CM Chandrababu targets 15% growth rate, aims for 33% crime cut

Source: Indian Express

APPSC Relevance: Governance

Context: Andhra Pradesh Collectors’ Conference 2025

Why in News?

At the Andhra Pradesh Collectors’ Conference 2025, Chief Minister emphasized reducing the crime rate, tackling cybercrime, promoting green energy, enhancing health infrastructure, and boosting employment through innovation and technology.

Introduction

  • The two-day District Collectors’ Conference held at the Andhra Pradesh State Secretariat in Velagapudi concluded with Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu outlining a comprehensive roadmap aimed at improving law and order, boosting economic growth, promoting innovation, and leveraging technology for effective governance.
  • The conference brought together District Collectors, Superintendent of Police (SPs), Deputy Chief Minister Pawan Kalyan, other ministers, and officials to deliberate on key challenges and future strategies for the state.

Law and Order: Ambitious Targets and Modern Challenges

  • Chief Minister Naidu emphasized that maintaining law and order is pivotal for fostering public confidence and encouraging investment. He highlighted a 4% drop in the overall crime rate, indicating positive progress.
  • However, he sounded an alarm over a 16% rise in cybercrime, warning that cybercriminals are increasingly exploiting technological loopholes. According to the CM, citizens are losing a staggering ₹30,000 crore annually due to cybercrimes.
  • Naidu stressed the urgent need for public awareness campaigns on law and order, especially cybercrime prevention.
  • He directed police officials to upgrade their technological capabilities and adopt innovative tools to track and counter cyber threats effectively.
  • Another significant concern raised was the misuse of propaganda, specifically related to urea, as a means to disturb law and order. Naidu called for a strategic focus on containing such false narratives.
  • Moreover, he laid out an ambitious target to reduce the crime rate by 33% within three months, highlighting the importance of proactive policing, efficient resource management, and community engagement.

Focus on Drugs and Ganja Eradication

  • The Chief Minister underlined the growing drug menace in the state, urging police officials to intensify efforts against narcotics, with special emphasis on eradicating ganja cultivation.
  • He called for increased publicity campaigns and stricter enforcement actions as part of a comprehensive anti-drug strategy.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Economic Development: Employment and Skill Development

  • A key theme of the conference was the necessity of inclusive economic growth. Naidu emphasized that district collectors should focus on achieving a 15% growth rate, particularly through employment generation and optimal utilization of human resources.
  • In line with this, the CM promoted the innovative “One Family – One Entrepreneur” initiative, designed to equip individuals with skill development training and provide work-from-home opportunities.
  • This reflects a shift toward entrepreneurship as a tool for economic empowerment and reducing unemployment.
  • Furthermore, Naidu made it clear that the right people had been appointed in appropriate positions to facilitate effective governance and speedy decision-making.

Technology and Innovation in Governance

  • The CM strongly advocated the use of technology to enhance administrative efficiency and improve public service delivery. He emphasized the need for IAS and IPS officers to be motivated and goal-oriented, focusing on achieving targets with technological support.
  • One significant policy measure was promoting digital payments in the excise sector, aimed at increasing transparency and reducing corruption.

Health Sector Prioritization

  • A substantial allocation of ₹20,000 crore was announced for the health sector, emphasizing the government’s commitment to improving healthcare services.
  • Naidu urged the adoption of technological solutions to reduce costs and enhance service delivery, recognizing that efficient healthcare infrastructure is crucial for sustainable development.

Green Energy and Sustainable Development

  • Naidu reiterated his commitment to sustainable development by promoting green energy solutions, including the installation of rooftop solar panels even on police office buildings and encouraging the adoption of electric vehicles.
  • The vision of a circular economy was also highlighted, focusing on minimizing waste and maximizing resource efficiency.
  • He underlined the importance of improving road, rail, and marine infrastructure to reduce logistics costs and enhance economic competitiveness.

Conclusion

  • The Andhra Pradesh Collectors’ Conference, under the chairmanship of CM N. Chandrababu Naidu, presented a multi-pronged strategy focusing on law and order, economic growth, technological innovation, green energy, health infrastructure, and social welfare.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding the key highlights of the Andhra Pradesh Collectors’ Conference 2025:

  1. The Chief Minister set an ambitious target of reducing the state crime rate by 33% within three months.
  2. The government announced an allocation of ₹20,000 crore for the health sector to improve public healthcare services.
  3. To promote sustainable development, the CM suggested adopting electric vehicles and rooftop solar panels even in police offices.
  4. The “One Family – One Entrepreneur” initiative was introduced to promote skill development and work-from-home opportunities.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer 1- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The CM directed officials to aim for a 33% reduction in crime rate within three months.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A total of ₹20,000 crore was allocated to the health sector.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Green energy solutions like electric vehicles and rooftop solar panels on police offices were actively promoted.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The “One Family – One Entrepreneur” initiative was launched to encourage skill development and work-from-home opportunities.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Andhra Pradesh targets clearance of 1.15 crore metric tonnes of legacy waste by year-end

Source: The Hindu

APPSC Relevance: Governance

Context: Legacy Waste issue

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh has launched a mission to eliminate over 1.15 crore metric tonnes of legacy waste by 2025 through composting, Refuse-Derived Fuel (RDF), Waste-to-Energy plants, and promoting the Circular Economy model.

