Sector Growth: Encourages new investments and expansion in aquaculture and fisheries processing.
Formalization: By linking benefits to registrations (e.g., APSADA), the government strengthens regulatory oversight.
Rural Livelihoods: Direct financial benefits support livelihood security for fishing communities in Andhra Pradesh.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding recent policy measures for the fisheries sector in Andhra Pradesh:

GST on key aquaculture inputs and products has been reduced from 12% to 5%.
APSADA-registered aqua farmers receive a power subsidy at ₹1.50 per unit.
The Union Budget 2025-26 increased customs duties on fish feed and shrimp feed.

Options:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 1- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GST on marine products, processed fish, shrimp, fish oils, aquaculture equipment, and other inputs has been reduced from 12% to 5% to lower operational costs and enhance competitiveness in the fisheries sector.
Statement 2 is correct: APSADA-registered aqua farmers receive a power subsidy at ₹1.50 per unit, which can save farmers around ₹20,000 per acre, reducing the cost of production.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Budget 2025-26 reduced customs duties on shrimp feed, fish feed, and other aquaculture inputs; it did not increase them.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Andhra Pradesh Tourism Department wins Global Tourism Award 2025

Source: The Hindu

APPSC Relevance: Awards and Honours

Context: Global Tourism Award 2025

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh Tourism Department won the Global Tourism Award 2025 for its innovative policies, investment promotion, and development of eco-friendly and adventure tourism destinations like Gandikota.

Introduction

The Andhra Pradesh Tourism Department was recently conferred the Global Tourism Award 2025, highlighting the State’s growing prominence as a key player in India’s tourism sector.
The award was presented to tourism consultant Nishitha Goyal on behalf of the department at a ceremony in New Delhi.
This recognition reflects the State’s strategic initiatives to attract investment, develop infrastructure, and promote sustainable and adventure tourism.

(Image Source: Travel World Online)

Visionary Tourism Policy and Strategic Planning

The department was commended for framing a new tourism policy that provides a roadmap for investors and stakeholders in tourism development.
The policy emphasises eco-friendly and sustainable development, aligning with global trends in responsible tourism.
By positioning Andhra Pradesh as a promising destination for national and international tourists, the department has strengthened the State’s economic profile.

Destination Development and Investment Facilitation

The department has been proactive in guiding investors in tourism projects, particularly through the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, which enhances infrastructure, hospitality, and recreational facilities.
Over the past 15 months, 103 MoUs were signed with reputed organisations, facilitating large-scale investments and generating employment opportunities.
Special focus was given to Gandikota, which was developed as a leading eco-tourism and adventure tourism destination, with supporting infrastructure, hospitality services, and adventure activity facilities.

Sustainability and Eco-Friendly Urban Development

Andhra Pradesh’s approach includes building an eco-friendly capital city and promoting tourism in a manner that balances economic growth with environmental conservation.
The department’s efforts showcase responsible tourism planning, which benefits local communities while protecting natural and cultural assets.
Contribution to India’s Overall Tourism Growth
The initiatives by Andhra Pradesh Tourism have enhanced India’s image globally and contributed to national tourism growth by attracting both domestic and international visitors.
The department’s strategies exemplify how state-level leadership can catalyse private sector participation and boost employment while strengthening the local economy.

Significance of the Award

The Global Tourism Award 2025, instituted by the Global News Network, recognises leadership, innovation, and impactful policy implementation in tourism. Andhra Pradesh’s recognition underlines:
Policy foresight: Crafting a roadmap that aligns tourism growth with sustainable practices.
Investment promotion: Successfully attracting private investments in tourism infrastructure and facilities.
Economic impact: Employment generation and strengthening of the State economy through tourism.
Destination branding: Positioning Gandikota and other sites as premier eco-adventure tourism spots.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Andhra Pradesh Tourism Department’s achievement:

The department was recognised for framing a new tourism policy and promoting eco-friendly development.
Gandikota was developed as a leading eco and adventure tourism destination.
Over the past 15 months, the department signed more than 100 MoUs to attract investments.
The Global Tourism Award 2025 is given exclusively to central government tourism initiatives.

Options:
A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer 2-A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The department was commended for its new tourism policy and eco-friendly initiatives.
Statement 2 is correct: Gandikota was positioned as a premier eco and adventure tourism destination.
Statement 3 is correct: 103 MoUs were signed in the last 15 months to attract investments.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Global Tourism Award is not limited to central government initiatives; it recognises contributions by states as well.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

India’s Power Sector: Record Renewable Growth but Rising Thermal Push

Source: Down To Earth

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: India’s Power Sector

Why in News?

