Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (10-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Telangana: TSBB organised a workshop on the implementation of BIOFIN-Finance Solutions |
| Telangana to set up 7,149 centres to lift paddy |
| National: Candidates have a right to privacy from voters: SC |
| Centre-State conflict over control on industrial alcohol |
| Science and Technology: India among nations with highest burden of viral hepatitis: WHO |
| Peter Higgs, physicist behind Higgs boson particle, dies at 94 |
| Economy: Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules re-implemented |
TSBB organised a workshop on the implementation of BIOFIN-Finance Solutions
Source: The New Indian Express
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2024/Apr/09/tg-to-prepare-biodiversity-action-plan
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Ecology and Environment
Context: The Telangana State Biodiversity Board (TSBB) organised a state-level workshop on the implementation of BIOFIN-Finance Solutions, in the city.
Why in news
- In collaboration with UNDP, Telangana will be the first in the country to prepare a state-level biodiversity action plan.
Key Highlights
- The Telangana State Biodiversity Board (TSBB) organised a state-level workshop on the implementation of BIOFIN-Finance Solutions, in Hyderabad.
- The workshop was organised under the guidance of National Biodiversity Authority in association with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and Biotech Consortium India Limited
- The workshop saw the active participation of more than 50 companies registered with the TSBB.
- With an active presence in the state, TSBB is a perfect partner to leverage outreach in the public and private sectors to implement the Telangana State Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan.
Biodiversity Finance Initiative Project (BIOFIN)
- The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in association with the Telangana State Biodiversity Board (TSBB) launched the Biodiversity Finance Initiative Project (BIOFIN) in 2023.
- It is a unique effort post the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KM-GBF) and Telangana is the first state in India to prepare such a state-level biodiversity action plan, incorporating a resource mobilisation strategy.
- BIOFIN came into the picture at the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) COP11 held in Hyderabad.
- The UNDP and the European Commission acknowledged the requirement to divert additional funding from all available sources toward the implementation of global and national biodiversity goals, as well as related commitments and targets.
TSSB
- The TSBB has made active efforts towards furthering the agenda of biodiversity conservation in the state. Telangana is noted for its rich history of agro-biodiversity.
- The TSBB is the ideal partner to leverage outreaching the public and private sectors to implement BIOFIN finance solutions on ‘mainstreaming biodiversity in public finance (agriculture sector), access and benefit sharing, and corporate social responsibility’ in order to develop a resource mobilisation strategy to carry out the action plan.
Haritha Haram
- Haritha Haram is a flagship programme of the Government of Telangana, aimed at increasing the green cover in the state. The name Haritha Haram means “green garland” in Telugu.
- The main objective of the Haritha Haram programme is to increase the green cover of the state from the existing 24% to 33% by planting and nurturing millions of saplings every year.
- The programme also aims to create awareness among the public about the importance of preserving and protecting the environment.
- The program was launched on 3 July 2015.
About UNDP
- The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is a United Nations agency tasked with helping countries eliminate poverty and achieve sustainable economic growth and human development.
- The UNDP emphasizes developing local capacity towards long-term self-sufficiency and prosperity.
- Based at United Nations Headquarters in New York City, it is the largest UN development aid agency, with offices in 177 countries.
- The UNDP is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from UN member states.
| CARE MCQ |
Q1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
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| Answer 1– D
Explanation • The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in association with the Telangana State Biodiversity Board (TSBB) launched the Biodiversity Finance Initiative Project (BIOFIN) in 2023. • It is a unique effort post the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KM-GBF) and Telangana is the first state in India to prepare such a state-level biodiversity action plan, incorporating a resource mobilisation strategy. So, statement A is correct. • In collaboration with UNDP, Telangana is first in the country to prepare a state-level biodiversity action plan. The Telangana State Biodiversity Board (TSBB) organised a state-level workshop on the implementation of BIOFIN-Finance Solutions, in Hyderabad. So, statement B is correct. • BIOFIN came into the picture at the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) COP11 held in Hyderabad. • The UNDP and the European Commission acknowledged the requirement to divert additional funding from all available sources toward the implementation of global and national biodiversity goals, as well as related commitments and targets. So, statement C is correct. • Haritha Haram is a flagship programme of the Government of Telangana, aimed at increasing the green cover in the state. The name Haritha Haram means “green garland” in Telugu. • The main objective of the Haritha Haram programme is to increase the green cover of the state from the existing 24% to 33% by planting and nurturing millions of saplings every year. So, statement D is incorrect.