Introduction

  • The Andhra Pradesh has launched an ambitious mission to eliminate over 1.15 crore metric tonnes of legacy waste by the end of 2025.
  • This initiative aligns with the principles of Swachh Andhra, Swachh Bharat, and a Circular Economy, aiming to promote sustainability, resource efficiency, and optimal land utilization.

Legacy Waste:

  • Legacy Waste refers to the accumulated waste that has been dumped and left unmanaged over several years at landfill sites or illegal dumping areas.
  • It typically includes municipal solid waste, construction & demolition debris, industrial waste, hazardous materials, and other unsegregated refuse.

Key Highlights of the Mission

1. Legacy Waste Clearance Target

  • The State plans to clear 85.90 lakh metric tonnes of old waste dumps by October 2, 2025, followed by an additional 30 lakh metric tonnes by December 2025.
  • The reclaimed land will be repurposed productively, turning waste into resources.

2. Resource Utilization Strategy

  • Recovered soil will be processed into compost, promoting organic farming and improving soil health.
  • Refuse-Derived Fuel (RDF) will be supplied to cement factories, reducing reliance on conventional fossil fuels and providing a sustainable waste-to-energy solution.

Waste-to-Energy (WTE) Initiatives

  • Functional WTE plants exist in Visakhapatnam and Guntur, converting municipal waste into power daily.
  • Further projects are underway in Nellore, Rajahmundry, Kurnool, Kadapa, Vijayawada, and Tirupati, with the target of operationalizing six WTE plants by 2027.

Integrated Solid Waste Management (ISWM) Approach

The State is developing 72 ISWM clusters supported by:

  • 417 Material Recovery Facilities (MRFs) in rural areas.
  • 108 urban projects for waste segregation and recycling.
  • Efforts are ongoing to revive Construction & Demolition (C&D) waste management plants in Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, and Tirupati.
  • Poultry waste management systems are also in the pipeline, focusing on bio-extraction and energy generation.

Sewage Treatment and Reuse

  • Andhra Pradesh is setting up 142 Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) on 199 acres.
  • The treated sewage water will be reused safely, promoting water sustainability and reducing environmental contamination.

Policy and Governance Framework

The mission is steered by key departments such as:

  • Swachh Andhra Corporation
  • Panchayati Raj & Rural Development
  • Municipal & Urban Development
  • Pollution Control Board
  • Forest Department

The initiative highlights the State’s commitment to:

  • Promoting cleanliness and public health.
  • Enhancing environmental sustainability.
  • Driving job creation in the green economy sector.

Single-Use Plastic (SUP) Free Status

  • The Andhra Pradesh Secretariat was declared Single-Use Plastic Free on August 15, 2025.
  • All collectorates and government offices are mandated to achieve SUP-Free status by December 2025, reducing plastic pollution and promoting eco-friendly alternatives.

Significance in National Context

  • Andhra Pradesh’s focus on the circular economy model serves as a best-practice example for other states.
  • The State was nationally recognized in Swachh Survekshan 2024 for its efforts in waste management and public hygiene.
  • This mission aligns with India’s broader goals of sustainable development and responsible urbanization under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Challenges Ahead

  • Implementation across rural and urban areas requires strong coordination between various government agencies and private stakeholders.
  • Ensuring long-term viability of waste-to-energy plants and compost production depends on sustained public participation and monitoring mechanisms.
  • Managing funding, technology deployment, and capacity-building in local bodies remains crucial.

Way Forward

  • Further adoption of eco-friendly technologies, public awareness campaigns, and strict regulation of waste segregation at the source will enhance the mission’s success.
  • Developing public-private partnerships (PPP) in waste management will ensure efficiency and innovation.
  • Promoting circular economy practices will contribute to India’s goals of reducing landfill pressure, mitigating pollution, and creating green jobs.

Conclusion

  • Andhra Pradesh’s mission to eliminate legacy waste by the end of 2025 represents a bold, environmentally conscious step in line with global sustainable development trends.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Legacy Waste Clearance Mission in Andhra Pradesh:

  1. The mission targets the clearance of over 1.15 crore metric tonnes of legacy waste by the end of 2025.
  2. Recovered soil from legacy waste is planned to be processed into Refuse-Derived Fuel (RDF) for use in agriculture.
  3. Andhra Pradesh has already operational Waste-to-Energy (WTE) plants in Visakhapatnam and Guntur, with six more planned by 2027.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 2- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The mission indeed targets the clearance of over 1.15 crore metric tonnes of legacy waste by the end of 2025.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The recovered soil will be processed into compost (used in agriculture), while Refuse-Derived Fuel (RDF) will be supplied to cement factories, not used in agriculture.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Waste-to-Energy plants are already functional in Visakhapatnam and Guntur, and six more are planned to be operational by 2027.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Increased Emissions Threaten Solar Infrastructure in India

Source: Down To Earth

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: Solar Infrastructure in India

Why in News?