In Q1 FY26, India’s power sector saw record renewable additions of 4.6 GW alongside a 1.9 GW thermal capacity increase, reflecting a dual-track approach of clean energy growth and energy security.

Introduction

India’s power sector entered FY26 with one of its strongest quarters of renewable energy expansion, even as thermal power capacity also rose, reflecting the country’s dual-track strategy of rapid growth and gradual decarbonisation.
The quarter highlighted the country’s commitment to achieving clean energy targets while ensuring energy security amid rising electricity demand.

Record Renewable Energy Additions

According to the PowerPulse Q1 FY26 report by the Institute for Energy Economics and Financial Analysis (IEEFA), listed power companies collectively added 4.6 GW of renewable capacity in the quarter (April–June 2025).
NTPC recorded its best-ever quarter, commissioning 2,716 MW of renewables, taking its green portfolio close to 12 GW.
Adani Green Energy added 1.6 GW, expanding its operating base to 15.8 GW, a 45% YoY increase.
JSW Energy added 1.9 GW, supported by the acquisition of O2 Power.
Suzlon recorded its highest first-quarter execution in 30 years at 444 MW, pushing its wind order book beyond 5.7 GW.
Tata Power and ReNew Energy advanced domestic solar manufacturing with 1.8 GW of modules and cells produced in Q1, while Tata Power installed 45,500 rooftop systems, signalling growing distributed demand.
This strong renewable momentum underscores India’s accelerating shift toward clean energy, supported by domestic manufacturing and rooftop adoption.

(Image Source: Down To Earth)

Thermal Push amid Rising Power Demand

Despite record renewable growth, thermal capacity additions stood at 1.9 GW in Q1 FY26 as electricity demand surged to a peak of 242 GW in June 2025.
The Union Ministry of Power directed imported coal plants to operate at full capacity and brought gas-fired plants online to address peak demand pressures.
The government also revised its 2032 thermal expansion target to 95 GW, up from 80 GW earlier, to ensure baseload reliability as renewable capacity grows.
This reveals India’s energy security imperative, highlighting the challenge of reducing coal dependence while maintaining uninterrupted supply during peak loads.

Financial Performance and Market Dynamics

The power sector’s expansion was accompanied by strong financial performance:
SBI led the sector with a net income of ₹216.3 billion, followed by PFC (₹89.8 billion) and Coal India (₹87.3 billion).
Among power producers, NTPC earned ₹61.1 billion, while Adani Power posted ₹33.1 billion.
JSW Energy and ReNew Energy witnessed sharp revenue growth—79% and 70% YoY, respectively.
In contrast, Borosil Renewables slipped into a loss after its German arm filed for insolvency due to weak European demand—an indicator of global market vulnerabilities.

Policy Backdrop: Balancing Growth and Decarbonisation

The quarter was shaped by policy interventions aimed at both expanding green energy and safeguarding supply security:
The Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme was announced to support 30 GWh of battery storage projects across 15 states.
Pumped hydro capacity targets were scaled to 50 GW within six years, a critical step to address renewable intermittency.
Regulators approved electricity futures trading on MCX and NSE, recognised Virtual Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs), and announced market coupling in the Day-Ahead Market from January 2026.
These policy measures highlight the government’s intent to accelerate renewable integration while leveraging financial and market reforms to attract investment.

Transmission and Financing Momentum

Strengthening the grid and financing the transition remained central:
Adani Energy Solutions expanded its under-construction transmission order book to ₹593 billion, while PowerGrid ramped up capex to ₹69.8 billion.
India Grid Trust added 300 MW of solar, 276 circuit km of transmission, and won its first major battery storage project.
IREDA increased its loan book by 26% YoY, lending ₹20 billion to renewables in Q1, while PFC’s loan book reached ₹5.5 trillion.
These developments demonstrate that transmission networks and green financing are becoming as crucial as generation for India’s power transition.

Decarbonisation Efforts and ESG Leadership

Major companies intensified their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) initiatives:

ReNew Energy reduced its Scope 1 and 2 emissions by 18% in FY25, surpassing its target.
NTPC expanded biomass co-firing and launched a green hydrogen hub in Andhra Pradesh.
Tata Power reported that 44% of its portfolio is clean energy, while Adani Energy Solutions aims for 70% renewable share by 2030.
These initiatives reflect the industry-wide shift toward decarbonisation, aligning with India’s net-zero ambitions by 2070.

Challenges and the Road Ahead

India’s Q1 FY26 performance shows a complex energy transition: aggressive renewable expansion on one hand and continued coal reliance for reliability on the other. With electricity demand projected to double by 2032 and installed capacity expected to exceed 1,000 GW, analysts estimate an investment need of over US$500 billion across generation, transmission, and storage.
According to Shantanu Srivastava of IEEFA, “India is investing heavily in clean energy capacity and grid stability, but demand security means coal remains a safety net.”