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Telangana to set up 7,149 centres to lift paddy
Source: The New Indian Express
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Agriculture production in Telangana
Context: The procurement of paddy is expected to be around 75.40 lakh metric tonnes (MT) this year as per government sources.
Why in news
- With the Rabi harvest starting, the state government will set up 7,149 paddy procurement centres across Telangana.
Key Highlights
- The Agriculture department said that 5,422 centres have already started procuring paddy.
- The remaining 1,727 centres would be opened within two days.
- 31,215 MT of paddy was procured from 4,345 farmers through 443 centres by the Civil Supplies Corporation.
- Meanwhile, 18.85 crore jute bags are required for rabi season to procure the paddy. As of now, 14 crore gunny bags are available with the state government.
- Officials said that the bags available with the government are sufficient to purchase around 56 lakh MT paddy. The government is taking steps to procure more jute bags as soon as possible.
Centre’s initiative
- Centre has agreed to purchase 50 lakh tonnes of paddy from Telangana this rabi (yasangi) season and also the coming kharif season till September 30 this year through the Food Corporation of India (FCI).
Position of Telangana
- Telangana is a major paddy grower in the country in the rabi season.
- Of the 54 lakh hectares of paddy area in the rabi season in 2022-23, Telangana reported about 23 lakh hectares under paddy, followed by Tamil Nadu with 12.21 lakh ha and Andhra Pradesh with 5.51 lakh hectares.
- Jayashankar Telangana State Agricultural University (PJTSAU) forecast that the paddy price per quintal will be around ₹2,140 – 2,280 (Common) and ₹2,250-2,640 (Grade-A) at the time of harvesting (Mar to May 2024).
Rabi paddy woes
- Since the demand for rabi rice from Telangana from other States has come down over the last few years, as per news reports, State is finding it difficult to sell the rice from the summer season.
- Inadequate storage space is likely to haunt the paddy procurement process in the State this year. The Civil Supplies Corporation favoured hiring storage spaces even outside the State.
- Godown space available with primary agricultural cooperative societies (PACS), agricultural market committee, Rythu Vedikas and other government buildings were also used by the corporation last year as intermediary storage spaces.
The Food Corporation of India (FCI)
- The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a statutory body of the Government of India. It is under the ownership of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, formed by the enactment of Food Corporation Act, 1964 by the Parliament of India.
- It was set up in 1965 with its initial headquarters at Chennai. Later this was moved to New Delhi.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. Which of the following problems are faced by paddy harvesting in Telangana?
1. Inadequate storage space 2. Demand for rabi rice from Telangana from other States has come down over the last few years Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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| Answer 2– C
Explanation • Since the demand for rabi rice from Telangana from other States has come down over the last few years, as per news reports, State is finding it difficult to sell the rice from the summer season. So, statement 1 is correct. • Inadequate storage space is likely to haunt the paddy procurement process in the State this year. The Civil Supplies Corporation favoured hiring storage spaces even outside the State. • Godown space available with primary agricultural cooperative societies (PACS), agricultural market committee, Rythu Vedikas and other government buildings were also used by the corporation last year as intermediary storage spaces. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option C.
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Candidates have a right to privacy from voters: SC judgment
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Judiciary, Elections)
Context: The Supreme Court has advocated right to privacy for election candidate
Why in news
- The Supreme Court on April 9 held that an election candidate has a right to privacy from voters and need not lay out every scrap of his or her personal life and possessions, past and present, for the electorate to examine with a magnifying glass.
Key Highlights
- A Bench of Justices Aniruddha Bose and Sanjay Kumar said a candidate’s choice to retain his privacy on matters which were of no concern to the voters or were irrelevant to his candidature for public office did not amount to a ‘corrupt practice’ under Section 123 of the Representation of People Act, 1951.
- Such non-disclosure would not amount to a “defect of a substantial nature” under Section 36(4) of the 1951 Act.
- Justice Kumar, who wrote the judgment, observed there was no compulsion on a candidate to lay his life threadbare for the electorate to prod and scrutinise.
- But the Court said every case would turn on its own peculiarities on what would amount to a non-disclosure of assets of a substantial nature. Suppressing information about a collection of expensive watches from voters would be a substantial defect.
- The direction came as the apex court upheld the election of Independent MLA Karikho Kri from Tezu in the 2019 Arunachal Pradesh Assembly election.
