Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (19-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
|
| Telangana: Unlicensed Pharmacies Rampant in Telangana, DCA Reports |
| RGIA Awarded ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024’ by Skytrax |
| Economy: Drop in Private investments |
| International: US-India Defence Relations in news |
| Science and Technology: Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile successfully flight-tested by DRDO off the Odisha coast |
| ‘Ozempic babies’ in news |
| Important Days: World Liver Day |
Unlicensed Pharmacies Rampant in Telangana, DCA Reports
Source: The Times of India
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Public Health
Context: Hyderabad unlicensed pharmacies, attached to hospitals, 30-40% unlicensed
Why in news
- The Drugs Control Administration (DCA) has uncovered a concerning trend of unlicensed pharmacies proliferating across Telangana, including in Hyderabad and some establishments attached to hospitals.
Key highlights:
- It is estimated that unlicensed pharmacies may account for 30-40% of the total in the state.
- The DCA conducted raids on two unlicensed pharmacies, one located in Charminar and the other in Wanaparthy.
- During the raid at the Charminar pharmacy, officials discovered unauthorized stocking of a large quantity of medicines, including habit-forming drugs, antibiotics, anti-ulcer drugs, and cough syrups.
- The seized stock was estimated to be worth 50,000.
Public Health Risks and Official Recommendations:
- The DCA has highlighted the significant risks to public health posed by purchasing medicines from unlicensed shops, emphasizing the potential for counterfeit products.
- In response, the DCA has urged the public to verify the authenticity of a medical shop or pharmacy by using the Third Party Verification’ section of the Online Drug Licensing System website provided by the DCA, Telangana.
- This online tool allows individuals to check if a pharmacy holds a valid license issued by the DCA, providing a means for consumers to ensure the legitimacy of their medication sources.
- The DCA also emphasized the importance of purchasing medicines only from licensed medical shops, which prominently display their drug licenses issued by the DCA, Telangana.
Pharma industry in Telangana:
- Telangana state contributes nearly one-third to India’s production and one-fifth to its exports in the pharmaceutical sector.
- Telangana is pharmaceutical manufacturing hub in the country attracts over Rs 10,000 crore (US$ 1.49 billion) investments in the life sciences sector in the past four years.
- Pharmaceutical exports also have a majority share in the total merchandise exports from the state.
- During 2019-20 (up to December 2019) pharmaceutical products exports from the state stood at US$ 3.48 billion.
- Hyderabad is considered as the Life Sciences Capital of India with over 800 life sciences companies.
- Over the last four years, Telangana has attracted more than Rs. 10,000 crore investment in the life sciences sector.
- Vision 2030: To become the leading life-sciences hub in Asia through innovation-driven & tech-enabled growth, while doubling the sectoral value to USD 100 Billion and adding 400,000 new jobs.
- Other key fact- Hyderabad has been named as “Bulk Drug Capital of India” and “Vaccine Capital of the World”.
Infrastructure
- Hyderabad Pharma City: Telangana State Industrial Infrastructure Corporation Limited has come up with Hyderabad Pharma City Project in Ranga Reddy, Telangana with a ticket size of USD 3.57 bn.
Genome Valley:
- First and only systematically planned and developed cluster dedicated to life sciences in the country.
- Attracts mix of companies belonging to Agri-biotech, CRM, Pharmaceuticals, Biopharma, Vaccine space and Medical Devices space.
- India’s first and largest Life Sciences manufacturing cluster.
- 4 out of 5 leading manufacturers of vaccine are present here and home to more than 200 companies.
- India’s 1st National Animal Resource Facility for Biomedical Research (NARF) is located in Genome valley.
- Asia’s leading R&D and Innovation Hotspot.
- 6 out of 10 world’s top 10 R&D companies are in Genome Valley.
- 3 leading vaccine manufacturers in India are in Genome Valley.
- 150 life sciences companies, 10,000 employees.
Medical Devices Park:
- Medical devices park is located at Sultanpur, about 50 kilometers from Hyderabad.
- The park is spread over an area of 276 acres.
- It aims to offer facilities for manufacturing, laboratory testing, prototyping and innovation in medical devices.
