APRIL 30 CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 TSPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (30-04-2024)

 

News at a Glance
Telangana: Hawk Eye app of Telangana police
 Telangana government to take a fresh look at reorganised districts appointing a judicial commission
Polity and Governance: Geneva-based UN-related body to review India’s human rights Accreditation status
Symbol Loading Unit (SLU)
Geography: Impact of global warming on Local weather
Science and Technology: Significance of carrier aviation
International Relations: Rise in India’s Chinese import bill
India-UK Pact on Electric Propulsion System

 

Hawk Eye app of Telangana police

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/ageing-hawk-eye-app-of-telangana-police-loses-its-teeth/article68101006.ece

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance:  Law and Order administration, Use of technology in policing

Context: Need to update the Hawk Eye app

Why in news

  • The failure of the authorities to update the Hawk Eye app has left citizens in the lurch.

About Hawk Eye App

  • Hawk Eye app was launched in 2014 by Telangana Police.
  • With over five lakh downloads on Play Store alone, Hawk Eye was well accepted by users.
  • It enabled them to instantly lodge a complaint by entering the IMEI number, phone number and description of how they lost the device, following which the city police were on the job.

Issues with Hawk Eye App

  • The app is also not compatible with Android 13, the previous version that was released in August 2022.
  • The app was last upgraded in April 2021 and since then was not upgraded due to default in paying the developers.
  • Amid the ongoing upgrade of the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) for the integration of the latest criminal laws (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) expected to be effective from July 1, there has been a slight delay in upgrading Hawk Eye.
  • The task of upgrading Hawk Eye has been given to the same developers who are updating the CCTNS, which is being carried out under a tight schedule.

Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS)

  • The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project was launched in 2009 as a plan scheme.
  • It is an ambitious project, which aims at putting in place a comprehensive and integrated system for enhancing efficiency and effectiveness of policing at the police station level throughout the country.
  • It is a master police portal which caters both to the citizens as well as to the police personnel.

 

Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR)

  • The Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR ) portal was launched on a pilot basis in Telangana in April 2022.
  • It is being used extensively.
  • The State police recovered 26,833 mobile devices, 4,348 of which were from Hyderabad, over the past one year.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1.  Consider the following statements with regards to Hawk Eye app:

1.       Hawk Eye app was launched in 2024.

2.       It enabled users to instantly lodge a complaint by entering the IMEI number, phone number.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Answer 1 B

Explanation

·         Hawk Eye app was launched in 2014 by Telangana Police. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

·         With over five lakh downloads on Play Store alone, Hawk Eye was well accepted by users.

·         It enabled them to instantly lodge a complaint by entering the IMEI number, phone number and description of how they lost the device, following which the city police were on the job. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • So, correct answer is option B.

 

 

Telangana government to appoint a judicial commission to take a fresh look at reorganised districts

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/telangana-government-to-take-a-fresh-look-at-reorganised-districts-appointing-a-judicial-commission/article68118630.ece

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance:  New district creation

Context: The Bharat Rashtra Samithi government had formed some of the districts only to suit political needs and some to satisfy some people, opines Chief Minister

Why in news

  • The Telangana State government is likely to take a fresh look soon at the reorganisation of districts taken up by the previous government.

Key Highlights

  • Chief Minister of Telangana indicated that the government was planning to appoint a judicial commission to suggest to reorganise the existing 33 districts and if needed to reduce the number.
  • The government may go with 17 districts-based co-terminus with the 17 Parliamentary seats in Telangana.
  • The reorganisation should not be done in haste or without proper planning like the previous government did and only a judicial commission would be the right way to give a new shape to the present districts.
  • Some of the districts were created to suit political needs and some to satisfy some people rather than the genuine needs of the State.
  • Telangana was formed with 10 districts but the BRS government increased them to 33 with some of them so small that their population was lesser than a town.
  • Districts such as Jayashnakar-Bhupalpally and Mulugu have populations lesser than six lakhs.

Criteria for Formation of Districts

  • Merging the districts to improve administration is the idea behind the new government’s decision to reduce the districts.
  • Though there is no clear indication from the government, sources said the Chief Minister favoured 17 districts, but may consider 20 districts.
  • A final decision however would be left to the commission which will look into the population, resources, boundaries and distances from the State capital.

