APRIL 11 CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 TSPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (11-04-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

Telangana: Mahatma Phule remembered on his 198th birth anniversary
National: 69 Indian institutions in QS World University Rankings
International: India to send new Defence Attachés in multiple missions in Africa
EU parliament adopts stricter migration rules in landmark asylum reform
Economy: India raises sanctions over Russian diamonds with Europe
NIIF invests $200 million in iBUS for expansion of digital infrastructure

 

Mahatma Phule remembered on his 198th birth anniversary

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/jyotiba-phule-a-mentor-for-future-generations-says-revanth/article68051090.ece

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Social Justice, Welfare of weaker sections

Context: Social reformer Mahatma Phule was remembered on the occasion of his birth anniversary.

Why in news

  • In Hyderabad, Chief Minister A Revanth Reddy honored Mahatma Jyotiba Phule on his 198th birth anniversary. He praised Phule for his sacrifices and contributions to the country.

Life of Mahatma Phule

  • He was born on April 11, 1827, in a small village in Maharashtra, India, and his birth anniversary is celebrated every year as a day to honour his legacy and contributions to Indian society.
  • Phule’s family worked as florists for the Peshwas, leading to their surname “Phule.”
  • Despite belonging to a lower caste, Phule never faced caste discrimination due to his family’s close ties with the Peshwas.
  • He established a school for females and untouchables in 1848.
  • He instructed his wife, Savitribai, in reading and writing, and she became the first female teacher in India.
  • Phule’s inspiration for his educational mission came from Thomas Paine’s book, The Rights of Man, which he believed would help lower castes and women fight against social evils. Phule also advocated for widow remarriage, established an infanticide prevention center for pregnant widows, and wrote novels such as Shetkarayacha Aasud and Gulamgiri.

Anti-Caste Movement

  • Phule’s efforts are widely recognized for advancing the anti-caste movement and women’s education in India.
  • He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873, which was a society dedicated to eradicating social evils like caste discrimination, dowry system, and illiteracy.
  • Through his writings and speeches, he advocated for the rights of lower castes, particularly the Dalits or untouchables, and the education of women.

Contributions

  • One of Phule’s most significant contributions to Indian society was his work in the field of education.
  • He believed that education was the key to social change and worked tirelessly to establish schools for girls and lower castes.
  • He also established the Satyashodhak Shala, which was a school for Dalit children.
  • His efforts in the field of education were groundbreaking and helped pave the way for greater access to education for all members of Indian society.
  • Phule was also a prolific writer and penned several books and articles on social reform, including “Gulamgiri” and “Sarvajanik Satya Dharma Pustak.”

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Mahatma Jyotiba Phule:

1.       He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873

2.       Phule’s inspiration was inspired by Thomas Paine’s book, The Rights of Man.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Answer 1– C

Explanation

•         In order to articulate the grievances of the neglected section of society, create awareness and induce them to fight for justice and equality, Mahatma Phule and his associates established the “Satyashodhak Samaj“ (Society of seekers of truth) on September 24, 1873. So, statement 1 is correct.

•         Mahatma Jyotiba Phule was inspired by Thomas Paine’s book “The Rights of Man” to come to the conclusion that education was the only way to liberate and raise an oppressed minority. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

Indian institutions in QS World University Rankings

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/education/jnu-indias-top-university-iim-ahmedabad-among-worlds-top-25-for-management-studies-qs-rankings/article68050446.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Education, NEP, Rankings)

Context: Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), a the London-based higher education analytics firm comes up with QS World University Rankings every year

Why in news

  • IIM-Ahmedabad is among the top 25 institutions globally for business and management studies while IIM-Bangalore and IIM-Calcutta are among the top 50, according to the QS World University Rankings by Subject, announced on April 10.

Rankings

  • The 2024 QS World University Rankings by Subject provide independent comparative analysis on the performance of more than 16,400 individual university programmes, taken by students at more than 1,500 universities in 95 countries and territories, across 56 academic disciplines and five broad faculty areas (Arts and Humanities, Engineering and Technology, Life Sciences, Natural Sciences and Social Sciences).
  • India’s ranked entries and overall performance soared by 19 percent and 17 percent, respectively in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2024
  • Jawaharlal Nehru University is the highest-ranked university in India in the coveted rankings announced by Quacquarelli Symonds (QS)
  • The university is ranked at 20th position globally for development studies.
  • Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad is among the top 25 institutions around the globe for business and management studies with IIM-Bangalore and Calcutta in the top 50.
  • Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati has excelled particularly in Data Science, securing a global ranking of 51-70, and Petroleum Engineering, where it ranks 51-100 globally.
  • The Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences in Chennai is at 24th position globally for dentistry studies.