Rising greenhouse gas emissions in India could reduce surface solar radiation by up to 10%, threatening the efficiency and reliability of solar energy infrastructure.

Introduction

  • The India is at the forefront of the global renewable energy transition, with solar power forming a critical component of its strategy to achieve energy security, economic growth, and climate commitments.
  • As of August 31, 2025, India’s solar power installed capacity reached 123,130.13 MW, with significant contributions from the southern states (~14%).
  • However, a recent study published in the journal Energy and Climate Change highlights a major emerging threat to solar infrastructure in India: climate change-induced reductions in surface solar radiation (SSR).

Key Findings of the Study

  • The study, conducted by researchers Ashwin Jadhav and Rohini Bhawar from Savitribai Phule Pune University, warns that increased greenhouse gas emissions could significantly reduce solar radiation reaching the Earth’s surface, particularly under intermediate and high emission scenarios.
  • Key observations include:
    • Up to 10% reduction in SSR is expected over central, southern, and eastern India.
    • The reduction is primarily linked to increased atmospheric turbidity, higher aerosol concentrations, and enhanced post-monsoonal cloud cover.
    • Solar energy output is highly sensitive to meteorological changes and long-term climate variability, making SSR projections critical for future planning.

Emission Scenarios and Projections

  • The study analyzed three emission scenarios—Low, Intermediate, and High—across three time periods:
    • Near future (2021–2040)
    • Mid future (2041–2060)
    • Far future (2081–2100)
    • Low Emission Scenario
  • Slight reductions in SSR (0.5% to 1% per decade).
  • Some marginal increases in Indo-Gangetic Plains and northeastern states, attributed to decreased aerosols and cloud changes.
  • Intermediate Emission Scenario
    • SSR declines between 0.5% and over 1% per decade in central, southern, and northeastern India.
    • Mean SSR loss: ~1.10 watts/m² per decade.
  • High Emission Scenario
    • Widespread reductions across the Indian subcontinent.
    • Mean SSR reduction: ~1.32 watts/m² per decade.
    • Central, western, and peninsular regions most severely impacted.

(Source: Down To Earth)

Implications for Solar Energy Development

  • Given that solar photovoltaic (PV) panels have a lifespan of 20–25 years, these projected SSR changes pose significant challenges to the sustainability and economic viability of solar farms. The study emphasizes:
  • The need to look beyond annual averages and account for regional and temporal variability in solar resources.
  • North-western India remains a relatively stable region for investment, while eastern and southern India exhibit higher variability, warranting hybrid systems (solar + wind + storage).
  • An urgent call for climate-resilient technologiesadvanced forecasting systems, and targeted solar park deployment.

Current Status of Solar Energy in India

  • Installed Capacity (as of August 2025): 123,130.13 MW
  • Solar generation (as of July 2025): 12,100.61 MW
  • Despite renewables making up 37% of installed generation capacity, they contributed only about 18% to actual electricity generated, indicating a significant gap due to weather-related factors.

The Role of Meteorological Factors

  • Meteorological variables—cloud cover, aerosol levels, and extreme weather events—are already affecting the realized solar potential. Historical patterns of:
  • Global Dimming (due to higher aerosol concentrations and cloud variability).
  • Global Brightening (due to improved atmospheric conditions).
  • These underline the sensitivity of solar energy infrastructure to long-term atmospheric changes.

Recommended Adaptation Measures

  • Region-Specific Solar Park Planning: Prioritize stable regions for large-scale projects and develop hybrid systems where variability is higher.
  • Advanced Forecasting Systems: Integrate cloud-level and aerosol data into prediction models to improve the accuracy of SSR forecasts.
  • Climate-Resilient Technologies: Promote innovation in solar PV technology that can perform efficiently under variable SSR conditions.
  • Linking Climate Models to Grid Operations: Connect SSR projections to real-world photovoltaic performance models and grid integration to ensure reliable power supply.

Conclusion

  • This study raises a critical alarm for India’s renewable energy ambitions. Policymakers, solar developers, and researchers must urgently consider the long-term effects of climate-induced variability in SSR while designing solar energy infrastructure. Without robust planning and adaptation, India’s solar energy sector may face challenges in achieving its climate and energy targets, affecting both energy security and sustainable development.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of greenhouse gas emissions on India’s solar energy potential:

  1. Increased emissions are projected to reduce surface solar radiation (SSR) by up to 10% under high emission scenarios.
  2. The Indo-Gangetic Plains are expected to see the most significant reduction in SSR due to increased aerosol concentrations.
  3. North-western India is identified as a relatively stable region for long-term solar energy investments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 1- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The study shows that under intermediate and high emission scenarios, surface solar radiation (SSR) in India could reduce by up to 10%, especially over central, southern, and eastern regions, which threatens the efficiency of solar energy infrastructure.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indo-Gangetic Plains and northeastern states are expected to see marginal increases in SSR, not significant reductions, due to reduced aerosol concentrations and changes in cloud dynamics.
  • Statement 3 is correct: North-western India demonstrates relatively stable high solar potential, making it more reliable for long-term solar energy investments, compared to regions with higher variability such as the eastern and southern parts of the country.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.   Consider the following statements: (2016)

  1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
  2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

India’s Energy Transition: Adding 97 GW Coal Capacity to Balance Renewable Surge

Source: Down To Earth

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: India’s Energy Transition

Why in News?