Conclusion

The first quarter of FY26 marks a pivotal moment in India’s power sector, exemplifying its dual-track approach of growth and decarbonisation.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding NTPC’s strategy in Q1 FY26:

NTPC’s focus on renewables and green hydrogen indicates a shift toward decarbonisation without abandoning thermal power.
The commissioning of renewable capacity will immediately eliminate NTPC’s reliance on coal for its electricity generation.
Biomass co-firing at NTPC plants reflects an approach to reduce carbon emissions while maintaining baseload supply.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Answer 1- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NTPC is expanding renewables and green hydrogen, showing commitment to decarbonisation, while still operating coal plants for baseload security.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Adding 2,716 MW of renewables does not eliminate coal use, as NTPC still relies on thermal power for reliability.
Statement 3 is correct: Biomass co-firing reduces carbon intensity while allowing coal plants to continue providing baseload power.
Statement 4 is correct: The CTC collaborates with UN Sanctions Committees, such as the Al-Qaida and Taliban Sanctions Committee, to enforce UNSC counter-terrorism resolutions and monitor compliance.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

It is a Public Limited Government Company.
It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

A 100-Year Journey of UPSC: Guardian of Meritocracy

Source: New Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: 100-Year of UPSC

Why in News?

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) celebrates 100 years of merit-based recruitment, upholding trust, integrity, and fairness in India’s civil services.

Introduction

On October 1, 2025, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) marked its centenary year, completing a remarkable journey as the guardian of meritocracy in India’s governance.
Established in 1926 under the recommendations of the Lee Commission (1924) and initially called the Public Service Commission, it evolved through colonial and constitutional transformations to become the UPSC after the adoption of the Constitution in 1950.
For the past 100 years, the UPSC has stood as an enduring pillar of fairness, trust, and integrity in public recruitment, ensuring that access to India’s higher civil services is determined by merit alone.
This journey reflects not only the evolution of an institution but also the democratic aspiration of India to build an impartial and efficient civil service capable of serving governments of all political orientations.

About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is India’s premier central recruitment agency responsible for selecting candidates for All India Services, Central Services, and Group A and B posts in the Government of India.
It acts as the guardian of meritocracy, ensuring fair and transparent recruitment based on ability, knowledge, and competence.

(Image Source: The Hindu )

Historical Evolution:

The Government of India Act, 1919, first envisaged the idea of an independent recruitment body to secure an efficient and impartial civil service.
Acting on the Lee Commission’s recommendation that democratic governance required protection of civil services from political or personal influences, the British established the Public Service Commission in October 1926, with Sir Ross Barker as its first chairman.
Initially endowed with limited powers, it functioned as an experiment in a colonial setup. The Government of India Act, 1935, further elevated it to the Federal Public Service Commission, providing Indians with a more significant role in administration.
After Independence, under Articles 315–323 of the Indian Constitution, it became the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), tasked with recruitment, promotion, and disciplinary oversight of the Central Civil Services.

The Pillars of UPSC: Trust, Integrity, and Fairness

The success and credibility of the UPSC have been built on three core principles:

Trust – Millions of aspirants over decades have reposed faith that the Commission’s processes ensure equal opportunities irrespective of socio-economic background.
Integrity – The UPSC has protected its processes from political or external pressures, maintained confidentiality, and upheld merit-based selection.
Fairness – By providing candidates the freedom to choose among 48 subjects for the Mains examination and write in English or any of the 22 constitutionally recognised languages, the UPSC has truly created a level playing field in a country marked by diversity and inequality.
This commitment to fairness reflects the philosophy of the Bhagavad Gītā’s verse, “Tasmad asaktaḥ satataṁ kāryaṁ karma samācara…”, which inspires the UPSC to perform its duty “without attachment to outcomes, with rigour and impartiality.”

Managing Scale and Complexity: A Global Benchmark

Today, the UPSC conducts the Civil Services Examination (CSE)—the world’s largest competitive examination—with remarkable precision and consistency.
Every year, about 10–12 lakh candidates apply for the Preliminary Examination.
- The Preliminary stage is conducted across 2,500+ centres nationwide, followed by the Mains examination with 48 optional subjects.
- The evaluation process is anonymous, with answer scripts assessed by leading experts in respective disciplines and languages.
- Special arrangements are made for differently-abled candidates.
Even during crises like the COVID-19 pandemic, the UPSC maintained its defined timelines without disruption, demonstrating its ability to orchestrate a seamless and equitable process.