Formation of New Districts in India

  • The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the State governments.
  • This can either be done through an executive order or by passing a law in the State Assembly.
  • Many States prefer the executive route by simply issuing a notification in the official gazette.

Significance of forming New Districts 

  • States argue that smaller districts lead to better administration and governance.
  • For example, in 2016, the Assam government issued a notification to upgrade the Majuli sub-division to Majuli district for “administrative expediency”.

Are there are any exceptions?

  • The State government has been vested with unfettered powers under Section 5 of the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887 to create new districts.
  • This power is generally held temporarily in abeyance only during active census operations or during the delimitation exercise of Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha constituencies.

Role of the Central government 

  • The Centre has no role to play in the alteration of districts or creation of new ones. States are free to decide.
  • The Home Ministry comes into the picture when a State wants to change the name of a district or a railway station.
  • The State government’s request is sent to other departments and agencies such as the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Geographical Survey of India Sciences and the Railway Ministry seeking clearance.
  • A no-objection certificate may be issued after examining their replies.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2.  Consider the following statements:

1.       The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the Local governments.

2.       The Central government has no role to play in the alteration of districts or creation of new ones.

Which among the following statement/s is/are incorrect?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both

D.      None

 

Answer 2 A

Explanation

  • India is a federal polity. The power is shared between centre and states. The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the State governmentsHence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Centre has no role to play in the alteration of districts or creation of new ones. States are free to decide. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

 

Geneva-based UN-related body to review India’s human rights Accreditation status

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/geneva-based-un-related-body-to-review-indias-human-rights-accreditation-status-this-week/article68117894.ece#:~:text=The%20NHRC’s%20ratings%20were%20put,ability%20to%20vote%20at%20the

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance, International Relations)

Context: Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) is incorporated as a legal entity under Swiss law and has a Bureau consisting of 16 “A status” NHRIs representing the four regions of GANHRI.

Why in News

  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is preparing to defend the government’s human rights processes at a meeting in Geneva, where a decision on whether India’s human rights body will retain its “A status” is expected to be made.

Key Highlights

  • The meeting of the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) of the UN-recognised Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) worldwide will be held on May 1.
  • The NHRC’s ratings were put on hold in 2023 over concerns on its
    • composition procedure,
    • the presence of police personnel in human rights investigations, and
    • the lack of gender and minority representation.
  • The decision over whether the NHRC is given an A rating or a B rating would affect its ability to vote at the UN Human Rights Council and some UNGA bodies.
  • This is the second time the Modi government is facing a possible listing downgrade.
  • Since being accredited in 1999, India had retained its A ranking in 2006 and 2011, while its status was deferred in 2016 and restored after a year.

Concerns Raised with respect to NHRC

  • According to a six-point submission by the SCA in March 2023, the NHRC has failed to create conditions required to be able to operate independent of government interference.
  • In the submission, the committee had slammed India for the involvement of police officers in its investigative process, calling it a “conflict of interest”.
  • The SCA cited the lack of “pluralism” and “gender representation,” given the NHRC had only one woman in its top body, an institutional “ex-officio” representative of the National Commission for Women.
  • In December 2023, the NHRC appointed another woman, Vijaya Bharathi Sayani.
  • The SCA had also pointed out that the composition of the committee should reflect the diversity of the society.
  • In addition, local civil society activists have pointed out that most members are politically affiliated to the ruling party.

Response of Indian Government

  • Although the government is confident of having its A status restored, it was not focused on “external certifications” of India’s human rights record.
  • They also cited the “undue influence” of international civil society organizations that have been critical of India since 2014.
  • The MEA had also reacted sharply to the U.S. State department’s latest global report that spoke of “significant” human rights concerns in India, calling the report “biased” and reflecting a “poor understanding of India”.

National Human Rights Commission of India

  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October, 1993.
  • It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993.
  • It is in conformity with the Paris Principles.
    • Paris Principles were adopted at the first international workshop on national institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights held in Paris in October 1991.
    • They were endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations by its Regulations 48/134 of 20 December, 1993.
  • The NHRC is an embodiment of India’s concern for the promotion and protection of human rights.

Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI)

  • National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) established the International Coordinating Committee of NHRIs (ICC) in 1993.
  • It aims to coordinate the activities of the NHRI network.
  • In 2016, the ICC changed its name to Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI).
  • GANHRI is incorporated as a legal entity under Swiss law.
  • It has a Bureau consisting of 16 “A status” NHRIs representing the four regions of GANHRI.
  • The Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) of the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) has the mandate to review and analyze accreditation applications and to make recommendations to the GANHRI Bureau on the compliance of applicants with the Paris Principles.

Paris Principles

  • The Paris Principles is a set of international standards which frame and guide the work of National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs).
  • They were drafted at an international NHRIs workshop in Paris in 1991.
  • These principles were adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1993.
  • The internationally agreed Paris Principles define the role, composition, status and functions of national human rights institutions.
  • The key pillars of the Paris Principles are pluralism, independence and effectiveness.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q 3.  Which of the following are Constitutional bodies under the Indian constitution?

  1. Election Commission
  2. Finance Commission
  3. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  4. National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) All of the above

 

 Q. Consider the following: (2011)

1.       Right to education

2.       Right to equal access to public service

3.       Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

A.      1 only

B.      1 and 2 only

C.      3 only

D.      1, 2 and 3

 

Ans: (D)

 

 

Answer 3- A

Explanation

·         Constitutional bodies derive their powers and authorities from the Constitution of India. They are mentioned in the Constitution meaning they have dedicated Articles. Since they get their power from the Indian Constitution, any change in the mechanism of the constitutional bodies would require a constitutional amendment.

·         Important bodies such as the Finance Commission, UPSC, Election Commission, CAG, National Commissions for SCs and STs, etc. are constitutional bodies.

·         The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.

·          It was a non-constitutional body as it does not find any mention in the Constitution. It was created by an Act of the Parliament.

·         Since these bodies derive their power from statutes or laws made by the Parliament, they are known as statutory bodies.

·         Other statutory bodies are National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Women, National Green Tribunal etc.

  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

Impact of global warming on Local weather

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/anticyclones-hanging-even-now-over-india-link-warming-to-heat/article68117359.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS1- Geography, GS3- Disaster Management

Context: The complexities of the ways in which global warming manifests in local weather continue to underscore the need to model globally but predict locally.

Why in News

  • The record warming of 2023 has so far not been fully explained since it was much warmer than expected just from the superposition of El Niño on global warming.

What is a heat wave?

  • While cooler temperatures spread from Pakistan across India to West Bengal during March.
  • This band remained cool throughout 2023 even as record temperatures made relentless headlines.
  • A heat wave is a period of abnormally hot weather generally lasting more than two days.
  • Heat waves can occur with or without high humidity.

Global warming and Changed Climate Patterns

  • Global warming creates unique features locally that modulate heat waves on top of cool background temperatures.
  • Heat waves:
    • Heat waves over India have been of special concern this season because of the general elections.
    • Some persistent circulation patterns have been creating heat waves and this pattern should serve as another focal point for improving predictions.
    • It was apparent in March that the anticyclonic circulations over the North Indian Ocean were the drivers of unusual rainfall over Odisha.
  • Anticyclones:
    • An anticyclone has winds moving in a clockwise direction, with air sinking down in the middle of it.
    • As this air hits the ground, it is compressed and warmed and can create a high-pressure heat dome.
    • An anticyclonic circulation could also explain the historic Dubai floods.
    • And these anticyclones exist over the North Indian Ocean and the Indian subcontinent even now.

What links anticyclones to heat?

  • The persistence of the anticyclones is not unusual in and of itself.
  • During the pre-monsoon season, the upper-level Indian Easterly Jet (IEJ) begins to take shape in the upper atmosphere.
  • A strong westerly jet exists to the north around 30 degrees N, and the two together can generate an anticyclonic pattern over the Indian Ocean and the Indian subcontinent.
  • An easterly jet refers to strong winds coming from the east while westerly jets come from the west. These are natural seasonal features.
  • The westerly jet is pushed north during the monsoon season and the IEJ dominates the Indian subcontinent.
  • During the pre-monsoon season, a strong anticyclone can bring dry and hot weather over many parts of India while a weak anticyclone produces milder weather.

How are heat waves amplified?

  • The pre-monsoon season is India’s summer and heat waves are to be expected.
  • The focus is always on predicting them accurately and providing early warnings to save lives.
  • The background drivers of the duration, intensity, and frequency of heat waves are helpful to identify the hotspots of heat waves at the timescales relevant to the evolution of the weather and the climate.