- The park had garnered around INR 1000 crore in investment. Key medical device companies that have invested in the park include.
- About 25 companies are in the process of establishing their R&D and manufacturing units including Sahajanand Medical Technologies, Promea Therapeutics Private Limited, Arka Medical Devices, Virchow Biotech, among others.
- Country’s largest medical devices park.
- Spread across 250 acres with dedicated ecosystem for MedTech innovation.
- Hosts Asia’s largest coronary stent manufacturing facility.
- Companies in Medical Devices Park engaged in orthopedic implantation, ultrasound scanners, sterile kits, prosthetics etc.
- Common scientific amenities that are often used for medical device tenants.
- Common Facilities for Medical Device Testing.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Pharma industry:
1. ICMR-NARFBR (National Animal Resource Facility for Biomedical Research), is located in Telangana at Genome Valley, Hyderabad. 2. Varanasi is considered as the Life Sciences Capital of India with over 800 life sciences companies. 3. Telangana hosts Asia’s largest coronary stent manufacturing facility. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1,2 and 3 |
| Answer 1– C
Explanation
|
RGIA Awarded ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024’ by Skytrax
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Awards and Honours
Context : Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) has once again secured the prestigious title of ‘Best Airport Staff in India and South Asia
Why in news
- The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) has been recognized as the ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024’ by Skytrax.
Key highlights
- The prestigious accolade was announced during a ceremony held at the passenger terminal expo 2024.
- The RGIA stood out among all participating airports in the Indian and South Asian regions, securing the top position for its exceptional airport staff.
- The award is the result of rigorous audits and evaluations that analyze a wide range of factors.
- These include the combined quality of staff service, such as attitude, friendliness, and efficiency, delivered across various front-line positions at the airport.
- This encompasses customer help and information counters, immigration and security staff, shops, and food and beverage outlets.
About The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA)
- Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is situated in Hyderabad, which is the capital city of Telangana.
- The airport is named after the former Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi.
- It is one of the busiest airports in the country, handling a significant amount of domestic and international air traffic.
- Situated in Shamshabad, about 24 kilometers south of Hyderabad, the airport serves as a major gateway to the city and its surrounding regions.
- It has multiple terminals and is well-known for its modern infrastructure and amenities, providing a comfortable and efficient experience for travelers.
About the World Airport Awards
- The World Airport Awards began in 1999, when Skytrax launched its first global, Airport customer satisfaction survey.
- A central directive of the survey is for customers to make their own, personal choices as to which airport they consider to be the best, underlining the brand as the Passenger’s Choice Awards
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) has been recognized as the ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024’ by Skytrax. Which factors contributed to RGIA securing this award?
A. Exceptional airport staff service across various positions B. Quality of staff service, including attitude, friendliness, and efficiency C. Customer help and information counters, immigration and security staff, shops, and food and beverage outlets D. All of the above
|
| Answer 2– D
Explanation · The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) secured the ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024’ award by Skytrax based on rigorous audits and evaluations that analyze a wide range of factors. · These factors include the combined quality of staff service, such as attitude, friendliness, and efficiency, delivered across various front-line positions at the airport. · This encompasses customer help and information counters, immigration and security staff, shops, and food and beverage outlets. · Therefore, correct answer is option D.
|
Drop in Private investments
Source: The Hindu
https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Indian Economy growth and Investment)
Context: Private Gross Fixed Capital Formation not picking up in India and how government policies affect private capital formation.
Why in news
- The failure of private investment, as measured by private Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) as a percentage of gross domestic product (GDP) at current prices, to pick up pace has been one of the major issues plaguing the Indian economy.
Key highlights
- Private investment witnessed a steady decline since 2011-12 and the government has been hoping that large Indian corporations would step in and ramp up investment.
- In fact, in 2019, the Centre slashed corporate taxes from 30% to 22% hoping that the move would encourage private investment.
What is GFCF and why does it matter?
- GFCF refers to the growth in the size of fixed capital in an economy.
- Fixed capital refers to things such as buildings and machinery, for instance, which require investment to be created.
- So private GFCF can serve as a rough indicator of how much the private sector in an economy is willing to invest.
- Overall GFCF also includes capital formation as a result of investment by the government.