Championing Diversity: The ‘Indian Dream’

The CSE, once dominated by candidates from urban elite backgrounds, now attracts aspirants from nearly every district in India, including the most remote and underprivileged regions.
This expanding diversity reflects the “Indian Dream” — the belief that talent, hard work, and commitment can open doors to opportunity for all, regardless of birthplace, class, or linguistic background.
By ensuring equal access, the UPSC has played a transformative role in making the civil services a true mirror of India’s demographic diversity, thus strengthening democratic governance.

Unsung Heroes Behind the Institution

While candidates and successful civil servants often receive public recognition, the faceless contributors—the paper setters, evaluators, and administrative staff—are the silent backbone of the UPSC’s operations.
These academic experts and administrators work with selfless dedication to maintain the integrity, fairness, and rigour of the examinations.

Reforms for the Future: Adapting to New Challenges

Entering its centenary year, the UPSC has embraced technological and procedural reforms to remain current in the face of global competition and governance challenges:
- Online application portals for ease of access.
- Face-recognition technology to prevent impersonation.
- The PRATIBHA Setu Initiative to support candidates who reach the interview stage but miss final selection, enabling them to find suitable employment.
Plans to integrate AI and digital technologies for more efficient recruitment without compromising on integrity and fairness.

Contribution to Nation-Building

Across decades, UPSC-selected civil servants have:
- Administered during national crises,
- Guided economic reforms,
- Overseen infrastructure development and environmental management, and
- Contributed silently to nation-building at every level of governance.
Their professionalism and dedication—nurtured through the UPSC’s merit-based selection—have been instrumental in upholding public trust in India’s bureaucracy.

Conclusion:

As the UPSC celebrates 100 years, it reaffirms its resolve to uphold the “gold standard” of integrity, fairness, and excellence in public recruitment.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

UPSC was established in 1926 following the recommendations of the Lee Commission.
The UPSC conducts examinations in multiple subjects and allows answers in English or any of the 22 constitutionally recognised languages.
The PRATIBHA Setu initiative by UPSC helps candidates who are not selected in the final list to find alternative employment opportunities.
UPSC’s mandate includes recruitment, promotion, and disciplinary oversight only for the civil services, not for technical or medical services.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 2- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UPSC was indeed established in 1926 based on the Lee Commission (1924) recommendations.
Statement 2 is correct: Candidates can choose from 48 subjects and answer in English or any of the 22 recognised languages.
Statement 3 is correct: PRATIBHA Setu facilitates employment for candidates reaching the interview stage but not making the final selection.
Statement 4 is incorrect: UPSC oversees recruitment across civil, technical, medical, forest, engineering, and statistical services, not only civil services.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q Consider the following pairs: 2025

Provision in the Constitution of India: Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Ans: (c)

Indian Knowledge Systems Need to be Inclusive to Live up to the Constitution’s Spirit

Source: New Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS1 Social Justice

Context: Indian Knowledge Systems

Why in News?

UGC’s draft curriculum on Indian Knowledge Systems has sparked debate for prioritising Vedic traditions, risking marginalisation of non-Hindu and tribal knowledge and undermining scientific temper envisaged by the Constitution.

Introduction

The recent draft Learning Outcome-based Curriculum Framework (LOCF) released by the University Grants Commission (UGC) has reignited discussions around the integration of Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS) in higher education.
The framework proposes embedding ‘Bharatiya philosophy’ across disciplines—from including Kautilya’s Arthashastra in commerce to integrating ancient conceptions of paramanu (atom) in chemistry.
While this move seeks to ‘decolonise’ and ‘indigenise’ education in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020’s emphasis on IKS, it is drawing scholarly criticism. Critics argue that the framework:
- Undermines the multidisciplinary and holistic vision of NEP by prioritising single-major pathways.
- Risks diluting scientific enquiry by privileging certain traditions as universally valid.
- Marginalises non-Hindu, tribal, and other heterodox traditions central to India’s plural knowledge heritage.

(image Source: New Indian Express)

Historical Context: Colonial Legacy and Hindu Exceptionalism

The roots of IKS as Hindu exceptionalism trace back nearly two centuries. Scholars like Meera Nanda note that Hinduism came to be portrayed as a “religion of science” during colonial times, with the Vedic tradition exalted for its “non-dogmatic rationalism” and “supersensory empiricism.”
Figures such as Swami Vivekananda, notably in his 1893 Chicago address, linked modern science to Hindu tradition, portraying it as a natural ally rather than an external construct. This narrative gained momentum during British rule as part of the tussle between rationalism and nationalism, reform and revival.
However, post-Independence, this approach led to the Sanskritisation of science, aiming to validate Hindu epistemic claims rather than fostering a citizen-centric, pluralistic scientific culture envisioned in the Constitution. This shift sidelined critical traditions like Charvaka materialism, Buddhist rationalism, Jain logic, and contributions of Islamic scholars, thus restricting the diverse philosophical underpinnings of Indian civilisation.