Impact of El Nino on Indian Climate

  • El Nino and La Nina are the two alternating phases of sea-surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean, off the South American coast, in which the waters get unusually warm or cold.
  • These large-scale alternating phases impact weather events across the globe.
  • An El Nino phase is known to suppress rainfall over India during monsoon, while La Nina has the opposite effect.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements:

3.       El Nino and La Nina are the two alternating phases of sea-surface temperatures in the Western Pacific Ocean.

4.       El Nino has the opposite effect while La Nina phase is known to suppress rainfall over India during monsoon.

Which among the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both

D.      None

 

Q. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2020)

  1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.
  2. OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.


Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2 only

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

 

Answer 4– C

Explanation –

·         El Nino and La Nina are the two alternating phases of sea-surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean, off the South American coast, in which the waters get unusually warm or cold. These large-scale alternating phases impact weather events across the globe.  Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

·         An El Nino phase is known to suppress rainfall over India during monsoon, while La Nina has the opposite effect.  Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

Significance of carrier aviation

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-significance-of-carrier-aviation-explained/article68118801.ece#:~:text=An%20aircraft%20carrier%20is%20fundamental,India’s%20stature%20as%20the%20largest

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Science and technology- indigenisation of technology

Context: Indian Navy’s aircraft carrier INS Vikrant, is known for its design, capabilities, and its indigenous construction.

Why in News

  • On March 5, both aircraft carriers of the Indian Navy, INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant, showcased “twin carrier operations” with MiG-29K fighter jets taking off simultaneously from both and landing cross deck.

Key Highlights

  • INS Vikrant demonstrated an ability that only a handful of nations can boast of.
  • Further one of the carriers, INS Vikrant is indigenously designed and constructed.
  • Commissioned in September 2022, INS Vikrant has been fully operationalised and integrated into the operational cycle in record time.
  • As the two carriers sailed, they were joined by a flotilla of frontline warships of the Indian Navy, a combined tonnage of around 1,40,000 as well as aircraft.

About INS Vikrant

  • INS Vikrant (IAC1) is the first Vikrant-class carrier and the first aircraft carrier built in India by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
  • INS Vikrant is an aircraft carrier in service with the Indian Navy.
  • The carrier is India’s fourth carrier and the first to be built in India. It was constructed by the Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) in Kochi, Kerala.
  • The namesake Vikrant is a tribute to India’s first aircraft carrier INS Vikrant (1961).
  • The motto of the ship, “जयेम सम् युधिस्पृधः” (Sanskrit), means “I defeat those who dare to challenge me” (English).

Significant Features of INS Vikrant

  • The design work on the Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC)-I, later christened Vikrant, began in 1999.
  • However 2005-2006 were probably the most crucial years for the carrier and for India’s war shipbuilding.
  • The keel of Vikrant was finally laid in 2009, launched into water in 2013.
  • It went through extensive user acceptance trials between August 2021 and July 2022 before its eventual commissioning.
  • The warship grade steel was decided to be developed and produced in India.
  • A collaborative effort between the Steel Authority of India, the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy.
  • The decision on the development of DMR-249 steel was a commercial decision. DMR-249 steel is now being used for the construction of all warships in the country.
  • The construction also ushered in several new processes and spin-offs benefiting the shipbuilding industry at large.

Composition of INS Vikrant

  • INS Vikrant has a total area in excess of 12,450 m2 which equals to about two and a half hockey fields.
  • The 262m long and 62m wide ship is powered by four General Electric LM2500 engines.
  • The ship has around 2,200 compartments, for a crew of around 1,600 that include specialised cabins to accommodate women officers and sailors.
  • Vikrant houses two galleys which cater to all onboard, preparing upto 4,500-5,000 meals every day.
  • Noting that among manufacturing activities, shipbuilding has one of the highest employment multipliers of 6.48.
  • The economic Survey 2022-23 said that Vikrant alone engaged approximately 500 MSMEs, 12,000 employees from ancillary industries, and 2,000 CSL employees.