Corrupt practices under the Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Section 123 of the RPA, 1951 defines ‘corrupt practices’ to include bribery, undue influence, false information, and promotion or attempted promotion of feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language” by a candidate.
- Section 123 (2) deals with undue influence which it defines as any direct or indirect interference on the part of the candidate with the free exercise of any electoral right.
- This could also include threats of injury, social ostracism and expulsion from any caste or community.
- Section 123 (4) extends the ambit of “corrupt practices” to the intentional publication of false statements which can prejudice the outcome of the candidate’s election.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ | ||||||||||||
| Q3. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- D |
| Answer 3 C
Explanation · Section 123 of the RPA, 1951 defines ‘corrupt practices’ to include bribery, undue influence, false information, and promotion or attempted promotion of feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language” by a candidate. So, pair 1 is correctly matched. · Section 123 (2) deals with ‘undue influence’ which it defines as “any direct or indirect interference or attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate or his agent, or of any other person, with the consent of the candidate or his election agent, with the free exercise of any electoral right.” This could also include threats of injury, social ostracism and expulsion from any caste or community. So, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
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Centre-State conflict over control on industrial alcohol
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Federal polity, Centre-State relations, Role of Judiciary)
Context: Supreme Court is evaluating States’ view to regulate inflow of industrial alcohol as presently, Centre is in complete control of every aspect of such industries.
Why in news
- A nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court on April 9 questioned the Centre’s rigid position to have exclusive control over industrial alcohol.
Members of Supreme Court Constitutional Bench
- A nine-judge Constitution bench, is examining the issue of overlapping jurisdiction between the Centre and states in the production, manufacturing, supply, and regulation of industrial alcohol.
- Bench is headed by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, comprising justices Hrishikesh Roy, Abhay S Oka, B V Nagarathna, J B Pardiwala, Manoj Misra, Ujjal Bhuyan, Satish Chandra Sharma and Augustine George Masih.
- The nine-judge bench is hearing a batch of 30 appeals referred to it by a five-judge bench in December 2010 doubting the correctness of a 1990 judgment that took away state’s power in relation to industrial alcohol under Entry 33 of the Concurrent List.
Centre’s stand
- Solicitor general Tushar Mehta, representing the Centre said that regulation of industrial alcohol lies with the Centre under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951.
- Hence, only the Union has legislative power to levy excise duty on alcohol not fit for human consumption.
- He added that every industry covered by Schedule I of the 1951 Act would be impacted by the court’s interpretation, not simply industrial alcohol, which was the petitioners’ sole point of contention.
- Such an industry was covered by Entry 52 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
- As per SG, though trade and commerce, supply, distribution, and production of the products of such industries were included as Entry 33(a) of the Concurrent List, this had to be read in consonance with and as an extension of the Centre’s power under Entry 52.
- States’ power extended to only “intoxicating liquors” fit for human consumption. This was covered under Entry 8 of the State List along with Entry 6 (public health).
- Union government retained control over an industry if its products had an effect over the entire country.
Revenue control
- Centre has retained control over industrial alcohol in public interest.
- Under Entry 52, centre has power over taxing, manufacture, and production of industrial alcohol to ensure equitable distribution of resources.
States’ views
- States like Kerala, Maharashtra, Punjab and even a petition from Uttar Pradesh raised alarm about industrial alcohol being used to make intoxicating liquor.
- In such cases, they argued that States cannot remain mute spectators and wait for tragedy to strike.
1989 case
- In 1989, a 7-judge Constitution Bench in Synthetics & Chemicals Ltd v. State of Uttar Pradesh held that states’ powers, as per Entry 8 of the State List, were limited to regulating “intoxicating liquors” which are different from industrial alcohol.
Supreme Court’s observation
- “There is a strong possibility of denatured spirit or industrial alcohol being misused for the purpose of human consumption.
- The State is the guardian of public health. States are concerned about liquor tragedies happening within their jurisdictions.
- “Why can’t the State make regulations to prevent the misuse of industrial alcohol and its conversion into intoxicating liquor?” Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor-General Tushar Mehta, appearing for the Centre.
- Chief Justice Chandrachud referred to States like Gujarat and Bihar, where intoxicating liquor was prohibited, and where there was a high possibility of industrial alcohol being abused.
- The CJI recounted hooch tragedies of the past.
158th Law Commission of India
- 158th Law Commission of India in 1998 had recommended amendments in the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 “in the interest of maintaining balance between the Union and the States also with a view to eliminate the room for abuse of law and misuse of alcohol.”
