Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (4-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Telangana: Megalithic Graves in Telangana |
| Telangana Startup policy in news |
| National: SC refers to Constitution Bench Kerala suit against Centre’s shackles on States’ borrowing powers |
| International: Zimbabwe declares drought disaster & Al-Nino effect |
| Economy: India to build first commercial crude oil strategic storage |
| Tamil Nadu Tops in Electronics Exports to the U.S. |
| India Employment Report (IER) 2024 |
| Science and Technology: Multi-institutional Team Tracks Virus Behind India’s Lumpy Skin Cattle Disease |
Megalithic Graves in Telangana
Source: The Indian Express
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Paper-II (History and Cultural Heritage of Telangana)
Context: Researchers under Kotha Telangana Charitha Brundam noted that Adraspalle village that had hundreds of megalithic graves now had only about 50 megalithic burials.
Why in news
A recent exploration by a team of history enthusiasts has brought to light the disappearance of several dozens of megalithic burials in a small village of Telangana, emphasizing the urgent need for their protection.
Key highlights
- The group under Kotha Telangana Charitha Brundam (KTCB) visited Adraspalle village in Medchal district, which had a significant number of megalithic graves when surveyed a decade ago. However, the convenor of KTCB, Sriramoju Haragopal, expressed disappointment over the disappearance of several dozens of burial stones, attributing this to expanding agriculture activities, real estate, and urbanization.
- The team recorded the presence of several graves dating back to the megalithic period, about 2000 years ago.
- They found burial tombs in circular patterns and menhirs (tombstones) of 12 to 14 feet in height.
- The team also discovered 18 marbles buried in a circle with slabs related to the grave visible in the middle, indicating a cist burial site, and menhirs in the vicinity suggested it to be a mass grave site.
Urgent Need for Protection
- The KTCB has urged the Department of Heritage, Telangana, to record and document these sites before they are lost forever.
- They emphasized the importance of conducting a survey, exploration, and excavation of the sites, and the need for thorough research and documentation in reports.
- According to Sriramoju Haragopal, the disappearance of megaliths is not limited to Adraspalle village but is happening across Telangana.
- He highlighted the writings of European researcher EH Hunt, who mentioned in 1925 about at least 10 lakh megalithic graves across Telangana, emphasizing the necessity for an official record of these sites.
Other Instances of Neglect
- This case in Adraspalle village is not an isolated incident.
- As per another source, as many as 20 megalithic burial sites in Nalgonda district and 10 burial sites in Mahabubnagar district listed under the Ancient and Historical Monuments Act have completely disappeared.
- The Archaeology and Museums Department did not list some intact burial sites under the protected monuments list.
- The situation is similar in other districts, with many megalithic burial sites in a state of disarray and some already vanished.
- Neglect, granite hunters, land encroachers, and infrastructure developers have been cited as contributing factors to the destruction of these heritage sites.
Efforts for Preservation
- Efforts by amateur history enthusiasts in Telangana have been ongoing to document and scientifically preserve local histories.
- The Kotha Telangana Charitra Brundam has been collaborating with rural communities to document various historical findings, including fossils, burial sites, hero stones, rock arts, inscriptions, and more.
- These efforts have shed light on the local history and the regions, emphasizing the importance of preserving these heritage sites.
About Megaliths
- A megalith is a large stone that has been used to construct a prehistoric structure or monument, either alone or together with other stones.
- Megaliths were constructed either as burial sites or commemorative (non-sepulchral) memorials.
- The former are sites with actual burial remains, such as dolmenoid cists (box-shaped stone burial chambers), cairn circles (stone circles with defined peripheries) and capstones.
- In India, archaeologists trace the majority of the megaliths to the Iron Age (1500 BC to 500 BC), though some sites precede the Iron Age, extending up to 2000 BC.
- Megaliths are spread across the Indian subcontinent. The majority of megalithic sites are found in Peninsular India, concentrated in the states of Maharashtra (mainly in Vidarbha), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
Different Types of Megalithic Structure?
- Stone Circles: Stone circles are commonly called “cromlechs” (a word in the Welsh language); the English word “cromlech” is sometimes used in that sense.
- Dolmen: A dolmen is a megalithic structure formed by placing a large capstone on two or more support stones, forming a chamber below, sometimes closed in on three sides. Often used as a tomb or burial chamber.
- Cist: Cist is a small stone-built coffin-like box or ossuary used to hold the bodies of the dead. Burials are megalithic forms very similar to dolmens in structure.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. What is a cromlech primarily used for?