Asia

  • India secured the second spot in terms of the number of universities featured (69), trailing only mainland China (101), and holds the fourth position in the total number of ranked entries (454) after China (1,041), Japan (510) and South Korea (499).
  • India ranks fifth regionally for the number of top 200 entries and sixth for the number of top 100 entries.

Research centres in India

  • According to QS, India stands as one of the world’s most rapidly expanding research centres.
  • From 2017 to 2022, its research output surged by an impressive 54%, based on data from Scopus/Elsevier, QS’ bibliometric and research affiliate.
  • This increase is not only more than double the global average but also significantly exceeds the output of its more traditionally recognised Western peers.
  • In terms of volume, India is now the world’s fourth-largest producer of research, generating 1.3 million academic papers in this period, trailing only behind China’s 4.5 million, the United States’ 4.4 million, and slightly less than the United Kingdom’s 1.4 million
  • Given its current trajectory, India is on the brink of overtaking the United Kingdom in research productivity.

Research impact

  • However, in terms of research impact, measured by citation count, India ranks ninth globally for the 2017-2022 period.
  • While it is an impressive result, prioritising high-quality, impactful research and its dissemination within the academic community is the essential next step.
  • India’s performance in securing citations in premier global journals, is defined by CiteScore metrics.
  • Between 2017 and 2021, only 15 per cent of India’s research was cited in these top-tier journals.
  • This is starkly contrasted with its nearest competitors in research volume, the United Kingdom and Germany, which reported citation percentages in top journals at 38% and 33%, respectively.

Educational Challenge faced by India

  • One of the biggest challenges faced by India is providing high-quality tertiary education in the face of exploding demand.
  • This challenge was recognised by 2020’s NEP (National Education Policy), which set the ambitious target of a 50 per cent gross enrolment ratio by 2035.
  • While there is still a lot of work to be done to improve standards, access to higher education, universities’ digital readiness and global competitiveness, it is clear that India is taking significant steps in the right direction

Key Metrics

  • QS uses five key metrics to compile the subject rankings.
  • The precise weighting of each metric varies by subject to reflect differing publication cultures across disciplines.
  • For example, research performance, based on the analysis of the bibliometric database Scopus/Elsevier, is deemed to be a stronger indicator of institutional strength in Medicine, where the discipline is highly reliant on dissemination of research, than it is in Performing Arts, where the discipline is more vocational in nature

Evaluation of QS Ranking

  • Number of Indian programmes featuring across 55 subject rankings and five broad faculty areas has increased this year — from 355 to 454.
  • QS notes that several programmes at India’s three privately-run Institutes of Eminence have made progress this year, demonstrating the positive role that well-regulated private provision can have in enhancing India’s higher education sector.
  • In this year’s QS World University Rankings by Subject, India has demonstrated significant progress, with a 20% improvement in the Citations per Paper indicator, reflecting a strong research capability.
  • Additionally, there has been a 16% growth in the International Research Network indicator, which measures the volume and diversity or research partnerships.
  • However, there was a decrease of 5% in the H Index, which assesses the balance between research productivity and its impact.

 

Conclusion

  • Despite facing challenges such as enhancing research standards, educating the world’s largest school-age population, growing the economy and the labour market to match the rapidly increasing number of job seekers while securing a position of global competitiveness, India is undeniably becoming a formidable player the international academic community

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World University rankings 2024 released recently:

1.       Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), is US-based higher education analytics firm that has come up with QS World University Rankings 2024.

2.       Jawaharlal Nehru University is the highest-ranked university in India in development studies.

3.       Among Asian countries, Japan secured the top spot in terms of the number of universities featured in QS 2024 rankings.

4.       In terms of volume, India is now the world’s fourth-largest producer of research.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1, 2 and 3 only

B.      2, and 4 only

C.      2, 3, and 4 only

D.      All of the above

 

Q. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

A. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

B. World Economic Forum

C. World Bank

D. World Trade Organization (WTO)

 

Answer C

 

 

Answer 1 B

Explanation

·         Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), is a London-based higher education analytics firm comes up with QS World University Rankings every year. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

·         Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) has secured the top position among Indian universities in the prestigious rankings released by Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), the renowned higher education analytics firm based in London. Globally, the university has clinched 20th spot for its excellence in development studies. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         India secured the second spot in terms of the number of universities featured (69), trailing only mainland China (101), and holds the fourth position in the total number of ranked entries (454) after China (1,041), Japan (510) and South Korea (499). So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         In terms of volume, India is now the world’s fourth-largest producer of research, generating 1.3 million academic papers in this period, trailing only behind China’s 4.5 million, the United States’ 4.4 million, and slightly less than the United Kingdom’s 1.4 million. So, statement 4 is correct.