Constitutional Vision vs. Monolithic Narratives

The Constitution of India, though not explicitly codifying science in its fundamental rights, upholds scientific enquiry as a normative democratic ideal—reflected in Article 51A(h), which obligates citizens to “develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of enquiry and reform.”
Leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru viewed science as a tool for nation-building and civic empowerment, envisioning it as a vehicle for reform, dialogue, and dissent. However, this vision faltered due to political inertia and the failure to create enabling social conditions.
The UGC’s current approach, while claiming to decolonise education, risks substituting colonial hierarchies with new ideological ones. By universalising upper-caste Vedic-Sanskritic traditions, it sidelines India’s heterogeneous epistemic traditions and potentially undermines constitutional commitments to inclusivity and scientific temper.

Need for Inclusivity: Tribal and Indigenous Pedagogies

A critical shortcoming of the proposed framework is its limited engagement with indigenous and tribal knowledge systems. True decolonisation requires embracing living traditions and plural pedagogies—from tribal ecological wisdom and oral traditions to regional linguistic philosophies—rather than projecting a static, selective image of ancient India.
Failure to integrate these diverse epistemologies risks replacing one form of intellectual hegemony with another, thereby alienating marginalised communities and reinforcing cultural homogenisation.

Tension with NEP’s Multidisciplinary Ethos

The NEP 2020 advocates a multidisciplinary and holistic approach to higher education, allowing students to explore subjects beyond narrow specialisations. However, the LOCF’s focus on discipline-specific credits limits this flexibility, thereby contradicting NEP’s vision.
Moreover, by embedding IKS in a prescriptive manner—without open academic debate—the framework risks stifling critical thinking and fostering rote adherence to a singular historical narrative.

Way Forward: Democratic Engagement and Plural Knowledge

To uphold the spirit of the Constitution and realise the promise of inclusive decolonisation, the following steps are imperative:

Pluralising IKS: Integrate Buddhist, Jain, Charvaka, Sufi, and tribal traditions alongside Vedic thought.
Safeguarding Scientific Temper: Ensure that science and philosophy remain in the crucible of open debate, dissent, and scrutiny, avoiding dogma.
Aligning with NEP’s Multidisciplinarity: Provide flexibility for cross-disciplinary exploration while incorporating IKS.
Strengthening Civic Participation: Engage scholars, educators, and communities—especially tribal groups and minorities—in curriculum development.
Contextualising Heritage: Present ancient contributions historically and critically, highlighting their limitations and evolution over time.

Conclusion

India’s quest to decolonise education must not devolve into ideological indoctrination. The true essence of IKS lies in celebrating pluralism, critical enquiry, and living traditions—values aligned with both the NEP 2020 and the Constitution’s directive for scientific temper and humanism.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the UGC’s proposed Learning Outcome-based Curriculum Framework (LOCF) for Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS):

It promotes the study of Bharatiya philosophy and ancient texts like Kautilya’s Arthashastra across disciplines.
It aligns fully with the NEP 2020’s multidisciplinary and holistic approach to higher education.
It risks marginalising non-Hindu, tribal, and heterodox traditions and undermines the constitutional commitment to scientific temper.
It integrates living indigenous pedagogies and tribal knowledge comprehensively across all subjects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only

Answer 3- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The LOCF proposes including Bharatiya philosophy and texts like Arthashastra in multiple disciplines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It does not align fully with NEP 2020 as it prioritises single-major pathways over multidisciplinary exploration.
Statement 3 is correct: Critics note it risks marginalising non-Hindu, tribal, and heterodox traditions and undermining scientific temper.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The curriculum does not comprehensively integrate living indigenous and tribal pedagogies.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? (2012)

Directive Principles of State Policy
Rural and Urban Local Bodies
Fifth Schedule
Sixth Schedule
Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (c)

NCRB Report 2023 and issue of Rise in Suicides

Source: Down To Earth

UPSC Relevance: GS 1 Social Justice

Context: NCRB Report 2023

Why in News?

The NCRB 2023 report shows a rise in suicides due to illnesses, sudden deaths from heart attacks, and abortion-related fatalities, highlighting emerging public health and mental health concerns in India.

Introduction

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Report 2023 has highlighted worrying trends in public health–related deaths in India.
The data shows a 3.2% rise in suicides due to illnesses, a 10% increase in sudden deaths from heart attacks, and a 59% spike in abortion-related fatalities, underlining the need for integrated health, mental-wellbeing, and maternal care interventions.