A. A place of worship and tribal gatherings B. A burial chamber C. A small stone-built coffin-like box D. A dolmen or ancient underground tomb
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| Answer 1– A
Explanation · Cromlechs were primarily used as places of worship and tribal gatherings, often orientated along the rising or setting sun or moon at certain times of the year. · They were erected in the Neolithic and Bronze Age and were often around a tomb or place of worship. · After 1500 BC, their construction was stopped, possibly due to migration movements or the emergence of new religions. · Hence, option A is correct.
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Telangana Startup policy in news
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Paper-IV Economy and Development (Telangana Economy)
Context: T-Hub, Medtronic Forge Partnership to Assist Startups
Why in news
- Startup incubator T-Hub and Medtronic have announced a partnership under which the global healthcare technology firm, through Medtronic Engineering & Innovation Center (MEIC) in Hyderabad, will leverage its expertise and resources to assist health-tech startups.
Objectives and Initiatives
- MEIC, Medtronic’s largest research and development center outside the U.S., will foster industry collaborations and participate in events like CXO roundtables and innovation workshops to build thought leadership in health-tech R&D.
- T-Hub startups will receive mentorship, sponsorship, and expert guidance from MEIC. Additionally, MEIC employees will participate in tailored entrepreneurship workshops curated by T-Hub.
- Impact and Future Plans With more than 900 engineers, MEIC supports global business units of Medtronic by providing software engineering solutions and other engineering expertise, including in the areas of embedded and enterprise software, product security, and data engineering.
- The strategic partnership aims to empower health-tech startups in India, fostering a culture of innovation and driving sectoral growth.
What is a Startup?
- The term startup refers to a company in the first stages of operations.
- Startups are founded by one or more entrepreneurs who want to develop a product or service for which they believe there is demand.
- These companies generally start with high costs and limited revenue, which is why they look for capital from a variety of sources such as venture capitalists.
Startup in Telangana
- According to ‘States Startup Ranking 2022’, the state is among the toppers along with Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha and Jammu and Kashmir.
- In 2018, Telangana emerged as leader, in 2019 as aspiring leader.
- The rankings will be given in five categories Best performer, top performer, leaders, aspiring leaders and emerging startup ecosystems.
- Telangana improved its rankings and became the top performer in 2021.
- While neighbouring Andhra Pradesh has been recognised as a leader in developing a strong startup ecosystem category in 2022.
Initiatives by Telangana gov.
- The Telangana government has established Startup Telangana, which is the official portal for startups in the state.
- It has been seamlessly integrated with the national startup portal and has more than 6,500 startups registered on it.
- The TS government has supported 65+ unique women-led startups that have received support through various special incentives launched for women entrepreneurs.
- One of the main activities to encourage women entrepreneurs by the state is through a women-focused incubation centre called “WE Hub”, which is India’s first and only state-led incubator for women entrepreneurs.
Telangana Startup policy
- The state had launched an Innovation Policy in 2016 that aimed to boost innovation and entrepreneurship.
- Nodal Agency: Information Technology, Electronics & Communications Department
- 6521: DIPP Recognized Startups
- 3290 Women-Led Startups/Women Entrepreneurs
- Policy Intervention: The State may provide more incentives to women led startups.
- The State may reserve a specific quota for women-led startups in terms of funding grants and incubation support.
- The State may conduct department-specific awareness programs and design policies along with Government orders to encourage other departments to provide holistic support to startups.
- The other departments of the State may notify the important and recurring events from their departments on the Startup Telangana portal.
- This may encourage more participation and leverage the collaborated efforts towards elevating the entire ecosystem.
The policy provides support to startups in the form of:
- Al Startup Internship Program
- Opportunity for college students to work with Al Startups
- Support for Intellectual Property Rights
Status of Indian Startup Ecosystem:
- The number of recognized Startups has grown at 120% (CAGR) over the last 7 years and stands at over one lakh Startups as of October 2023.
- The coverage of Startups has increased sixfold in the last seven years with presence in close to 670+ districts across the country.
- Close to 50% of the recognized Startups are based out of Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. WE Hub”, is India’s first and only state-led incubator for women entrepreneurs. 2. Close to 50% of the recognized Startups are based out of Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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| Answer 2– C
Explanation · WE Hub, is a state-led incubator for women entrepreneurs set up by the Telangana government. · It supports women entrepreneurs with innovative ideas, solutions and entities focusing on emerging areas in technology and allied sectors. So, statement 1 is correct. · As of December 2023, around 50% of the more than 115,000 startups registered by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are based in tier-II and tier-III cities. The tech revolution in these cities is driving economic growth and global socioeconomic transformation. So, statement 2 is correct. · Therefore, option C is correct answer.