India plans to add 97 GW of coal power capacity by 2035 to stabilize the grid amid rapid growth in renewable energy.

Introduction

  • The India’s energy sector is undergoing a historic transition as the nation accelerates toward ambitious renewable energy targets—aiming for 500 GW by 2030—while striving to meet its net zero emissions goal by 2070.
  • However, the rapid growth of intermittent renewable energy sources like solar and wind poses challenges to grid stability, especially during non-solar hours.
  • In response, the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) and Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) announced plans to add 97 GW of new coal-based power capacity by 2035.

(Image Source: Down To earth)

Why Add Coal Capacity Amid Renewables Growth?

  • Grid Reliability Concerns
  • The energy transition enters a “high-risk phase” characterized by:
  • Volatile demand patterns
  • Steep ramping needs, especially in the evening
  • Low net load during daytime when solar generation is abundant
  • Coal plants will provide firm, round-the-clock backup to ensure stability as renewable energy penetration increases.
  • Strategic Location
  • Of the 97 GW:
    • 70 GW will be located in renewable-rich states to complement green generation.
    • 27 GW will be gradually deployed elsewhere.
  • Long-Term Operation: These coal plants are expected to operate until 2050, bridging the transition while India builds up storage and alternative technology solutions.

Complementary Developments: Nuclear and Hydro Pumped Storage

  • Nuclear Capacity Expansion
  • Nuclear power is slated to grow from 8.8 GW today to 100 GW by 2047.
  • Policy reforms aim to attract private players beyond the state-owned NPCIL, enhancing capacity and investment.
  • Hydro Pumped Storage Expansion
  • Targeted to increase from 4.7 GW to nearly 60 GW by 2033.
  • Projects include closed-loop off-stream hydro systems, attracting significant private investment.
  • Planned capacity additions:
    • 2.8 GW in 2025
    • 2.6 GW in 2026
    • 13 GW in 2027
  • These technologies will allow excess renewable energy to be stored and dispatched during peak demand.

Regulatory Challenges and Reforms

  • Operational Strain
  • The system faces:
    • Low net load during the day (solar surplus)
    • High evening ramping requirement, stressing thermal plants to operate at minimal technical levels.
  • Market Reforms by CERC
  • Working on:
    • New capacity market design
    • Reforms to ancillary services
    • Incentives for battery and pumped storage projects
    • Upcoming wholesale market redesign discussion paper
  • Dynamic Regulations
  • Regulations are being designed to be adaptive, not rigid, allowing quick responses to technology evolution and market dynamics while maintaining investor confidence.

Pushing for Technological and Manufacturing Diversification

  • Reducing Lithium Reliance
  • Prasad emphasized the need to develop alternative storage technologies:
    • Sodium-ion batteries
    • Sodium-sulphur batteries
    • CO₂-based long-duration storage systems
  • Domestic Manufacturing Focus: Expansion of storage and energy technologies under the Make in India initiative is critical to reduce import dependence and mitigate global supply chain shocks.
  • Untapped Potential: India’s pumped hydro potential estimates rose sharply from 94 GW to 214 GW in just one year, reflecting vast untapped domestic capability.

Macro Implications and Way Forward

  • The additional coal capacity and complementary technologies reflect a pragmatic recalibration of India’s resource mix.
  • Immediate priority remains to maintain grid reliability amid rising renewable penetration.
  • In the medium to long term, emphasis should shift toward:
  • Technological diversification in energy storage
  • Enhancement of local manufacturing capabilities
  • Policy and market reforms that promote private investment
  • Aligning with sustainable and clean energy objectives without jeopardising energy security.

Conclusion

  • India’s decision to add 97 GW of new coal capacity by 2035 is not a step backward but a necessary transitional strategy to manage the complexities of a rapidly evolving energy sector.

CARE MCQ

Q2.   Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. India plans to add 97 GW of new coal-based power capacity by 2035 to ensure grid reliability amid increasing renewable energy penetration.
  2. The newly added coal plants will operate only until 2035 and will be phased out immediately after that.

Options:
A. Both statements are true, and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.
B. Both statements are true, but statement 2 does not correctly explain statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true, and statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false, and statement 2 is true.

Ans: (c)

Answer 2- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: As per CEA and CERC announcements, the 97 GW coal capacity is planned to provide firm, round-the-clock backup as renewable energy penetration rises.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect; The coal plants are expected to operate until 2050, not just 2035. They are meant to provide long-term backup during the transition to a renewable-heavy grid. They will not be phased out immediately after 2035.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.    With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

  1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
  2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Goods and Services Tax (GST) Reforms: Implications for India’s Economy

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: GST Reforms

Why in News?