- GFCF matters because fixed capital, by helping workers produce a greater amount of goods and services each year, helps to boost economic growth and improve living standards.
- In other words, fixed capital is what largely determines the overall output of an economy and hence what consumers can actually purchase in the market.
- Developed economies such as the U.S. possess more fixed capital per capita than developing economies such as India.
What is the trend seen in private investment in India?
- In India, private investment began to pick up significantly mostly after the economic reforms of the late-1980s and the early-1990s that improved private sector confidence. From independence to economic liberalisation, private investment largely remained either slightly below or above 10% of the GDP.
- Public investment as a percentage of GDP, on the other hand, steadily rose over the decades from less than 3% of GDP in 1950-51 to overtake private investment as a percentage of GDP in the early 1980s.
- It, however, began to drop post-liberalisation with private investment taking on the leading role in fixed capital formation.
- The growth in private investment lasted until the global financial crisis of 2007-08. It rose from around 10% of GDP in the 1980s to around 27% in 2007-08.
- From 2011-12 onwards, however, private investment began to drop and hit a low of 19.6% of the GDP in 2020-21.
Why has private investment fallen?
- Many economists in India have blamed low private consumption expenditure as the primary reason behind the failure of private investment to pick up over the last decade, and particularly since the onset of the pandemic.
- Their reasoning is that strong consumption spending is required to give businesses the confidence that there will be sufficient demand for their output once they decide to invest in building fixed capital.
- Hence these economists have advised that the government should put more money into the hands of the people to boost consumption expenditure, and thus help kick start private investment.
- Historically, however, an increase in private consumption has not led to a rise in private investment in India. In fact, a drop in consumption spending has boosted private investment rather than dampening it.
- Private final consumption expenditure dropped steadily from nearly 90% of GDP in 1950-51 to hit a low of 54.7% of GDP in 2010-11, which was a year prior to when private investment hit a peak and began its long decline.
- And since 2011-12, private consumption has risen while private investment has witnessed a worrying fall as a percentage of GDP.
- The inverse relationship between consumption and investment is likely because the money that is allocated towards savings and investment, either by the government or by private businesses, comes at the cost of lower consumption expenditure.
- Other economists believe that structural problems may likely be the core reason behind the significant fall in private investment as a percentage of GDP over the last decade or so.
- They have cited unfavourable government policy and policy uncertainty as major issues affecting private investment.
- The rise in private investment in the 1990s and the 2000s correlated with the economic reforms programme started in 1991.
- The drop in private investment, on the other hand, correlated with the slowdown in the pace of reforms in the last two decades under both the UPA (second term) and NDA governments.
- Further, policy uncertainty can discourage private investment as investors expect stability to carry out risky long-term projects.
Impact
- Biggest cost of low private investment would be slower economic growth as a larger fixed capital base is crucial to boost economic output.
- The push by the government to increase government investment is also seen as a negative by some who believe that it crowds out private investment.
- Others, however, think that government investment compensates for the lack of private investment.
- It should be noted, however, that private investors are considered to be better allocators of capital than public officials, helping avoid wasteful spending.
- Further, taxes imposed to raise money for public spending can be a significant drag on the economy.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF):
1. It refers to the growth in the size of fixed capital in an economy. 2. Private GFCF can serve as an indicator of how much the private sector in an economy is willing to invest. 3. Overall GFCF also includes capital formation as a result of government investment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
|
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1 B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1 C. Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct Answer: D
|
| Answer 3 D
Explanation · GFCF stands for Gross Fixed Capital Formation. · It refers to the growth in the size of fixed capital in an economy, which includes investments in things like buildings and machinery. So, statement 1 is correct. · Private GFCF can serve as an indicator of how much the private sector in an economy is willing to invest. So, statement 2 is correct. · while overall GFCF also includes capital formation as a result of government investment. So, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option D is correct answer. |
India- US Defence Ties
Source: DD News
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS -2 (International Relations), GS-3 (Indigenization of technology and developing new technology.)
Context: US Defence Secretary notified Congress of arms sale to India, acknowledging India’s regional importance.
Why in News
- US Defense Secretary Lloyd Austin praised the strong bilateral ties between the United States and India, particularly highlighting a significant agreement between American and Indian companies for manufacturing jet engines.