Capabilities of INS Vikrant

  • Vikrant can operate an air wing of 30 aircraft comprising MiG-29K fighter jets, Kamov-31, MH-60R multi-role helicopters, in addition to indigenous Advanced Light Helicopters and Light Combat Aircraft (Navy).
  • It uses the STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Recovery) method to launch and recover aircraft for which it is equipped with a ski- jump to launch aircraft, and three ‘arrester wires’ for their recovery.
  • After all the aircraft are started up, the entire deck vibrates and generates noise in excess of 200 decibels.
  • The flight deck has an independent lighting system to assist for bad weather and night operations.
  • Once the aircraft finishes the mission, they are safely vectored back to the ship and guided for a precision landing, the official stated.
  • The fighters which have a hook under the belly pick up one of the three arresting gear wires on the flight deck.
  • Vikrant has larger deck space and visibly larger hallways compared to previous carriers including Vikramaditya, which is of similar size.
  • India is currently negotiating with France for the purchase of 26 Rafale-M carrier jets as the MiG-29Ks are in short supply while an indigenous twin engine deck-based fighter is currently under development.

Significance of Aircraft Carrier

  • An aircraft carrier is fundamental to command, control and coordination of operations from the sea and to project combat power ashore, over the seas or in the air.
  • The fragile maritime security situation across the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and India’s stature as the largest resident naval power necessitate a strong and robust Navy.
  • Aircraft carriers play a pivotal role in this and concurrent availability of two Carrier Battle Groups facilitate credible presence and preparedness on both Western and Eastern seaboards.
  • The Navy has already moved a case for a second Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-II), a repeat of a Vikrant-like carrier.
  • The Navy has shelved its earlier plans for a 65,000-tonne carrier given the whole new technology cycle involved and the resultant cost and timelines.
  • Design, construction and operationalisation of a carrier takes a long time and the IAC-II will be a timely replacement for INS Vikramaditya.
  • The Indian Navy will have only two aircraft carriers in operation while it has long envisioned a force structure around three carriers, two at sea while one is in maintenance.
  • Any delay in decision making could risk India losing its expertise of building and operating carriers, reminiscent of the submarine debacle of the 1980s.

Comparison with respect to Other Countries

  • The erstwhile 19,500 tonne Vikrant was India’s first carrier purchased from the U.K., which arrived in 1961 and played a vital role in the 1971 war.
  • Then came the 28,700 tonne INS Viraat commissioned in 1987, formerly HMS Hermes, also from the U.K.
  • INS Vikramaditya procured from Russia and commissioned in 2013 is India’s third carrier.
  • The U.S. is fielding new super carriers, and the U.K. has inducted new carriers while France and Russia have announced plans to build new ones.
  • Japan has begun converting its helicopter carriers to operate F-35 fighter jets.
  • China announced that it is building its fourth aircraft carrier, likely a nuclear-powered super carrier.
    • First carrier, Liaoning, in 2012,
    • Second carrier Shadong in 2017,
    • Third carrier Fujian in 2022

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Which of the following are the capabilities of INS Vikrant:

1.       India’s first aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant had played a vital role in the 1971 war.

2.       INS Vikrant carries a mix of about 30 aircraft.

3.       The carrier is equipped with STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Landing).

Which among the following statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. All

Q. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (UPSC Prelims 2018)

A.      An Israeli radar system

B.      India’s indigenous anti-missile programme

C.      An American anti-missile system

D.      A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea.

Ans: (C)

 

 

Answer 5 D

Explanation

·         INS Vikrant is named after her illustrious predecessor, India’s first aircraft carrier, which had played a vital role in the 1971 war. The 262-meter-long carrier has a full displacement of close to 45,000 tonnes which is much larger and more advanced than her predecessor.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.

·          Vikrant carries a mix of about 30 aircraft. It could fly the MiG 29k fighter aircraft in anti-air, anti-surface and land attack roles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·         Using a novel aircraft-operation mode known as STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Landing), the carrier is equipped with a ski- jump for launching aircraft, and a set of ‘arrester wires’ for their recovery onboard. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

 

Rise in India’s Chinese import bill

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/elections/when-is-a-candidate-elected-unopposed-explained/article68114099.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- International Relations, GS 3- International trade

Context: China is the top supplier in eight major industrial sectors, including machinery, chemicals, pharmaceuticals and textiles

Why in News

  • India’s imports from China crossed $101 billion in 2023-24 from about $70 billion in 2018-19, and the country’s share of India’s industrial goods imports has risen from 21% to 30% over 15 years, according to a report by the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI).