 

 

India to send new Defence Attachés in multiple missions in Africa

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-to-send-new-defence-attach%C3%A9s-in-multiple-missions-in-africa/article68051464.ece#:~:text=The%20move%20is%20being%20implemented,Sea%2DIndian%20Ocean%20and%20Eurasia&text=In%20a%20sign%20of%20expanding,time%2C%20sources%20here%20have%20confirmed.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International Relations, Geopolitics)

Context: As many as 16 Defence Attachés (DA) from the Indian Army, the Navy, and the Air Force will assume their new positions soon in Indian missions scattered across continents and regions.

Why in news

  • In a first, India will post defence attaches in several countries, with a focus on Africa, aimed at strengthening strategic ties and military diplomacy amid China’s increasing efforts to expand its influence in the African nations.

Defence or military attaches

  • Defence or military attaches are pivotal in various areas.
  • They serve in diplomatic missions abroad and play a crucial role in facilitating communication and cooperation between their home country’s military and the host country’s military.
  • They gather and analyse military intelligence, foster military-to-military relationships, facilitate arms sales and military cooperation agreements, and provide assessments on security matters to their respective governments.
  • Additionally, they often act as liaisons between military personnel and the diplomatic community, contributing to overall national security objectives and diplomatic initiatives.

Key Highlights

  • The move is part of a larger adjustment of the DA in Indian missions scattered across continents and regions and is being implemented as India deals with dynamic situations in Indo-Pacific, Red Sea-Indian Ocean and Eurasia.
  • In the meanwhile, a number of DA posted to Indian missions abroad underwent a three-day pre-deployment training programme at the Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service.
  • The readjustment in the post of DA in multiple regions is part of India’s evolving requirements that stretch from defence production and cooperation, to dealing with crisis situations that hinge on urgent mobilisation.
  • The crises in Gaza and Ukraine have both highlighted the need for finding a more effective management of the DA in East Europe and Eurasia and in the East African region that is crucial for guarding Indian interests in the Red Sea and the western Indian Ocean.
  • Continued attacks on western ships by the Houthi rebels of Yemen which has increased the necessity of maintaining a ready defence posture in and around the Red Sea-western Indian Ocean region for safeguarding Indian assets and manpower.

 

Africa reach

  • Over the past few years, India has established itself at the forefront, flagging concerns, challenges and aspirations of the Global South or the developing nations, especially the African continent.
  • India’s relationship with Africa saw an upward tick amid China’s consistent efforts to expand its influence in Africa.
  • The induction of the 55-nation African Union as a permanent member of the G20 was seen as a major milestone in India’s presidency of the grouping of the 20 big economies of the world last year.
  • Africa is expected to get four new DA. Out of that one DA is likely to be sent to the Francophone western Africa, and three others are expected to be sent to three countries in eastern and southeastern Africa.
  • Indian missions in countries such as Ivory Coast, Mozambique, Ethiopia, and Djibouti are being discussed as part of the process.

Djibouti

  • New Delhi is assigning a new defense attaché to the small African nation of Djibouti, which holds strategic significance as a major maritime hub connecting the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.
  • Djibouti is highly valued for military bases and is considered a prized location.
  • This will be the second defense attaché appointed to Djibouti.

India-French collaboration

  • The focus on Francophone Africa is a new development and indicates growing alignment between Indian and French strategic interests that was visible during French President Emmanuel Macron’s January visit when the two sides agreed on working together in ‘third countries’.
  • France has become a major supplier of military hardware for the Indian forces and the relation between the two sides is expected to remain strong because of high level political, military and strategic collaboration.

Europe

  • Indian embassy in Poland is scheduled to get a new DA.
  • At present the DA in the Indian embassy in the Czech Republic concurrently serves for the Indian mission in Warsaw.
  • Similar new appointments and changes in the post of DA are also expected to take place in the Indian missions in the United Kingdom and Russia.
  • In case of Russia, the number of attachés is expected to be reduced.
  • It is being done as part of “rationalisation” as several India-Russia defence projects have been completed, therefore, calling for adjustments in the Indian embassy in Moscow.