Key Highlights
- The jet engine deal was announced during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s state visit to the US in June last year, with US General Electric (US GE) partnering with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) to manufacture engines for the Indian Air Force.
- Austin emphasized the importance of joint ventures like these in promoting interoperability and enhancing capabilities to address various challenges, as he testified before the Senate panel on the 2025 budget.
- Additionally, the Biden Administration notified the US Congress of its intention to sell approximately $4 billion worth of arms, including MQ-9 B Drones armed with Hellfire missiles, further strengthening the strategic relationship between the two countries.
- The Defence Security Cooperation Agency highlighted India’s role as a crucial force for political stability, peace, and economic progress in the Indo-Pacific and South Asia region, acknowledging the significance of the arms sale in bolstering this relationship.
About the GE-HAL fighter jet engine deal
- Top of Form
- General Electric (GE) Aerospace will share vital technology with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), facilitating joint production.
- This collaboration aims to manufacture GE-F414 jet engines for the indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas Mk-II.
About F414 Jet Engine
- The F414 is a component of General Electric’s (GE’s) range of military aircraft engines, having served the US Navy for over three decades.
- Known for its reliability and potency, the F414 is deemed suitable for various fighter aircraft applications.
- Presently, it’s employed to propel the Indian Air Force’s Tejas Mk2, poised to furnish the aircraft with requisite performance for contemporary air combat challenges.
- Additionally, there are prospects for F414 engines to power prototypes and the initial fleet of India’s Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), envisaged as the nation’s futuristic fifth-generation fighter aircraft.
About MQ-9B drone
- The MQ-9B drone is a version of the MQ-9 “Reaper,” an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) capable of remote or autonomous flight.
- These drones, armed with precision strike missiles, are designed for high-altitude, long-endurance operations.
- General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI) developed the MQ-9B primarily for the United States Air Force (USAF).
- The MQ-9B has two variants: SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian, with the Indian Navy operating the Sea Guardian variant since 2020.
- Features include a payload capacity of up to 5,670 kg, fuel capacity of 2,721 kg, and an operational ceiling of over 40,000 feet.
- The drone boasts a maximum endurance of 40 hours, making it suitable for extended surveillance missions.
- Its capabilities span various roles such as land and maritime surveillance, anti-submarine warfare, electronic warfare, and expeditionary missions.
- Additionally, it supports automatic take-offs and landings and can safely operate in civil airspace, providing real-time situational awareness in maritime environments day or night.
Significance of the Deal
- The deal between General Electric (GE) Aerospace and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) will facilitate the sharing of critical technology, enabling joint production of GE-F414 jet engines for India’s indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas Mk-II.
- Reportedly, the US has agreed to transfer approximately 80% of the technology value to India, marking an unprecedented move.
- India has made significant strides in defense and space programs but lacks success in producing engines for its aircraft, making this technology-sharing deal vital.
- It’s noteworthy as it marks the first instance of the US sharing cutting-edge defense technology with a non-ally and the first co-production of US jet engines with a non-treaty country.
- The deal involves substantial sharing of sensitive jet engine technology, aiming to reduce India’s reliance on Russian defense aircraft and enhance interoperability between US and Indian military.
- India’s entry into the exclusive club of jet engine producers alongside Russia, USA, France, and UK will boost its defense capabilities.
- Indigenously produced jet engines are expected to modernize India’s fighter jet capabilities, replacing its aging Russian fleet and reducing costs.
- Domestic manufacturing will decrease dependence on foreign suppliers and provide an edge over China in terms of power, efficiency, and maintenance of jet engines.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following pairs:
(Jet Engines) (Country) 1. F414 : USA 2. Safran engine : France 3. WS-10 engine : Switzerland How many of the above pairs are correct? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None of the above
|
Q. Consider the following statements about G-20: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. The G20 group was originally established as a platform for finance ministers and central bank governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: C
|
| Answer 4– B
Explanation –
|
Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile successfully flight-tested by DRDO off the Odisha coast
Source: PIB
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2018171
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Indigenization of technology and developing new technology.)