Suicides Linked to Illnesses:

Suicides due to illnesses accounted for 19% of all suicides in 2023, making it the second leading cause after family problems (32%). The number increased from 31,484 in 2022 to 32,503 in 2023.
The most affected age group was 30-45 years (8,964 deaths), followed by 45-60 years (7,938) and 18-30 years (7,386).
Men were disproportionately affected, with 22,987 deaths, compared to 9,501 among women and 15 among transgender individuals.
Mental illnesses remained a leading factor, causing 13,978 suicides, though showing a 4% decline from 2022. Conversely, cancer-related suicides rose by 14% (1,251 in 2022 to 1,427 in 2023), and suicides due to “Other Prolonged Illness” increased by 11%.
Regional concentration: Tamil Nadu reported the highest share (21%) of suicides due to illness, followed by Maharashtra (12%) and Karnataka (10%).
A 2024 longitudinal study (1995–2021) cited by NCRB shows that suicides linked to illness have surged over time. Among males, the share rose from 19% (2011–2015) to 45% (2016–2021), highlighting the growing health burden on mental resilience.

(Image Source: Down To Earth)

Sudden Deaths: Escalation in Heart-Attack-Related Fatalities

The report also flagged a surge in “sudden deaths” — defined as unexpected deaths occurring instantaneously or within minutes due to causes other than violence.
- Sudden deaths increased by 13%, from 56,450 in 2022 to 63,643 in 2023.
- Heart attacks contributed to a large share, rising 10% from 32,457 in 2022 to 35,715 in 2023.
- Deaths dsue to other sudden causes (such as brain haemorrhage) increased 16.4%, from 23,993 in 2022 to 27,928 in 2023.
Age-wise data indicates that people aged 45-60 years were most affected (34% of sudden deaths), followed by the 30-45 years group (31%).
Among heart-attack deaths specifically, 38% occurred in the 45-60 years group, highlighting the burden of lifestyle-related non-communicable diseases.
In contrast, younger groups (0-18 years) accounted for relatively few heart-attack deaths; however, 92% of sudden deaths in children (0-14 years) and 80% among adolescents (14-18 years) were caused by factors other than heart attack, pointing towards different health risks in younger populations.

Maternal Mortality and Abortion-Linked Deaths:

The NCRB data also raises alarms on maternal deaths during pregnancy, which rose by 5.4%, from 1,073 deaths in 2022 to 1,131 in 2023.
Particularly striking was the 59% surge in abortion-related deaths, from 80 in 2022 to 127 in 2023. Unsafe abortions remain a critical public health concern despite the legal framework provided by the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act.
A 2019 study underscores this challenge, reporting that out of 89,447 abortions among 1.87 million pregnant women (2007–2011), 65% (58,266) were classified as unsafe, often associated with rural residence, Scheduled Tribe groups, and younger maternal age (15–19 years).
The same study linked 253 maternal deaths to unsafe abortion practices, reflecting systemic gaps in access to safe reproductive healthcare.

Interlinkages

The rising suicides due to illnesses, sudden cardiac deaths, and abortion-linked fatalities reveal a common thread of inadequate healthcare access, insufficient mental-health support, and persisting inequities in rural and vulnerable groups.
Chronic diseases and prolonged illnesses not only cause physical suffering but also drive mental distress leading to suicides.
Cardiovascular mortality highlights the urgent need for preventive healthcare strategies focusing on hypertension, diabetes, and stress-related disorders.
Abortion-related fatalities point to gaps in safe maternal healthcare services despite existing legislation.
The data collectively underscores the interdependence of physical health, mental wellbeing, and social determinants such as poverty, gender, and rural access to care.

Way Forward

Mental Health Integration: Expand mental-health services at primary healthcare levels under the National Mental Health Programme.
Chronic Disease Management: Strengthen early screening and treatment of non-communicable diseases under Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres.
Cardiac Health Awareness: Promote lifestyle interventions and emergency response infrastructure for heart-attack cases.
Safe Maternal & Abortion Care: Improve access to safe abortion facilities and skilled medical personnel, especially in rural and tribal areas.
Data-Driven Interventions: Utilize NCRB data to identify high-risk regions and vulnerable populations for targeted interventions.

Conclusion

The NCRB Report 2023 serves as a crucial reminder that public health challenges extend beyond hospitals to socio-economic, mental, and gendered dimensions.