The 2025 GST reforms in India rationalized tax rates, eliminated 12% and 28% slabs, and introduced a demerit rate of 40%.

introduction

  • The Goods and Services Tax (GST), introduced in India as a destination-based tax system, aimed to enhance production and consumption efficiencies by taxing final consumption and allowing input tax credits. Over time, the GST structure faced challenges such as multiple tax rates, inverted duty structures, and high compliance costs.
  • In a significant reform taking effect from September 22, 2025, India rationalized its GST rate structure, marking a landmark policy shift.

Key Features of the New GST Rate Structure

  • The new system discontinues the 12% and 28% tax slabs, retaining only 0%, 5%, and 18% rates along with a demerit rate of 40% applied to luxury and sin goods.
  • Special lower rates below 5% remain for certain essential items.
  • Of 546 goods undergoing rate changes, over 80% witnessed rate reductions while 20% saw increases.
    • Beneficiary Sectors
  • Consumption-driven sectors: Textiles, consumer electronics, automobiles, health, and most food items are expected to benefit due to lower consumer prices.
  • Production-driven sectors: Fertilizers, agricultural machinery, and renewable energy stand to gain from lower input costs, enhancing farmer welfare.

(Image Source: the hindu)

Impact on GST Revenue

GST Revenue Formula:

  • R=r×E=r×(p×q)R = r \times E = r \times (p \times q)R=r×E=r×(p×q)
  • Where,
    • RRR: GST Revenue
    • rrr: Tax Rate
    • ppp: Pre-tax Price
    • qqq: Quantity Consumed
  • The reduction in tax rates lowers post-tax prices, which moderately increases the quantity demanded.
  • However, the percentage decline in tax rate exceeds the price reduction effect, leading to an overall fall in GST revenues.
  • Goods with nil GST rates generate zero tax revenue, regardless of consumption.
  • For goods where the rate increased from 28% to 40%, this reflects the merger of the compensation cess into the tax rate and does not represent a real tax hike.

Income Augmenting Effect

  • Consumers experience a rise in disposable income due to lower GST rates, especially for essential goods in the 5% category (e.g., food items) where demand is inelastic.
  • This leads to a secondary increase in the consumption of goods taxed at higher rates (18% and 40%), potentially offsetting some revenue loss over time.
  • However, such revenue gains will materialize gradually, whereas the immediate impact is a sharp revenue reduction.

Implications for Economic Growth

  • Positive Effects:
    • Reduction of cascading effect promotes better resource allocation.
    • Consumers benefit from lower prices and increased purchasing power, stimulating consumption.
  • Limitations:
    • Zero-rated and exempt categories lead to loss of input tax credit (ITC) benefits, causing bottlenecks.
    • Classifying goods should reflect their intrinsic nature, not temporary demand weaknesses.

Macro-Fiscal Implications

  • The reform is likely to exert pressure on the fiscal deficit in FY 2025-26.
  • Growth estimates are already below projections:
  • Nominal GDP grew by 8.8% in Q1 vs. 10.1% projected.
  • Direct taxes shrank by (-)4.3% compared to 33.6% growth last year.
  • Combined with personal income tax reforms, the total estimated revenue foregone is around ₹1 lakh crore.
  • The government faces two options to handle the shortfall:
    • Reduce expenditure
    • Increase fiscal deficit
  • States may face increased borrowing or spending cuts, adversely affecting growth.

Monetary and Fiscal Policy Options

  • Liquidity expansion or repo rate cuts may help but risk higher inflation.
  • Monetising the deficit may be considered but is viable only within strict limits.

Conclusion

  • The 2025 GST reforms mark a significant attempt to simplify India’s indirect tax system and boost consumption, particularly in employment-intensive sectors.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Which of the following statements about India’s new GST rate structure is/are correct?

  1. The 12% and 28% GST rate slabs have been discontinued.
  2. A special demerit rate of 40% has been introduced for sin and luxury goods.
  3. Input Tax Credit (ITC) is fully admissible for goods in the exempt category.

Select the correct answer:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 3- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The new GST rate structure, effective from September 22, 2025, discontinued the 12% and 28% tax slabs as part of simplifying the tax system and promoting consumption and production efficiency.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A demerit rate of 40% was introduced specifically for sin goods and luxury items, aimed at discouraging consumption of such goods while simplifying the tax structure by merging the previous compensation cess.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: For goods placed under the exempt categoryInput Tax Credit (ITC) is not admissible, meaning taxes paid on inputs cannot be claimed back, which increases the cost of production and affects the final price of exempt goods.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Consider the following items: (2018)

  1. Cereal grains hulled
  2. Chicken eggs cooked
  3. Fish processed and canned
  4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Good and Services Tax)?  

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

The West’s Civil Wars – A New Fault Line in Global Politics

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: West’s Civil Wars

Why in News?