Conclusion
- Centre, on its part, has maintained that any liquid containing alcohol not fit for human consumption but meant for industrial use will fall within the regulation regime of the Centre. Giving States power to regulate industrial alcohol to prevent abuse would mean amending the Entry 52 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Regulation of industrial alcohol lies with the Centre under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951. 2. Entry 52 of the Union List gives the Union power to “control” industries. 3. Entry 8 of the State List gives state governments power to regulate “the production, manufacture, possession, transport, purchase and sale of intoxicating liquors.” 4. 158th Law Commission of India had recommended that the Industries Act be amended “in the interest of maintaining balance between the Union and the States. Code: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 2,3 and 4 only D. All of the above
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Q. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?(UPSC Prelims 2017)
A. There is an independent judiciary in India. B. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States. C. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer: D |
| Answer 4– D
Explanation – · Subjects in the Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both states and the Centre, but where a central law exists, the state law cannot be repugnant to it. Industrial alcohol is listed in the industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDRA). · Solicitor general Tushar Mehta, recently representing the Centre said that regulation of industrial alcohol lies with the Centre under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951. So, statement 1 is correct. · Entry 52 of the Union List, and Entry 33 of the Concurrent List mention industries, whose control is “declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in public interest”. So, statement 2 is correct. · Entry 8 in the State List under the Seventh Schedule gives states the power to legislate on the production, manufacture, possession, transport, purchase and sale of “intoxicating liquors”. So, statement 3 is correct. · 158th Law Commission of India in 1998 had recommended amendments in the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 “in the interest of maintaining balance between the Union and the States also with a view to eliminate the room for abuse of law and misuse of alcohol.” So, statement 4 is correct. · Therefore, option D is correct answer.
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India among nations with highest burden of viral hepatitis: WHO
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS-2 (Government Policies) GS – 3 (Public Health)
Context : 2.9 crore people in India are living with Hepatitis B infection and 0.55 crore living with Hepatitis C infection.
Why in news
- India is one of the countries with the highest burden of viral hepatitis — an infection that causes liver inflammation, damage and may lead to liver cancer according to the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
Key Highlights of report
- There were over 50,000 new Hepatitis B cases and 1.4 lakh new Hepatitis C cases reported in 2022.
- Hepatitis B and C infections killed 1.23 lakh people in India in 2022 as per the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
- Both infections are transmitted from mother to child during delivery, during transfusion of blood that hasn’t been screened properly, during contact with the blood of an infected person or while sharing of needles by drug users.
- Since hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination, the report highlights the need to ensure coverage.
- Hepatitis C is curable with medicines.
About Hepatitis B and C
- Hepatitis B is known to cause acute infection with nausea, vomiting and yellowing of the eye and skin for several weeks.
- Liver failure happens in severe cases. But the challenge is the chronic, life-long liver disease that it causes, especially when children get it.
- The chronic infection can lead to scarring of the liver called cirrhosis and increase the risk of liver cancer. There are medicines to slow the progress of the virus in chronic cases.
- Many people with the hepatitis C virus don’t have symptoms or know they are infected. Those who do develop symptoms two to 12 weeks after exposure report yellow skin or eyes, loss of appetite, nausea, stomach ache, fever, dark urine, light-coloured stool, joint pain and exhaustion.
- Globally, with nearly 1.3 million deaths a year, viral hepatitis kills as many people as tuberculosis.
- Both remained the second biggest infectious killer in 2022, behind only the deaths caused by the Covid-19 pandemic. There are around 304 million people living with Hepatitis B and C across the world as per the report.
Diagnostics and Treatment
- In India, coverage of diagnosis and treatment for the viral hepatitis infections remains very low.
- The report says that only 2.4 per cent of the Hepatitis B cases were diagnosed and 0 per cent received treatment.
- For Hepatitis C, the coverage of diagnostics and treatment was found to be better in India, with 28 per cent being diagnosed and 21 per cent receiving treatment.
- The coverage remains poor despite the fact that several Indian companies manufacture generic versions of the drugs as well as diagnostics.
- In fact, the cost of treatment with different combinations of drugs in India remains one of the lowest, as per the report.
- Although there’s a national viral hepatitis control programme — and ILBS was one of the driving forces behind it — its reach is limited.
- People have not been utilising the free diagnostics and treatment offered under the programme.
Hepatitis B vaccine
- Hepatitis B infections in the country, are mainly being driven by transmission from mother to child.