CARE MCQ

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding suicides in India as per NCRB 2023:

Suicides due to illnesses accounted for 19% of total suicides in 2023.
Men accounted for more suicide deaths due to illnesses than women.
Mental illnesses were the leading cause of suicide, with a 14% increase from 2022.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NCRB 2023 data shows that suicides due to illnesses accounted for 19% of total suicides, making it the second leading cause after family problems (32%).
Statement 2 is correct: Men were disproportionately affected, with 22,987 suicide deaths due to illnesses compared to 9,501 among women and 15 among transgender individuals.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Suicides due to mental illnesses actually declined by 4% in 2023, not increased by 14%. The 14% rise mentioned in the report refers to cancer-related suicides, snot mental illnesses.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development: (2012)

Low birthrate with low death rate
High birthrate with high death rate
High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 2, 1, 3

(d) 3, 2, 1

Ans: (c)

Dugong Conservation in India

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Dugong Conservation in India

Why in News?

Dugong populations in India, once widespread, are now critically low, prompting the establishment of the Palk Bay Dugong Conservation Reserve in 2022

Introduction

The dugong (Dugong dugon), often referred to as the ‘sea cow’, is a marine herbivore that once thrived along the Indian coastline, particularly in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Over the decades, its population has drastically declined, reduced to just a few hundred individuals in Indian waters. Several anthropogenic pressures have contributed to this decline, including poaching, accidental by-catch in fishing nets, habitat degradation due to seagrass loss, pollution from agriculture and industry, and the slow reproductive rate of the species.
The dwindling population raised fears of extinction two decades ago, prompting both state and central authorities to initiate targeted conservation measures.

Palk Bay Dugong Conservation Reserve: A Milestone

A significant step in dugong conservation came in 2022 with the establishment of the Dugong Conservation Reserve in Palk Bay under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Covering over 12,000 hectares of seagrass meadows, this reserve is the first dedicated dugong conservation area in India. The initiative exemplifies integrated marine conservation, combining scientific input from the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) with active engagement of local fishing communities.
This partnership has yielded tangible results:
- Poaching has been curtailed through stricter monitoring and awareness campaigns.
- Fishers now release dugongs accidentally caught in nets, reducing by-catch mortality.
- The dugong population in the reserve has risen to over 200 individuals, as per WII surveys—a fragile but encouraging recovery.
- The Palk Bay model has also incorporated modern technologies, including drones for aerial surveys, acoustic sensors, and satellite-based mapping of seagrass beds, demonstrating how innovation can complement traditional ecological knowledge.
In recognition of these efforts, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has hailed the reserve as an exemplar for marine conservation, highlighting its ecological significance and innovative restoration techniques.

(Image Source: Nature Conservation Foundation)

Challenges in Dugong Conservation

Despite these achievements, several challenges remain:

Habitat threats persist even within the reserve, including mechanised fishing, port construction, dredging, and coastal pollution.
Dugongs continue to face by-catch mortality in fishing nets, limiting population recovery.
Climate-related threats such as rising sea temperatures, ocean acidification, and increasing storms threaten both seagrass meadows and dugong survival.
Populations in Gujarat and the Andaman Islands are smaller and less protected, demonstrating that conservation success is currently regional rather than nationwide.
Experts also emphasise the need for cross-border collaboration, particularly with Sri Lanka, as dugongs traverse the narrow Palk Strait. Without coordinated protection measures across borders, the species’ recovery risks being localised and unsustainable.
Furthermore, long-term funding remains inconsistent. While allocations from the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAMPA) have supported restoration and monitoring, the slow reproductive cycle of dugongs requires sustained financial investment over decades, underscoring the importance of predictable and steady funding for meaningful conservation outcomes.

Lessons for Broader Marine Conservation

The Palk Bay experience offers critical insights for marine conservation in India:

Community Engagement: Treating fishers as partners rather than adversaries mitigates by-catch and creates local constituencies that actively participate in conservation.
Science-Policy Integration: Blending traditional ecological knowledge with modern technology, such as drones and acoustic mapping, bridges the gap between local practices and scientific innovation.
International Recognition: IUCN endorsement not only legitimises domestic conservation efforts but also fosters knowledge exchange and potential funding support.
Sustained and Coordinated Efforts: Protection must be long-term, well-funded, and include cross-border collaboration, highlighting the importance of ecosystem-level planning rather than isolated interventions.

Conclusion

The Palk Bay Dugong Conservation Reserve stands as a model for integrated, science-driven, and community-led marine conservation in India.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding dugong conservation in India:

The Palk Bay Dugong Conservation Reserve was notified under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and protects seagrass meadows.
Dugongs are protected as a Schedule II species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act.
India has employed drones, acoustic sensors, and satellite mapping to monitor dugong habitats.
Dugong populations in Gujarat and the Andaman Islands are larger and better protected than in Tamil Nadu.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer 5-A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Palk Bay Dugong Conservation Reserve was notified under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, protecting over 12,000 hectares of seagrass meadows, crucial for dugong survival.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dugongs are a Schedule I species, not Schedule II, under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, granting them the highest level of legal protection.
Statement 3 is correct: India has employed drones, acoustic sensors, and satellite mapping to monitor and restore dugong habitats.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Dugong populations in Gujarat and the Andaman Islands are smaller and less protected than those in Tamil Nadu.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

It is a herbivorous marine animal.
It is found along the entire coast of India.
It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act; 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

India: The Rising Burden of Non-Communicable Diseases

Source: New Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS1 public Health

Context: Anshakalin Stri Parichars

Why in News?