The growing ideological polarisation in the West, driven by populist nationalism, anti-immigration sentiments, and backlash against liberal-globalist policies.

Introduction

  • The recent In recent years, political discourse in the West — particularly the United States, the United Kingdom, and parts of Europe — has increasingly adopted the term “civil war” not in its historical context but as a metaphor for the deep and widening societal divisions.
  • The growing polarisation within Western societies, driven by sharp ideological divides, anti-immigration sentiments, and a rising populist backlash against liberal-globalist policies.

Historical Context of Western Stability

  • Post-World War II, Western democracies entered an era of relative stability due to several key factors:
    • Economic Prosperity
    • Strong Democratic Institutions
    • Welfare Systems
    • Political Representation
  • This created a broad consensus accommodating both leftist and rightist forces. However, recent developments indicate the gradual erosion of this consensus, driven by growing disillusionment with globalisation and liberalism.

Civil wars, west Civil wars, western Civil wars, English Civil War, American Civil War, Trump administration, USAID, NPR and Voice of America, editorial, Indian express, opinion news, current affairs

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Current Dynamics of Western “Civil Wars”

1. Polarisation and Rise of Populism

  • The West is witnessing a growing clash between liberal elites and populist insurgents.
  • Political discourse has shifted towards aggressive, war-like rhetoric.
  • Example: The murder of conservative activist Charlie Kirk in Utah was immediately termed by Trump supporters as an attack by the radical Left.
  • Similar nationalist rallies in London, led by figures like Tommy Robinson, amplify anti-immigrant sentiment.

2. Convergence of Transatlantic Nationalism

  • The MAGA (Make America Great Again) movement in the U.S. and the British nationalist movement show increasing alignment.
  • Shared rhetoric emphasizes “taking back the nation” from liberal-global elites.

Three Core Ideological Fronts of Conflict

A. Values

  • Liberal Establishment: Emphasises individual rights, multiculturalism, and global cooperation.
  • Populists: Argue for nationalism, state sovereignty, and protection of traditional cultural and religious identities, often invoking “Judeo-Christian values”.

B. Immigration

  • Liberals: Support relatively open borders, promoting cheap labour supply to benefit capitalist interests.
  • Populists: Claim that mass (especially illegal) immigration:
  • Strains public services
  • Lowers wages
  • Erodes social cohesion
  • ‘Great Replacement’ Theory: Claims elites aim to replace native populations with foreigners to consolidate power—now mainstream.

C. Foreign Policy

  • Liberals: Advocate globalism, multilateralism, and institutions like the EU and NATO as bulwarks against instability.
  • Populists: Denounce foreign entanglements and alliances, viewing them as benefiting elites rather than citizens.
  • Example: The Trump Administration dismantled USAID, NPR, and Voice of America, accusing them of spreading liberal values globally.
  • Populists denounce the “Soros-driven NGO-industrial complex”.

Impact on India

  • India is especially vulnerable to these Western political shifts due to:
    • Its large diaspora in Anglo-Saxon nations.
    • Many Indian professionals have thrived due to open-border policies since the 1960s.
    • Populist ire is now increasingly directed at Indian migrants.
    • The retreat of Western globalisation policies makes it harder for India to pursue export-led growth models as China once did.
  • India’s diplomatic relations with the West are now complicated:
    • During Biden years: Friction over democracy and human rights.
    • During Trump years: A strategic alignment against Western liberalism.
    • Today: New contradictions emerge around immigration and globalisation.

Policy Implications for India

1. Re-assessing the “Collective West”

  • India’s policymakers should abandon simplistic views of a homogeneous Western bloc.
  • Instead, India must recognise:
  • Fragmented Western political landscapes.
  • Divergent ideologies and emerging populist-nationalist forces.

2. Strategic Engagement

  • India must engage not only at the bilateral level but also with multiple political formations within Western democracies.
  • Deep understanding of populist narratives and political dynamics will help India navigate future challenges in diplomacy and diaspora relations.

3. Think Tank and Academic Involvement

  • Indian think tanks and academic institutions should invest more resources in researching Western polities and their internal fissures.
  • This will help formulate informed policies that anticipate evolving global shifts.

Conclusion

  • For India, whose growth strategy and international standing are closely tied to Western global institutions, these developments demand a nuanced, informed, and strategic approach. Understanding the internal “civil wars” of the West is not just an academic exercise, but a necessity for India’s long-term global engagement.

CARE MCQ

Q4.  Which of the following statements regarding the recent ideological conflict in Western democracies is/are correct?