Asia

  • Philippines and Armenia will host Indian DA for the first time.
  • Philippines – The new role of the DA in the Indian embassy in Philippines has to be seen in the context of Manila’s interest in the Indian military hardware because of its dispute with Beijing over the South China Sea.
  • In January, the Philippines inked a deal worth $375 million with Brahmos Aerospace Pvt Ltd for the purchase of shore-based anti-ship variant of the Brahmos missile systems.
  • Armenia – Armenia has emerged as a new destination for Indian military hardware as Yerevan has purchased the PINAKA multi barrel rocket launchers (MBRLs), anti-tank missiles, rockets and anti-drone systems from India.
  • The Indian weapons supplied to Yerevan have to be seen in the context of Armenia-Azerbaijan conflict over Nagorno-Karabakh, and India’s cold relation with Azerbaijan that has often raised the Kashmir issue in the past.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements:

1.       Defence attaches serve in diplomatic missions abroad and play a crucial role in facilitating communication and cooperation between militaries.

2.       Malaysia and Azerbaijan are two Asian countries will host Indian Defence Attaches for the first-time as per recent news.

3.       India has recently appointed its first defense attaché to Djibouti keeping in views its strategic importance.

 

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      None

 

Q. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?(UPSC Prelims 2017)

A.      There is an independent judiciary in India.

B.      Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

C.      The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

D.      It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

 

Answer: D

 

Answer 3– B

Explanation –

·         Defence or military attaches are pivotal in various areas. They serve in diplomatic missions abroad and play a crucial role in facilitating communication and cooperation between their home country’s military and the host country’s military.  So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Philippines and Armenia will host Indian Defence or military attaches for the first time. The new role of the DA in the Indian embassy in Philippines has to be seen in the context of Manila’s interest in the Indian military hardware because of its dispute with Beijing over the South China Sea.

·         Armenia has emerged as a new destination for Indian military hardware as Yerevan has purchased the PINAKA multi barrel rocket launchers (MBRLs), anti-tank missiles, rockets and anti-drone systems from India.

·         So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         New Delhi is assigning a new defense attaché to the small African nation of Djibouti, which holds strategic significance as a major maritime hub connecting the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.

·         Djibouti is highly valued for military bases and is considered a prized location.

·         This will be the second defense attaché appointed to Djibouti. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

So, correct answer is option B.

 

 

EU parliament adopts stricter migration rules in landmark asylum reform

Source: Business Standard

https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/eu-parliament-adopts-stricter-migration-rules-in-landmark-asylum-reform-124041100052_1.html

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS-2 (International Organisations)

Context : The European Parliament approved a landmark overhaul of the European Union’s asylum and migration rules.

Why in news

  • European lawmakers endorsed the regulations and policies that make up the Pact on Migration and Asylum.

Key Highlights

  • The EU Migration and Asylum Pact , which has been in the works since 2015, will be implemented in two years.
  • It hopes to end years of division over how to manage the entry of thousands of people without authorisation, as it hardens border procedures and forces all the bloc’s 27 nations to share responsibility.
  • The European parliament’s main political groups overcame opposition from far-right and far-left parties to pass the new migration and asylum pact, a sweeping reform nearly a decade in the making, according to the report.
  • The reforms address the questions of who should take responsibility for migrants and asylum seekers when they arrive and whether other EU countries should be obliged to help.

Why the need of law

  • A plan to regulate the entry of migrants was drawn up after 1.3 million people, mostly those fleeing war in Syria and Iraq, sought refuge in Europe in 2015.
  • The EU’s asylum system collapsed, reception centres were overwhelmed in Greece and Italy, and countries further north built barriers to stop people from entering.

About the law

  • The legislation requires all EU member states to take some form of responsibility for managing asylum applications.
  • If an EU country does not want to accept people applying for asylum, then that member state must give alternative assistance, like financial contributions to a support fund.
  • Also, EU member states experiencing significant spikes in applications for asylum may call for the applicants to be distributed to other EU countries.
  • The reforms also propose faster processing at the borders with new procedures to establish status swiftly on arrival.
  • Migrants would find out within five days whether they could stay in Europe or have to leave with the help of a “screening” procedure on entry. This includes identity, security and health checks and fingerprinting.