Rise in Chinese Imports

  • Goods imports from China have risen 2.3 times faster than India’s total imports over 15 years.
  • China is the top supplier in eight major industrial sectors, including machinery, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and textiles.
  • Growing trade deficit with China is a cause of concern analysing India’s growing industrial sector imports from China.
  • Between 2018-2019 and 2023-24, India’s exports to China have stagnated around $16 billion annually while imports have surged.
  • The industrial goods analysed through product-level import data in the study represent 98.5% of India’s imports from China.
    • Industrial goods excluded agriculture, ores, minerals, petroleum, gems and jewellery products.

India’s Exports to China

  • India’s exports to China have increased in the past year in as many as 90 principal commodities out of the total 161 items shipped to the country.
  • These 90 commodities accounted for 67.7% of India’s export basket to China and include iron ore, telecom instruments and electronic components.

Key Highlights

  • India’s total merchandise imports stood at $677.2 billion in 2023-24, of which 15% or $101.8 billion worth goods were sourced from China.
  • Of these, $100 billion of imports were in major industrial product categories, amounting to 30% of such imports, and that share stood over 70% for some products.
  • The “significant reliance on imports from China across various sectors”, citing trends from the first 10 months of 2023-24.
  • Almost 42% of India’s textile and clothing imports and 40% of its machinery imports in the period came from China, while that number was 38.4% for electronics, telecom and electrical products.
  • China also accounted for 29.2% of chemicals and pharmaceuticals imports into India, 25.8% of plastic product imports and 23.3% of automobile sector inbound shipments.
  • A lower dependence on China was seen in the case of iron, steel and base metal imports, with just 17.6% share of inflows coming from the neighbouring nation.
  • Half of the imports from China consist of capital goods and machinery, indicating a critical need for focused research and development in this area.
  • Intermediate goods like organic chemicals, Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, and plastics, which represent 37% of imports, show a pressing need for upgrading these industries.

Strategic implications

  • The strategic implications of this dependency is ‘profound’ and affects not only economic but national security dimensions.
  • This is imperative not only to mitigate economic risks but also to bolster domestic industries and reduce dependency on single-country imports, especially from a geopolitical competitor like China.
  • With the entry of Chinese firms in the Indian market, India’s industrial product imports are set to rise at an accelerated pace.
  • As the Chinese firms operating in India will prefer sourcing most requirements from their parent firms, Indian imports will rise sharply.
  • All those candidates, who are returned as uncontested and [who] have criminal antecedents, must publicise the details in the prescribed format as per timeline.”

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements:

1.       In recent years, Chinese import in India is significantly reduced.

2.       China is the top supplier in only electronics sector in India.

3.       India’s exports to China have increased in the past years.

Which among the following option is correct?

A.      1 Only

B.      2 Only

C.      3 Only

D.      All of the above

 

Q. With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2020)

1.       India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.

2.       India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.

3.       India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.

4.       India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 4 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans – D

 

Answer 6 A

Explanation

·         India’s imports from China crossed $101 billion in 2023-24 from about $70 billion in 2018-19, and the country’s share of India’s industrial goods imports has risen from 21% to 30% over 15 years Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

·         China is the top supplier in eight major industrial sectors, including machinery, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and textiles. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

·         India’s exports to China have increased in the past year in as many as 90 principal commodities out of the total 161 items shipped to the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

India-UK Pact on Electric Propulsion System

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-uk-closer-to-pact-on-electric-propulsion-system-for-warships-9296010/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 (International Relations– Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.)

Context: Indian warships are currently powered by diesel engines, gas turbines or steam turbines.

Why in news

  • India and the United Kingdom have discussed the future of electric propulsion in naval vessels during the second India-UK Electric Propulsion Capability Partnership Joint Working Group meeting.

Development of Pact

  • The Indian and the UK government are discussing the possibility of an agreement to develop an electric propulsion system in India to power domestic warships.
  • The UK sent a letter of intent to the government last month on developing the capability in India through a government-to-government agreement.
  • Both countries have set up a joint electronic propulsion working group that met in the UK in February.
  • A delegation met again on the HMS Lancaster in March last year when the Royal Navy frigate made a port call at Kochi.
  • A joint working group on the India-UK electric propulsion capability partnership had met for the second time in November last year to further discuss this.