- Hepatitis B vaccine is offered to children under the Universal Immunisation Programme in India.
- The government’s viral hepatitis control programme also offers the vaccine to high-risk adults such as healthcare workers as well.
- Treatment for both Hepatitis B and C is available under the programme.
Hepatitis C treatment
- There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis C. The best way to prevent the disease is to avoid contact with the virus.
- Unlike Hepatitis B, where the drugs have to be taken for life, the treatment for Hepatitis C lasts for 12 to 24 weeks
- There are effective treatments for hepatitis C. The goal of treatment is to cure the disease and prevent long-term liver damage.
- Antiviral medications, including sofosbuvir and daclatasvir, are used to treat hepatitis C.
- Some people’s immune system can fight the infection on their own and new infections do not always need treatment. Treatment is always needed for chronic hepatitis C.
- People with hepatitis C may also benefit from lifestyle changes, such as avoiding alcohol and maintaining a healthy weight. With proper treatment, many people can be cured from hepatitis C infection and live healthy lives.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination Reason (R): There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis C. A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C) A is true but R is false. D) A is false but R is true. |
Q. Which of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
A. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. B. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. C. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. D. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Ans: B
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| Answer 5 A
Explanation · Hepatitis B infections in the country, are mainly being driven by transmission from mother to child. · Hepatitis B vaccine is offered to children under the Universal Immunisation Programme in India. So, assertion is correct. · There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis C. The best way to prevent the disease is to avoid contact with the virus. Hepatitis C is curable with medicines. The treatment for Hepatitis C lasts for 12 to 24 weeks. Antiviral medications, including sofosbuvir and daclatasvir, are used to treat hepatitis C. So, reason is correct. But reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
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Peter Higgs, physicist behind Higgs boson particle, dies at 94
Source: India Today
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Quantum Physics, Higgs Boson particle)
Context: Peter Higgs won the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics for his work, alongside Francois Englert of Belgium, for proposing the existence of God particle.
Why in news
- Nobel prize-winning physicist Peter Higgs, who proposed the existence of the so-called “god particle” that helped explain how matter formed after the Big Bang, has died at age 94.
Higgs boson
- Higgs predicted the existence of a new particle — the so-called Higgs boson — in 1964
- He theorized there must be a subatomic particle of certain dimension that would explain how other particles — and therefore all the stars and planets in the universe — acquired mass.
- Without something like this particle, the set of equations physicists use to describe the world, known as the standard model, would not hold together.
- Higgs’ work helps scientists understand one of the most fundamental riddles of the universe: how the Big Bang created something out of nothing 13.8 billion years ago.
- Without mass from the Higgs, particles could not clump together into the matter we interact with every day.
Standard Model of Physics
- The Standard Model of particle physics is the theory describing three of the four known fundamental forces (electromagnetic, weak and strong interactions – excluding gravity) in the universe and classifying all known elementary particles.
- In the Standard Model, the Higgs particle is a massive scalar boson with zero spin, even (positive) parity, no electric charge, and no colour charge that couples to (interacts with) mass. It is also very unstable, decaying into other particles almost immediately upon generation.
Nomenclature
- The boson had been nicknamed the ‘God particle’ by the media, after a book by Nobel laureate Leon Lederman.
- Scientists object to the term because they say religion has no role to play in evidence-based physics.
Large Hardron Collider
- The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest particle collider: a marvel of modern particle physics that has enabled researchers to plumb the depths of reality.
- In 2012, in one of the biggest breakthroughs in physics in decades, scientists at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, announced that they had finally found a Higgs boson using the $10 billion particle collider built in a 17-mile (27-kilometer) tunnel under the Swiss-French border.
- The collider was designed in large part to find Higgs’ particle. It produces collisions with extraordinarily high energies in order to mimic some of the conditions that were present in the trillionths of seconds after the Big Bang.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements with regards to Higgs boson particle:
1. Higgs boson particle was found by scientists using Large Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN in 2012. 2. Without something like this particle, standard model, would not hold together. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Q. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this observation? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
A. ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. B. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. C. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. D. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Answer: B
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| Answer 6 C
Explanation · The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest particle collider: a marvel of modern particle physics that has enabled researchers to plumb the depths of reality. · In 2012, in one of the biggest breakthroughs in physics in decades, scientists at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, announced that they had finally found a Higgs boson using the $10 billion particle collider built in a 17-mile (27-kilometer) tunnel under the Swiss-French border. So, statement 1 is correct. · The Standard Model of particle physics is the theory describing three of the four known fundamental forces (electromagnetic, weak and strong interactions – excluding gravity) in the universe and classifying all known elementary particles. · In the Standard Model, the Higgs particle is a massive scalar boson with zero spin, even (positive) parity, no electric charge, and no colour charge that couples to (interacts with) mass. It is also very unstable, decaying into other particles almost immediately upon generation. So, statement 2 is correct.