Context: Cruise missiles are guided, self-propelled weapons deployable from multiple platforms like aircraft, ships, or ground launchers.
Why in News
- The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful flight test of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) on April 18, 2024, from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Chandipur, Odisha.
Key Highlights
- DRDO successfully tested the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) at Chandipur, Odisha, confirming the reliable performance of its subsystems and indigenous propulsion system.
- The missile’s waypoint navigation and low altitude sea-skimming flight were monitored from ground stations and Indian Air Force aircraft, with Defence Minister Rajnath Singh commending the achievement.
- All subsystems of the missile performed as expected during the test, with monitoring carried out by various Range Sensors including Radar, Electro Optical Tracking System (EOTS), and Telemetry.
- The flight of the missile was monitored not only from ground stations but also from the Su-30-Mk-I aircraft of the Indian Air Force.
- The missile followed the desired path using waypoint navigation and demonstrated very low altitude sea-skimming flight.
- The successful test also confirmed the reliable performance of the indigenous propulsion system developed by the Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in Bengaluru.
- Equipped with advanced avionics and software, the missile ensures better and reliable performance.
- Developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) in Bengaluru, with contributions from other DRDO laboratories and Indian industries, the test was witnessed by senior scientists and production partners.
- Top of Form
About Cruise Missile:
- Cruise missiles are guided, self-propelled weapons deployable from multiple platforms like aircraft, ships, or ground launchers.
- Engineered for low-altitude flight, they’re programmed to track specific flight paths, often closely following terrain contours to evade detection and interception.
- With capability to carry diverse warheads, cruise missiles are employed for pinpoint, long-distance attacks on targets such as military sites, infrastructure, or high-priority objectives.
- Their adaptive navigation system ensures precise flight adjustments, enhancing their accuracy and effectiveness in striking designated targets.
- Top of Form
Difference between Cruise and Ballistic Missile:
- Cruise missiles utilize air-breathing propulsion systems, including jet or propeller-driven engines, while ballistic missiles rely on rocket-powered propulsion.
- Cruise missiles operate at subsonic or supersonic speeds, typically slower than ballistic missiles, which can reach supersonic to hypersonic velocities.
- Cruise missiles fly at low altitudes near the Earth’s surface, while ballistic missiles ascend to high altitudes, often entering space before descending towards their target.
- Guidance systems for cruise missiles are active throughout the entire flight, offering high maneuverability, whereas ballistic missiles are guided only during the boost phase and have limited maneuverability.
- Cruise missiles are known for their precision targeting due to continuous guidance, while ballistic missiles, following a ballistic trajectory, have less precise targeting.
- Various platforms, including ships, submarines, aircraft, and ground-based launchers, can launch cruise missiles, whereas ballistic missiles are primarily launched from land-based, submarine-based, and some road-mobile platforms.
- Cruise missiles are typically employed for precision strikes on specific targets such as military installations and infrastructure, whereas ballistic missiles are used for strategic, long-range attacks on cities, military bases, or other nations.
- Cruise missiles are harder to detect due to their low altitude and smaller radar cross-section, while ballistic missiles are easier to detect during the boost phase.
- Both types of missiles can carry various warhead types, including conventional and nuclear, but ballistic missiles are more commonly associated with nuclear warheads.
- Cruise missiles can receive in-flight guidance updates, allowing for course changes, whereas ballistic missiles are generally pre-programmed with no updates during flight.
- Examples of Indian cruise missiles include BrahMos and Nirbhay, while ballistic missiles include Prithvi I, Prithvi II, Agni I, Agni II, and Dhanush missiles.
About DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation):
- The DRDO serves as the leading research and development agency within the Ministry of Defence’s Department of Defence Research and Development in the Government of India.
- Its primary responsibility is conducting research and development for the military with the aim of attaining self-sufficiency in the defence sector.
- Established in 1958, the DRDO was formed by merging the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories with the Defence Science Organisation.
- Project Indigo marked DRDO’s inaugural major defence project, focusing on the development of Surface-to-Air Missiles (SAM).
- In 1979, it was officially designated as a service comprising Group ‘A’ Officers / Scientists, directly under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Objectives of DRDO:
- The objectives of DRDO include designing, developing, and manufacturing advanced sensors, weapon systems, platforms, and related equipment for the Indian Defence Forces.