Key Highlights of Pact

  • Indian warships are currently powered by diesel engines, gas turbines or steam turbines.
  • The electric propulsion capability is meant to power larger warships with a displacement of over 6,000 tonnes.
  • The UK Royal Navy’s The Queen Elizabeth Class aircraft carriers are integrated full electric propulsion vessels.
  • In India, it is learnt that the system will first be tested on landing platform docks and next-generation destroyers.
  • The UK’s First Sea Lord and Chief of Naval Staff Admiral Ben Key said he has been in talks with Indian Navy Chief Admiral R Hari Kumar about opportunities for Indian sailors and engineers to come to the UK.

Significance of the India-UK Deal

  • The agreement will help to develop the key capability through a collaboration between the UK’s GE Power Conversion and state-owned Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL).
  • Both companies have signed a memorandum of understanding on developing the ‘Integrated Full Electric Propulsion System’.

Electric Propulsion System Overview

  • In electric propulsion systems, the power used to drive the propellers becomes an electrical load meaning that the generators can take care of all shipboard loads.
  • Electric propulsion was first demonstrated in the 1960s and is now a mature and widely used technology on spacecraft.
  • Electric Propulsion (EP) is a class of space propulsion which makes use of electrical power to accelerate a propellant by different possible electrical and/or magnetic means.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q 7. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Indian warships are currently powered by electric propulsion engines.

B) In electric propulsion systems, the power used to drive the propellers becomes an electrical load meaning that the generators can take care of all shipboard loads.

C) Indian and the UK government are discussing the possibility of an agreement to develop an electric propulsion system in India to power domestic warships.

D) Electric propulsion was first demonstrated in the 1960s

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media ?(UPSC Prelims 2022)


(A) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(B) A spacecraft lands on another planet, after making several orbital motions.
(C) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(D) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Ans: (C)

 

 

Answer 7 A

Explanation

·         Indian warships are currently powered by diesel engines, gas turbines or steam turbines. So, statement A is incorrect.

·         In electric propulsion systems, the power used to drive the propellers becomes an electrical load meaning that the generators can take care of all shipboard loads. So, statement B is correct.

·         The electric propulsion capability is meant to power larger warships with a displacement of over 6,000 tonnes. The Indian and the UK government are discussing the possibility of an agreement to develop an electric propulsion system in India to power domestic warships. So, statement C is correct.

·         Electric propulsion was first demonstrated in the 1960s and is now a mature and widely used technology on spacecraft.

·         Electric Propulsion (EP) is a class of space propulsion which makes use of electrical power to accelerate a propellant by different possible electrical and/or magnetic means. So, statement D is correct.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct option.

 

Symbol Loading Unit (SLU)

Source: Business Standard

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/slu-matchbox-that-feeds-evm-candidate-info-9292931/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 (International Relations– Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.)

Context: Symbol Loading Units ensure EVMs can be used for voting.

Why in news

  • The Supreme Court on April 26 directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to “seal and secure” the Symbol Loading Unit (SLU) for 45 days after the declaration of election results.

Key Highlights

  • In a significant verdict, the Supreme Court of India on 26 April rejected pleas to revert to paper ballot-based elections and 100% matching of VVPAT slips with EVM results.
  • The apex court ruled that the current system of voting in Indian elections with EVMs will continue, satisfied with the safety features of the system as explained by the Election Commission of India.
  • The Supreme Court had added one more feature to the system, as it ordered that the Symbol Loading Units.
  • The Supreme Court stated that the feature of Symbol Loading Units should be sealed after symbol loading of VVPATs to be done after 1 May 2024.
  • They should be kept in a strong room with EVMs for at least 45 days following the post results.
  • The court ordered that candidates or their agents will sign on the seals of the SLUs, like the current practice with EVMs and VVPATs.

What is this Symbol Loading Unit(SLU)?

  • The Symbol Loading Unit is a small device which loads the information of the candidates into the VVPAT machine.
  • Therefore, while the voters see three units at the polling booth, the EVM control unit, ballot unit and the VVPAT printer, there is a fourth device involved in the process, the Symbol Loading Unit.
  • However, this device is not attached to the VVPAT during voting, it is only used to load the candidate names and symbols to the VVPAT machines ahead of the polls.