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Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules re-implemented
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Indian Economy, Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme, Solar Energy)
Context: Recent government orders on attempts to increase local sourcing of solar modules to support India’s renewables manufacturing ecosystem has been widely reported in the media as ‘import restrictions’.
Why in news
- Ministry of New and Renewable Energy’s (MNRE), ordered to re-implement its 2021 notification of an ‘Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic [PV] Modules’, also called the ALMM list.
About ALMM list
- ALMM list consists of manufacturers who “are eligible for use in Government Projects/Government assisted projects/ projects under Government schemes & programmes…. including projects set up for sale of electricity to the Central and State Governments.”
- However, this notification was “kept in abeyance” two years after it was issued, for the past financial year.
Recent re-implementation
- The government’s re-introduction of this rule has been premised on the estimation that following measures, such as the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, India’s domestic sector has boosted its production capacities and bettered price competitiveness to meet local demand.
- This is an import substitution effort, and not an attempt to restrict imports.
- While the government did not give an explicit reason for re-implementation of ALMM lit, it has been reported that it stems from concerns and demands of renewable power producers who had secured sale contracts with the government before these rules were issued, when solar modules and cells were overwhelmingly imported from China at highly competitive rates.
- India’s domestic renewables sector, at the time, was unlikely to meet the spike in demand for solar power production equipment at rates offered by Chinese manufacturers.
Chinese dominance
- Chinese government policies have prioritised solar PV as a strategic sector
- As per reports, China was the most cost-competitive location to manufacture all components of the solar PV supply chains.
- The reason being the lower cost of power supplied to the industry, as electricity accounts for more than 40% of production costs for polysilicon and almost 20% for ingots and wafers.
India’s dependence on Chinese and Vietnamese imports
- India is overwhelmingly import dependent to meet its demand for solar cells and modules — with China and Vietnam being the country’s major suppliers.
- India imported about $11.17 billion worth solar cells and modules in the past five years. This is worth 0.4% of India’s total exports in the same period.
- And until January of 2023-24, China accounted for 53% of India’s solar cell imports, and 63% of solar PV modules.
- China commands more than 80% share of the manufacturing capacity across polysilicon, wafer, cell and modules.
- In comparison, the manufacturing capacity in India is relatively low and is largely restricted to the last manufacturing stage.
Government initiatives
- In January 2019, Union government notified ALMM orders.
- Union Finance Minister proposed the ₹19,500 crore PLI scheme in the Union Budget of 2022-23. This was to scale domestic manufacturing of the entire solar supply chain — from polysilicon to solar modules.
- The government introduced a 40% customs duty on PV modules and 25% on PV cells. These duties were halved as solar capacity additions slowed.
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme
- Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India is implementing the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme under National Programme on High Efficiency Solar PV Modules, for achieving domestic manufacturing capacity of Giga Watt (GW) scale in High Efficiency Solar PV modules and solar PV cells, with an outlay of Rs. 24,000 crore.
- Solar PV manufacturers are selected through a transparent selection process.
- This Scheme has provision for Production Linked Incentive (PLI) to the selected solar PV module manufacturers for five years post commissioning, on manufacture and sale of High Efficiency Solar PV modules.
Way ahead
- Solar power accounted for about one-third of all energy generated from renewables between April 2023 and February 2024.
- The government’s ambitious target of 500 GW of installed capacity from non-fossil fuels by 2030 is the main driver to scale solar power in India.
- India has an estimated solar power potential of 748.99 GW. Hence, the potential of solar energy is not fully tapped, so far. India accounts for the fastest rate of growth for demand of electricity through 2026 among major economies.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Ministry of Commerce, is implementing the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme under National Programme on High Efficiency Solar PV Modules. 2. India is import dependent on US, China and Vietnam to meet its demand for solar cells and modules. 3. China was the most cost-competitive location to manufacture all components of the solar PV supply chains, due to lower cost of power supplied to the industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 3 only
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Q. Consider the following statement:(UPSC Prelims 2023)
Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. D. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Ans: (D) |
| Answer 7– D
Explanation
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