- Additionally, DRDO strives to devise technological solutions to enhance the combat effectiveness of the military and improve the well-being of troops.
- Furthermore, DRDO aims to establish a robust indigenous technology base by developing technological infrastructure and nurturing a skilled workforce.Top of Form
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q5. Consider the following Statements:
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
|
Q. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2014)
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: A
|
| Answer 5 B
Explanation · The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful flight test of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) on April 18, 2024, from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Chandipur, Odisha.
|
‘Ozempic babies’ in news
Source: The Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/life-style/ozempic-babies-pregnancy-fertility-9277534/
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS-3 (Science and Technology)
Context: The controversy surrounding Ozempic arises from its off-label use for weight loss despite being FDA-approved solely for diabetes treatment.
Why in news
- Recent attention has focused on the diverse impacts of Ozempic, a medication designed for type 2 diabetes management, with reported effects ranging from weight loss to unexpected pregnancies, prompting questions about semaglutide’s influence on fertility.
About Ozempic
- Ozempic and similar drugs, known as glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1-RAs), were initially developed for managing blood glucose in type 2 diabetes patients.
- Ozempic is a brand version of semaglutide, an FDA-approved treatment for Type-2 Diabetes.
- It can be taken via injection or orally.
- The mechanism of Ozempic involves mimicking GLP-1, a natural hormone.
- GLP-1 aids in blood sugar regulation by boosting insulin release and reducing liver glucose release.
- There’s a concern regarding a potential side effect of Ozempic causing facial aging and skin sagging.
- However, Ozempic’s global popularity stems from its efficacy in promoting weight loss through appetite reduction and slowed stomach emptying.
- While Ozempic is prescribed for diabetes in Australia, it’s not officially approved for obesity treatment, yet some doctors prescribe it “off label” for weight loss.
- In contrast, Wegovy, a higher dosage of semaglutide, is approved in Australia for obesity treatment, although it’s not yet accessible.
How does obesity affect fertility?
- Obesity disrupts the delicate hormonal balance necessary for regulating the menstrual cycle, impacting fertility.
- Women with a BMI above 27 have a threefold increased risk of infertility due to reduced ovulation compared to those in the normal weight range.
- Conditions like type 2 diabetes and polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), often associated with obesity, contribute to fertility issues.
- Women with type 2 diabetes are more prone to obesity-related fertility difficulties and miscarriage.
- PCOS, commonly linked with obesity, leads to irregular menstrual cycles and fertility challenges in affected women.
How might Ozempic affect fertility?
- Weight loss, often achieved with medications like Ozempic, can improve fertility by addressing menstrual irregularities and increasing the likelihood of pregnancy in women with obesity.
- Reported unexpected pregnancies among women using Ozempic may be attributed to its weight loss and metabolic benefits.
- Concerns have arisen regarding potential interactions between Ozempic and contraceptive pills, leading to contraceptive failure in some cases, although the connection remains uncertain.
- In men with type 2 diabetes, obesity, and low testosterone levels, medications like Ozempic have demonstrated promising outcomes in weight loss and testosterone level elevation.
Pregnant while taking Ozempic
- Deciding what to do if pregnancy occurs while using Ozempic can be challenging due to uncertainties about the drug’s effects on the fetus.
- Limited scientific data are available, but an observational study on pregnant women with type 2 diabetes using GLP-1-RAs, including Ozempic, found no significant increase in major congenital malformations in babies.
- Women using or considering semaglutide during pregnancy should seek guidance from healthcare providers on managing their condition.
- Planned pregnancies allow women to take proactive steps to enhance their baby’s health, such as taking folic acid supplements and avoiding smoking and alcohol consumption.
- While unexpected pregnancies may be welcomed, mothers of “Ozempic babies” may not have had the opportunity to implement these measures for optimal fetal development.
Controversy regarding use of Ozempic
- The controversy surrounding Ozempic arises from its off-label use for weight loss despite being FDA-approved solely for diabetes treatment.
- Individuals without diabetes are taking Ozempic for weight loss purposes.