Reactions

  • German Chancellor Olaf Scholz called the new rules a “historic, indispensable step” for the EU.
  • EU Home Affairs Commissioner Ylva Johansson said the bloc “will be able to better protect our external borders, the vulnerable and refugees, swiftly return those not eligible to stay” and introduce “mandatory solidarity” between member states.
  • However, outside the Brussels Parliament building, dozens of demonstrators protested against the vote, echoing criticism from more than 160 migrant charities and non-governmental organisations.

Controversy

  • The most controversial part of the package involves establishing border facilities in the EU to host asylum seekers and screen and quickly send back applicants found not to be ineligible.
  • The new rules include controversial measures: facial images and fingerprints could be taken from children aged six and people may be detained during screening.
  • Fast-track deportation could be used on those not permitted to stay.
  • Another contentious measure is sending asylum seekers to countries outside the EU that are deemed “safe” if a person has some ties to that country.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved EU Migration and Asylum Pact

Statement-II: It would help regulate the entry of migrants who sought refuge in Europe.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

C.      Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D.      Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

 

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:  Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade Technology Council’
Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

B.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

C.      Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D.      Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (C)

 

 

Answer 4 A

Explanation

·         After years of negotiations, the European Parliament has approved a major reform tightening the EU’s migration and asylum rules.

·         The EU Asylum and Migration Pact has been in the works since 2015. It will come into force in two years’ time.

·         It is designed to speed up the asylum process and boost the return of irregular migrants to home countries. So, Statement-I is correct.

·         A plan to regulate the entry of migrants was drawn up after 1.3 million people, mostly those fleeing war in Syria and Iraq, sought refuge in Europe in 2015.

·         The EU’s asylum system collapsed, reception centres were overwhelmed in Greece and Italy, and countries further north built barriers to stop people from entering. So, Statement-II is correct. Statement-II explains Statement-I, so correct answer is option A.

 

 

India raises sanctions over Russian diamonds with Europe

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/after-russian-oil-india-raises-sanctions-over-russian-diamonds-with-europe/article68051504.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (International Trade)

Context: G7 nations introduced an “import ban” on non-industrial diamonds mined, processed or produced in Russia

Why in news

  • New Delhi is concerned over Western ban on rough diamond imports from Russia, the world’s biggest diamond producer and the biggest source of raw material for India’s thriving polished diamond industry located in Surat.

Key Highlights

  • External Affairs Minister (EAM) S Jaishankar has raised concerns over the fallout of G7 ban on Russian diamond imports with Belgium.
  • Jaishankar met Theodora Gentzis, the Secretary-General of the Belgian Foreign Ministry in Delhi.
  • Faced with mounting losses and consignment delays due to new European Union-G7 sanctions, Indian diamond exporters are calling for a separate screening process to be set up in India.
  • G7 nations introduced an “import ban” on non-industrial diamonds mined, processed or produced in Russia as part of the 12th round of sanctions.
  • Since March, the G7 ban has been expanded to cover Russian-origin diamond imports from third countries, putting the Surat industry in a fix.
  • Nearly 90 percent of the world’s rough diamonds are polished and exported from Surat. The US has traditionally been the biggest market for diamonds polished in India.

 

Belgium and EU Ban

  • Belgium holds the EU’s rotating presidency until the end of June. Belgium is the global hub of polished diamonds.
  • The 27-member EU agreed to ban non-industrial Russian diamonds in December last year when it passed its 12th package of sanctions on Russia in response to its invasion of Ukraine in 2022.
  • A ban on direct imports of Russian diamonds began on Jan. 1 while the indirect ban will be phased in over a period of six months from March 1. The EU ban is in conjunction with the Group of Seven (G7) countries.
  • Rough and polished diamonds will have to enter the EU and G7 countries with documentary proof and declarations that the stones are not of Russian origin. From Sept. 1, a traceability mechanism will be added to the system.

 

About European Union

  • The presidency of the Council of the European Union is responsible for the functioning of the Council of the European Union, which is the co-legislator of the EU legislature alongside the European Parliament.
  • It rotates among the member states of the EU every six months. The presidency is not an individual, but rather the position is held by a national government.
  • From 1 January to 30 June 2024, it will be Belgium’s turn for the thirteenth time to hold the presidency of the Council of the European Union (EU).
  • The president of the European Commission is the head of the European Commission, the executive branch of the European Union (EU).
  • The post was established in 1958. Each new president is nominated by the European Council and elected by the European Parliament, for a five-year term.
  • In July 2019, the European Council nominated Ursula von der Leyen to succeed Jean-Claude Juncker, and she was elected the 13th president of the European Commission by the European Parliament on 16 July.
  • Roberta Metsola is a Maltese politician. She has been serving as president of the European Parliament since January 2022.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following pairs with regards to European Union:

 

  EU Post Person/ Country
1 Present Presidency of Council of European Union Germany
2 President of the European Commission Ursula von der Leyen
3 President of the European Parliament Roberta Metsola

 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

 

Answer: (A)

 

 

Answer 5 B

Explanation

·         The presidency of the Council of the European Union is responsible for the functioning of the Council of the European Union, which is the co-legislator of the EU legislature alongside the European Parliament.