Need of SLU

  • The VVPAT machine is an additional feature added to the EVM which prints the name, symbol and serial number of the candidate after a vote is cast on the ballot unit.
  • The EVM control unit and ballot unit actually do not contain any information regarding candidates, the system records the votes only against the serial number.
  • However, with the introduction of the VVPAT, there is a requirement to load the candidate information in the system.

How does the Symbol Loading Unit(SLU) work?

  • The VVPAT machines store the candidate names and image files of their symbols, along with the serial number, and this needs to be loaded into the machine before an election.
  • The Symbol Loading Unit works as an interface to complete this task.
  • The SLU is first connected to a computer to receive the required names and symbol image files. After the files are downloaded into the SLU from the computer, it is disconnected from the computer and connected to the VVPAT using a dedicated cable and port.
  • After that, by selecting the relevant options from the menu, the names and symbols are loaded onto the VVPAT machines.
  • After the loading, the SLU is disconnected to the VVPAT, and is used to repeat the process with other VVPATs, using the data already stored in it.
  • After the loading, tests are done to ensure that the machine is printing the slips correctly.
  • While every polling booth requires a VVPAT machine, a single SLU is used to load symbols into several VVPATs.
  • As all booths in a constituency have the same candidates with the same serial numbers, the same SLU can be used for all the VVPATs in a constituency.

Significance of Symbol Loading Unit(SLU)

  • The SLU is used to load the symbols of the candidates onto the VVPAT.
  • It is a matchbox-sized device that is first connected to a laptop or personal computer, from which a symbol loading application is used to load a bitmap file containing the candidates’ names, serial numbers, and symbols.

Maintenance of SLU

  • The Symbol Loading Units are manufactured by two PSUs, Electronics Corporation of India and Bharat Heavy Electricals.
  • Before the preparation of the EVMs for polling, the SLUs are kept in the custody of the concerned Returning Officer.
  • At the time of loading the symbols, a monitor is also attached to the SLU, which displays the symbols being installed, which can be viewed by the candidate agents.
  • After everything is set up, the system is verified by pressing every button on the ballot unit once. Then, the EVM sets are kept in strong rooms before they are dispatched to the polling stations ahead of the election.
  • On the other hand, after the process is complete, the SLUs are kept in the safe custody of the District Election Officer.
  • A day after the polls, the units are returned to the engineers of the respective manufacturer, Electronics Corporation of India or Bharat Heavy Electricals, as per current provisions.
  • This way, the ECI reuses the same SLUs for multiple constituencies in different phases of elections.

Maintenance of SLU

  • A VVPAT machine is attached to the ballot unit of the EVM and prints out a slip of paper with the voter’s choice indicated on it as soon as a vote is cast.
  • The printed slip is visible for seven seconds for the voter to verify if their vote was cast correctly before it falls into a compartment kept underneath.
  • Instead of being handed over to the voters, VVPAT slips are used later by the polling officials to verify votes cast in five randomly selected polling booths.

VVPAT in Elections

  • The idea of VVPAT machines was first proposed in 2010 following a meeting held by the Election Commission of India (ECI) with political parties to discuss the reforms needed to increase transparency in the polling process.
  • After the consultation, the proposal was referred to the ECI’s Technical Expert Committee.
  • Subsequently, the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 were amended in 2013 to allow VVPAT machines, piloted that year in the by-election for the Noksen assembly seat in Nagaland.
  • After that, the ECI decided to introduce VVPATs in a phased manner with the 2019 General Elections being the first where EVMs were 100% backed by the VVPAT machines.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q 8. Symbol Loading Unit (SLU), recently in news is related to which of the following?

A) Supercomputers

B) Large Learning Models

C) VVPAT

D) Virus detection

Q. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (UPSC Prelims 2017)

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) Natural Right

(C) Constitutional Right

(D) Legal Right

Answer – (C)   

 

Answer 8– C

Explanation

·         The Symbol Loading Unit is a small device which loads the information of the candidates into the VVPAT machine.

·         The Symbol Loading Unit(SLU)  is used to load the symbols of the candidates onto the VVPAT.

·         The Symbol Loading Units are manufactured by two PSUs, Electronics Corporation of India and Bharat Heavy Electricals.

·         Therefore, correct answer is option C

 

 

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