- Non-diabetic usage of Ozempic can result in side effects like constipation, stomach pain, and vomiting.
- While the occurrence of side effects is minimal, prolonged use may lead to serious health issues over time.
Drug Approval Process in India:
- The drug approval process in India is regulated by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945.
- Pharmaceutical companies or sponsors submit formal applications to the CDSCO, providing detailed data on the drug’s quality, safety, and efficacy from pre-clinical and clinical trials.
- Approval for clinical trials is granted by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) to evaluate the drug’s safety and efficacy in humans.
- Upon successful evaluation, the DCGI approves the drug for marketing and manufacturing.
- Post-approval, the regulator mandates monitoring and reporting of adverse events for a period of two years.
Potential impact that may be caused by using Unapproved Drugs:
- Public Health Implications: Use of unapproved miracle drugs poses risks due to lack of clinical test data, potentially leading to adverse drug reactions and medical uncertainty for patients.
- Emergence of Grey Market: Illicit procurement methods have fueled a grey market for unapproved weight loss injectables in India.
- Quality and Contamination Challenges: Unapproved drugs may bypass regulatory scrutiny, raising concerns about contamination. Instances include the contamination of Semaglutide by Ozempic and Wegovy, and scandals involving spurious imported drugs like Adcetris.
- Cardiovascular Risks: Several unapproved miracle drugs have been linked to heart valve defects in patients, such as Fen-Phen used for weight loss.
- Potential Medical Community Involvement: There’s a risk of complicity within the medical community in recommending these unapproved drugs.
- Economic Impact: Vulnerable populations are lured by costly unapproved drugs, jeopardizing their economic security.
- Public Misinformation: Misleading medical advertisements, particularly regarding weight loss, propagate misinformation, eroding public trust in scientifically proven treatments.
Way Forward:
- The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 should be strictly enforced to tackle the issue of unapproved magic drugs in India.
- There should be increased government oversight to monitor and regulate medical advertisements, as seen in the Supreme Court’s criticism of the government’s inaction in the Patanjali case.
- Mass tort litigations should be initiated against pharmaceutical companies selling unapproved magical drugs.
- The medical community has an ethical responsibility to refrain from recommending these drugs, and doctors found guilty should face legal consequences.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following Statements
Statement-1: The mechanism of Ozempic involves mimicking GLP-1, a natural hormone.
Statement-2: The drug approval process in India is regulated by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, and the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1 C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct |
Q. Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
A. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes B. Converting crop residues into packing material C. Producing biodegradable plastics D. Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass.
Answer: A
|
| Answer 6 B
Explanation · Ozempic and similar drugs, known as glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1-RAs), were initially developed for managing blood glucose in type 2 diabetes patients. · Ozempic is a brand version of semaglutide, an FDA-approved treatment for Type-2 Diabetes. · It can be taken via injection or orally. · The mechanism of Ozempic involves mimicking GLP-1, a natural hormone. · GLP-1 aids in blood sugar regulation by boosting insulin release and reducing liver glucose release. · Hence statement 1 is correct. · The Indian Parliament passed the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940, which oversees the import, production, and distribution of drugs in India. · Its main objective is to ensure that the drugs and cosmetics marketed in India are reliable, efficient, and in compliance with the national standards. · The associated Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, which were formulated in association with the 1940 Act, provide provisions for classifying medications into schedules and instructions for the storage, sale, presentation, and prescription of each schedule. · Hence statement 2 is correct. But Statement 1 is not the correct explanation of Statement 2. · Therefore, option B is correct answer.
|
World Liver Day
Source: The Hindu
https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Health issue and prevention)
Context : April 19 is celebrated as World Liver Day every year.
Why in news
- World Liver Day is celebrated every year to create awareness about the significance of liver functions and prevention measures we should take to ensure that the liver is healthy.
About World Liver Day 2024
- Every year, World Liver Day is observed on April 19.
- The theme for this year’s World Liver Day is – Be Vigilant, Get Regular Liver Check-Ups and Prevent Fatty Liver Diseases.
- In 2010, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) launched the first ever World Liver Day to commemorate the foundation day of EASL in 1966.
- Since then, April 19 has been celebrated as World Liver Day every year.
About Liver
- Liver and the have a symbiotic relationship.