  1. Populists in the West argue that liberal policies of open borders serve capitalist interests in cheap labour while eroding social cohesion.
  2. The ‘Great Replacement’ theory, once a fringe idea, now influences mainstream populist thought.
  3. The Trump administration expanded the role of USAID, NPR, and Voice of America to strengthen global promotion of liberal values.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 4- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Populists in the West argue that liberal policies of relatively open borders serve capitalist interests by providing cheap labour while simultaneously eroding social cohesion, public services, and depressing wages. This forms a core part of their anti-globalisation and anti-immigration agenda.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The ‘Great Replacement’ theory, which claims that elites deliberately replace native populations with foreigners to entrench their power, has moved from the fringe to the mainstream of populist discourse in the West, as highlighted in C. Raja Mohan’s editorial.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Contrary to the statement, the Trump administration did not expand but rather dismantled institutions such as USAID, NPR, and Voice of America, accusing them of spreading liberal values and serving globalist interests. This aligns with the populist rejection of globalist institutions.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.   Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)

(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers

Ans: D

The Hidden Human Cost of Artificial Intelligence

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Science and Technology

Context: Artificial Intelligence

Why in News?

AI’s rapid growth relies heavily on low-paid, invisible human labour in developing countries, raising serious ethical and regulatory concerns.

Introduction

  • Procurement Artificial Intelligence (AI) is often celebrated as the harbinger of an efficient, automated economy—offering quick, error-free solutions and transforming sectors from healthcare to transportation.
  • However, behind this veneer of automation lies a largely invisible workforce of low-paid workers, predominantly located in developing countries, whose contributions form the backbone of AI systems.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Human Labour Behind AI Systems

  • Contrary to popular perception, AI systems are not fully autonomous. The learning capability of machines depends heavily on large datasets labeled and curated by human workers.
  • Data annotators play a critical role in this ecosystem by labeling raw images, audio, video, and text, providing essential information that trains Machine Learning (ML) models.
  • For instance, a large language model (LLM) like ChatGPT depends on human input to refine its ability to generate accurate responses.
  • LLMs are trained through three major steps:
    • Self-supervised learning – The model learns from massive datasets collected from the internet.
    • Supervised learning – Human annotators label data to guide the model towards correct outputs.
    • Reinforcement learning – Humans provide feedback to fine-tune the model’s responses.
  • Moreover, applications that appear fully automated—such as content moderation on social media—are in fact supported by human moderators who sift through graphic and sensitive content.
  • These workers face severe mental health risks, including PTSD, anxiety, and depression due to continuous exposure to harmful content.

Exploitative Work Conditions

  • Most data annotation and moderation work is outsourced by tech giants in Silicon Valley to workers in Kenya, India, Pakistan, China, and the Philippines. These workers are paid as little as $2 per hour for long shifts under strict deadlines.
  • Many perform “microtasks” on intermediary digital platforms, often without knowing the ultimate purpose of their work or the company they work for. This outsourcing model reduces costs for tech companies but creates a fragmented, opaque labour system where workers are surveilled, fired without notice, and denied fundamental labour rights.
  • A striking example came in 2024, when AI tech workers from Kenya sent a letter to former U.S. President Joe Biden.
  • They alleged that the working conditions amounted to “modern-day slavery” due to the handling of deeply disturbing content—ranging from pornography to beheadings—under intense pressure.
  • Additionally, many tasks require subject expertise, such as labeling medical scans. Yet, non-expert workers are often deployed for such tasks, compromising the accuracy of AI outputs and putting patients at risk when used in critical fields like healthcare.

The Need for Regulatory Reforms

  • The invisible “ghost workers” powering AI highlight a fundamental ethical concern in the digital economy. The lack of recognition and informalisation of their labour enable tech companies to perpetuate exploitative practices.
  • Current regulatory frameworks focus primarily on digital content, leaving the underlying labour supply chains largely unregulated.
  • To ensure ethical AI development and usage, stricter laws and regulations must be enacted focusing on:
    • Transparency in the supply chain: Workers should be aware of their employer and the purpose of their work.
    • Fair wages and working conditions: Labour rights, social security, and mental health support should be ensured.
    • Accountability of tech companies: Firms must be held responsible for the conditions in their subcontracted workforce.

Conclusion

  • Ethical AI development requires recognition of the “ghost workers” who power these technologies. Ensuring dignity, transparency, and fair treatment of these workers is not just a moral imperative but a necessary step towards a just digital economy.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the human cost of Artificial Intelligence (AI):

  1. Data annotators play a crucial role in training AI models by labeling images, text, and audio for supervised and reinforcement learning.
  2. Content moderation and automated features like social media feeds are entirely managed by AI without any human involvement.
  3. Most AI tech workers are employed directly by large tech companies and receive industry-standard wages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 only

Answer 5-A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Data annotators indeed label images, audio, video, and text to train AI models through supervised learning and reinforcement learning processes.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Content moderation and so-called automated features often rely heavily on human moderators, who label sensitive or harmful content, exposing them to mental health risks.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Most AI tech workers are not employed directly by large tech companies but work as subcontracted workers on intermediary digital platforms and are paid very low wages.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.    With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020)

  1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
  2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
  3. Disease diagnosis
  4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
  5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (b)

Making Health Care Safe for Every Indian

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Public Health

Context: India-US Corn Trade Dispute

Why in News?

  • The urgent need to improve patient safety in India by bridging gaps between overburdened healthcare providers and passive patients, promoting shared responsibility, and integrating systemic reforms.