Women community health workers like Anshakalin Stri Parichars (ASPs) in Maharashtra perform essential rural health services but remain underpaid, unprotected, and unrecognised,

Introduction

The case of Anshakalin Stri Parichars (ASPs) in Maharashtra reflects a long-standing challenge in India’s public health system — the persistent undervaluation of women’s labour in rural health care.
For decades, ASPs have shouldered a wide breadth of responsibilities such as supporting maternal and child health services, immunisation drives, disease surveillance, and hospital upkeep in rural areas.
Yet, despite their indispensable role, their monthly wage has stagnated at ₹3,000 since 2016, leaving them decades behind inflation and far below the living wage standard.

Gendered and Caste-Inflected Hierarchy in Health Labour

The plight of ASPs reveals a gendered and caste-inflected hierarchy of labour in public health. These women — mostly poor and rural — are often overlooked in wage policies and denied basic entitlements like job security, pensions, travel allowance, and safety gear.
Their marginalisation is not accidental but systemic:
The State promised a meagre ₹6,000 per month by December 2025, far below what multi-purpose health workers earn.
In 2023, the Nagpur labour court acknowledged that ASPs deserve at least the protection of the Minimum Wages Act, but left its implementation to the State, resulting in continued delays.
This neglect stems from the perception that such care work, performed by rural women, is of “low status” despite being skilled and essential, thereby legitimising their exploitation.

Parallels with ASHA Workers and Other Grassroots Health Providers

ASPs’ struggle mirrors the ongoing protests of Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) across States.
Introduced under the National Rural Health Mission (2005) as the first link between communities and the formal health system, ASHAs are still classified as “volunteers” rather than employees.
They are compensated mainly through incentives that are often delayed and insufficient for subsistence.
Like ASPs, ASHAs have consistently demanded fixed honoraria, recognition as government staff, and social security benefits.
Both groups illustrate how India’s rural health infrastructure is built on the underpaid labour of women, whose contribution remains unrecognised by the system that depends heavily on them.

(Image Source: Business Northeast)

Structural Contradictions in Rural Health Care

India’s reliance on women community health workers is often framed as offering “opportunities” for rural women, yet it has translated into systemic exploitation.
ASPs face unsafe working conditions, such as risking snakebites while clearing hospital grounds or death in road accidents while travelling for vaccination duty, often without insurance or compensation.
These conditions highlight how public health delivery at the grassroots remains insecure and unsustainable when it fails to value the very workers who keep it functional.
A health system that disregards the welfare of its frontline workers undermines itself, as it weakens the link between rural populations and formal care services.

Way Forward

To ensure equitable and effective rural health care, policy must prioritise the rights and welfare of women community health workers:

Living Wages and Fixed Honoraria: Immediate revision of wages in line with Minimum Wages Act provisions, along with timely disbursement.
Safe and Dignified Working Conditions: Provision of safety gear, travel allowances, and insurance cover for occupational hazards.
Recognition as Government Staff: Granting job security, pensions, and social security benefits to community health workers to legitimise their role in the health workforce.
Gender-Responsive Health Governance: Integrating women’s voices into decision-making processes to counter structural discrimination.

Conclusion

A truly resilient rural health system cannot be built on the unpaid or underpaid labour of women. Securing their economic and social rights is essential not just for justice but also for the long-term sustainability of rural health care delivery.

CARE MCQ

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Anshakalin Stri Parichars (ASPs) in Maharashtra:

ASPs’ monthly wage has been stagnant at ₹3,000 since 2016 and they lack job security, pension, and safety provisions.
ASPs predate ASHAs and have faced similar struggles for recognition and fair compensation.
In 2023, a labour court mandated the State to provide ASPs the same wages as multi-purpose health workers.
ASPs’ work highlights structural exploitation of women in rural health systems.

Options:
A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ASPs’ wages have stagnated at ₹3,000 since 2016, and they lack job security, pension, safety gear, and travel allowance.
Statement 2 is correct: ASPs predate ASHAs and have faced similar struggles for recognition and fair compensation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 Nagpur labour court acknowledged the Minimum Wages Act protection but left the implementation to the State; it did not mandate parity with multi-purpose health workers.
Statement 4 is correct: Their situation exemplifies structural exploitation of women in rural health systems.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to the National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker? (2012)