- The liver, often hailed as the body’s powerhouse, boasts a repertoire of functions crucial for our overall well-being.
- Primarily, it detoxifies harmful substances, be it environmental toxins or metabolic byproducts, ensuring our bloodstream remains clean.
- Additionally, the liver synthesizes essential proteins, stores glycogen for energy, and metabolizes fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, thereby regulating blood sugar levels and cholesterol.
- However, this multitasking marvel isn’t invincible.
- Factors such as excessive alcohol consumption, poor dietary choices, viral infections, and certain medications can burden the liver, impairing its function.
- Over time, this strain may lead to liver diseases such as fatty liver disease, hepatitis, or even liver cirrhosis.
The Gut: gateway to health
- More than a mere passageway for food, the gut hosts trillions of microorganisms collectively known as the gut microbiota.
- This bustling community aids in breaking down food, synthesizing vitamins, and, crucially, bolstering our immune system.
- Maintaining a diverse and balanced gut microbiome is pivotal for overall health.
- However, modern lifestyles, marked by processed foods, antibiotics, and chronic stress, often disrupt this delicate equilibrium, paving the way for gastrointestinal disorders like irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), and leaky gut syndrome.
The Interplay: liver-gut axis
- Now, let’s unravel the intricate interplay between the liver and the gut, often referred to as the liver-gut axis.
- This bidirectional communication system involves various molecules, hormones, and immune cells shuttling between the two organs, influencing each other’s function.
- One crucial link is the bile produced by the liver, which aids in fat digestion.
- Interestingly, bile acids also act as signaling molecules in the gut, modulating the composition of the gut microbiota.
- Conversely, metabolites produced by gut bacteria can influence liver metabolism and inflammation.
- Moreover, a healthy gut microbiome contributes to the integrity of the gut barrier, preventing harmful substances from leaking into the bloodstream and burdening the liver.
- Conversely, a compromised gut barrier, as seen in conditions like leaky gut syndrome, can trigger systemic inflammation and liver dysfunction.
Strategies to optimize both liver function and gut health
- Given their intertwined relationship, fostering gut health emerges as a promising avenue to bolster liver function.
Here are some strategies to optimize both:
- Embrace a fiber-rich diet: Fiber-rich foods like fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes serve as prebiotics, nourishing beneficial gut bacteria. Moreover, soluble fiber binds to bile acids, aiding in their excretion and reducing cholesterol levels, thus alleviating the liver’s workload.
- Incorporating probiotic-rich foods: Introducing beneficial bacteria into the gut through foods like yogurt, kefir, and kimchi fosters a diverse microbiome. These microbes can metabolize bile acids and modulate inflammation, indirectly benefiting liver health.
- Limit sugar and processed foods: Excessive sugar and processed foods not only disrupt the gut microbiota but also contribute to fatty liver disease and insulin resistance. Opting for whole, unprocessed foods helps maintain gut integrity and liver health.
- Stay hydrated: Adequate hydration supports liver function by aiding in the elimination of toxins through urine and optimizing bile production for digestion.
- Manage stress: Chronic stress can wreak havoc on gut health by altering gut permeability and microbiota composition.
- Prioritizing stress management techniques like meditation, yoga, or deep breathing exercises can mitigate its adverse effects.
Conclusion
- In the intricate tapestry of human physiology, the liver and gut stand as pillars of health, closely intertwined in their functions.
- By nurturing gut health through mindful dietary choices, stress management, and probiotic support, we can bolster liver function and pave the way for vibrant well-being.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
1. Detoxifying harmful substances 2. Synthesizing essential proteins 3. Storing glycogen for energy 4. Regulating blood sugar levels and cholesterol Code A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 4 only D. All of these |
Q. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C
|
| Answer 7– C
Explanation · World Liver Day is celebrated every year to create awareness about the significance of liver functions and prevention measures we should take to ensure that the liver is healthy. · The liver performs multiple functions crucial for our overall well-being. It detoxifies harmful substances, synthesizes essential proteins, and stores glycogen for energy. · Additionally, it metabolizes fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, thereby regulating blood sugar levels and cholesterol. · Therefore, option C is correct answer. |