·         It rotates among the member states of the EU every six months. The presidency is not an individual, but rather the position is held by a national government.

·         From 1 January to 30 June 2024, it will be Belgium’s turn for the thirteenth time to hold the presidency of the Council of the European Union (EU). So, first pair is incorrectly matched.

·         The president of the European Commission is the head of the European Commission, the executive branch of the European Union (EU).

·         In July 2019, the European Council nominated Ursula von der Leyen to succeed Jean-Claude Juncker, and she was elected the 13th president of the European Commission by the European Parliament on 16 July. So, second pair is correctly matched.

·         Roberta Metsola is a Maltese politician. She has been serving as president of the European Parliament since January 2022. So, third pair is correctly matched.

  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

NIIF invests $200 million in iBUS for expansion of digital infrastructure

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/niif-to-invest-200-million-in-ibus-for-expansion-of-digital-infra/article68051174.ece#:~:text=(NIIF)%20has%20invested%20%24200%20million,NIIF%20said%20in%20a%20statement.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Indian Economy, Digital Infrastructure)

Context: India’s digital infrastructure growth

Why in news

  • The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Ltd. (NIIF) has invested $200 million in iBUS Network and Infrastructure Pvt Ltd., a connectivity technology firm.

About iBUS

  • iBUS is strengthening its position in in-building solutions, outdoor small cells and managed Wi-Fi services while expanding its presence in emerging sectors (such as IoT solutions)
  • The funds will be deployed towards scaling iBUS’ operations through organic and inorganic growth initiatives.
  • Additionally, the investments will be directed towards developing new infrastructure solutions to address evolving market demands and technological advancements.
  • Following the completion of the transaction, NIIF will hold a significant majority stake in iBUS.

Digital Infrastructure

  • Digital infrastructure refers to the designated physical and software-based components working together to relay information and digital products and services from one point to another.
  • Some of the types used in the digital infrastructure industry include: Data centers. Networks and digital communication suits.
  • Digital infrastructure is critical to our country’s growth.

India’s approach to Digital Public Infrastructure

  • Successful DPIs in India include Aadhaar, Unified Payment Interface (UPI), and CoWin, which managed the world’s largest vaccination programme.
  • Others like Unified Health Interface (UHI), Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), and Open Network for Digital Commerce are in the rollout stage.
  • A comprehensive understanding of DPI requires recognition of its three integral layers: Market, governance, and technology standards.
  • The market layer consists of innovative and competitive players designing inclusive products.
  • The governance layer requires legal and institutional frameworks, along with public programmes to drive adoption, and specific overarching principles and policies.
  • Technology standards, including those for identity, payments, and data sharing, must be built or adapted to enable interoperability and the adoption of shared standards.
  • These layers collectively define the structure and functionality of DPI, reflecting the complexity and potential of this transformative concept.

Paths to the development of digital systems

  • Two paths to the development of digital systems are common: All government or all private.
  • The former may lead to quality and maintenance issues, while the latter may result in monopolies.
  • DPI creates a balance, identifying frameworks consisting of frequently required services and components efficiently managed by the public authority.
  • It develops open protocols, shared platforms, and enabling policies to create an interoperable ecosystem.
  • The DPI does not provide the complete solution but makes the job of solution providers easier by offering readymade components and services.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. A comprehensive understanding of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) requires recognition of which of the following integral layers?

1.       Market layer

2.       Governance layer

3.       Technology standards

Code:

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      1,2 and 3

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the “Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest-Act, 2002:

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C.      Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D.      Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: (D)

 

 

Answer 6– D

Explanation

  • A comprehensive understanding of DPI requires recognition of its three integral layers: Market, governance, and technology standards.
  • These layers collectively define the structure and functionality of DPI, reflecting the complexity and potential of this transformative concept.
  • Therefore, correct answer is option D.

 

 

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