Introduction

  • Patient safety is a fundamental aspect of quality healthcare delivery. Globally, the World Health Organization (WHO) observes World Patient Safety Day every year on September 17, highlighting the urgent need to address patient harm during medical treatment.
  • In India, the challenge of providing safe care remains acute due to multiple systemic and socio-cultural factors, requiring an integrated, multi-stakeholder approach to overcome.

Magnitude of the Problem

  • Globally, approximately one in 10 patients experience harm during hospitalisation, and in outpatient care, this increases to four in 10 patients.
  • In India, the health burden is shifting from communicable to chronic non-communicable diseases (NCDs) such as cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular ailments, and mental health disorders, which require frequent, long-term interactions with the healthcare system.
  • This leads to a greater number of interaction points where safety lapses can occur, increasing patient vulnerability.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Common Forms of Patient Harm

Patient harm manifests in several ways, including:

  • Hospital-acquired infections (HAIs)
  • Unsafe injection and transfusion practices
  • Inappropriate combinations of prescribed medicines
  • Delayed or missed diagnoses
  • Preventable falls during hospital stays
  • Particularly in acute care settings, lack of coordination across multiple specialities increases the risk of errors.

Causes of Unsafe Care in India

  • There is a two-way gap responsible for unsafe care in India:
    • Overburdened Health Care Providers
    • Heavy patient loads
    • Long shifts and staff attrition
    • Insufficient staffing
    • Fatigue and time constraints reduce the ability to fully engage with patients.
  • Passive and Uninformed Patients
    • Hesitance to ask questions
    • Lack of awareness about patient rights and safety measures
    • This gap persists despite efforts to strengthen infection control, implement quality audits, and run staff trainings in hospitals.

Towards Shared Responsibility

  • Patient safety is a shared responsibility involving:
  • Patients and Families:
  • Actively ask questions
  • Maintain personal health records
  • Report adverse drug reactions
  • Avoid self-medication and follow safe practices at home

Government and Institutions:

  • The National Patient Safety Implementation Framework (2018–2025) provides a roadmap for improving patient safety, including adverse event reporting and embedding safety in clinical practice.
  • The Society of Pharmacovigilance, India monitors drug safety.
  • The National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers (NABH) audits hospitals on infection control, patient rights, and medication safety.
  • However, less than 5% of Indian hospitals are fully accredited, highlighting a significant implementation gap.
  • Civil Society: Non-profits like the Patient Safety & Access Initiative of India Foundation and Patients for Patient Safety Foundation promote awareness and equip hospitals and professionals.
  • Media and Corporates:
    • The media plays a role in shaping public awareness of both safety failures and successful models.
    • Corporates can contribute via CSR by funding safety campaigns and awareness programs.
  • Technology Innovators: Develop solutions that detect harmful drug interactions or improve care communication workflows.

Building a Culture of Safety

  • The WHO Global Patient Safety Action Plan provides a blueprint for integrating safety at all levels of healthcare.
  • A key example is the Patient Advisory Councils (PACs), which include patient representatives in hospital decision-making processes.
  • High-income countries have demonstrated PACs improve communication, trust, and patient outcomes. India can pilot and scale PACs, adapting them to local contexts.

Way Forward

  • Governments must:
    • Renew focus on patient safety as part of health policies
    • Allocate adequate resources
    • Integrate patient safety into medical and nursing education curricula
    • Ensure effective implementation of the National Patient Safety Framework
  • Hospitals must:
    • Strive to meet NABH accreditation standards
    • Adopt PACs
    • Collaborate in technology-driven solutions to preempt errors
  • This year’s theme—safe care for every newborn and every child—emphasizes the need to safeguard care from the very first breath of life.

CARE MCQ

Q6. Which of the following statements regarding patient safety in India is/are correct?

  1. The National Patient Safety Implementation Framework (2018–2025) provides a roadmap for embedding safety into clinical programs, including adverse event reporting.
  2. Less than 5% of hospitals in India are fully accredited by the National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers (NABH).
  3. Patient Advisory Councils (PACs) involve patient representatives in hospital decision-making and have been widely implemented in India.

Select the correct answer:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 6- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The National Patient Safety Implementation Framework (2018–2025) provides a comprehensive roadmap for improving patient safety in India. It includes mechanisms for adverse event reporting, embedding safety practices into clinical programs, and strengthening overall safety protocols in the healthcare system.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It is true that less than 5% of hospitals in India have received full accreditation from the National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers (NABH), indicating significant challenges in implementing standardized patient safety and quality benchmarks across the healthcare sector.
  • Statement 3 is incorrectPatient Advisory Councils (PACs), though recommended by the WHO Global Patient Safety Action Plan and successful in some high-income countries, have not been widely implemented in India yet. India is in the stage of piloting and adapting this model, and it has not yet become a standard feature of hospital governance.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017)

  1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
  3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
  4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (a)

APPSC CARE 18th September 2025 Current Affairs
APPSC CARE 16th September 2025 Current Affairs
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