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SC refers to Constitution Bench Kerala suit against Centre’s shackles on States’ borrowing powers
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Central state relationship and financial issues and financial autonomy guaranteed by the Constitution)
Context: Extent of financial autonomy guaranteed by the Constitution to states and net borrowing ceiling” imposed by the Centre on the States
Why in news
- The Supreme Court refused to grant interim relief to Kerala, indicating that the balance of convenience lay in favor of the Union government.
Key highlights
- While acknowledging Kerala’s financial distress, the Court highlighted concerns about setting a precedent that might undermine fiscal policies.
- The Court also expressed disapproval of the condition imposed by the Centre for financial assistance, suggesting that it could set a bad precedent.
- Recognizing the complexity and constitutional implications of the dispute, the Court referred the matter to a five-judge Constitution Bench.
- Several legal questions, including the interpretation of Article 293, the scope of judicial review, and the inclusion of State-owned enterprises’ debt, are to be addressed by the larger Bench.
About Net borrowing ceiling (NBC)
- It sets a maximum limit on the amount a state can borrow from various sources, including open market borrowings.
- To determine this cap, the Union government has chosen to subtract liabilities stemming from the public account of the States.
- Moreover, borrowings by State-owned enterprises, where the repayment is facilitated either through the budget or by assigning taxes, cess, or any other State revenue, are also subtracted from the NBC.
Constitutional provision:
- Article 293 of the Constitution allows States to borrow exclusively within India’s borders, with guarantees from the consolidated fund of the respective State, and within limits set by the State legislatures.
- The topic of “Public Debt of the State” is listed under Entry 43 of the State List in the Constitution, meaning that Parliament lacks authority to legislate or govern in this domain.
- Should a State opt to borrow from the Central government, such transactions would be governed by the FRBM Act, 2023.
- Under Article 293 (3) of the India Constitution, state governments are required to take the Centre’s permission for fresh borrowing, if they are indebted to the Government of India.
- The NBC has been imposed by invoking the powers of the Centre under this provision.
Background of the Dispute
- Kerala alleges that the Union government’s imposition of Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC) has led to severe financial crises, hindering its ability to meet essential financial commitments such as salaries and pensions.
- Kerala claims that including the debt of State-owned enterprises in the NBC exacerbates its financial woes, as these enterprises are crucial for funding infrastructure projects.
Legal Arguments
- Kerala contends that its fiscal autonomy, guaranteed under Article 293 of the Constitution, is being violated by the imposition of borrowing restrictions.
- The State argues that fiscal matters, including public debt, fall under the exclusive domain of the State legislature, and the Union government’s interference through the NBC is unconstitutional.
Union Government’s Defense
- The Union government argues that borrowing limits are set based on recommendations from Finance Commissions and are aimed at maintaining fiscal discipline.
- It alleges that Kerala’s financial troubles are a result of its own fiscal mismanagement over the years, rather than actions by the Centre.
Implications of NBC
- NBC limits states’ borrowing capacity, diminishing their financial autonomy.
- Inclusion of KIIFB debts under NBC restricts funding for vital infrastructure projects in Kerala.
- States face challenges in financing pensions and welfare schemes due to borrowing restrictions imposed by NBC.
- Kerala views NBC as undermining state autonomy and altering India’s federal balance, raising concerns about fiscal federalism.
- Legal disputes between Kerala and the Centre over NBC highlight constitutional tensions regarding fiscal authority.
Challenges in Centre – State Relations
- Imbalance in Fiscal Autonomy: The imposition of borrowing restrictions and net borrowing ceilings by the Union government challenges the fiscal autonomy of states. This imbalance undermines the principles of federalism and limits states’ ability to manage their finances independently.
- Constitutional Ambiguity: Ambiguities in the interpretation of Article 293 of the Constitution regarding state borrowing create legal uncertainties and contribute to disputes between the Center and the states. Lack of clarity on states’ rights to borrow and the extent of regulation by the Union government complicates center-state relations.
- Inclusion of State-Owned Enterprises Debt: The inclusion of debt from state-owned enterprises in states’ borrowing limits exacerbates fiscal challenges. States argue against such inclusion, as it constrains their ability to undertake essential infrastructure projects and deliver public services, thereby affecting their development agenda.
- Financial Crisis and Dependency: States facing financial crises, such as Kerala, may become dependent on the Union government for financial assistance, leading to increased centralization of fiscal powers. This dependency undermines states’ fiscal sovereignty and their ability to address fiscal challenges independently, further straining center-state relations.
Way Forward
- Clarity in Legal Framework: There is a need for clarity in the legal framework governing center-state fiscal relations, particularly regarding Article 293 of the Constitution. Clear guidelines and interpretations can help mitigate disputes and foster greater cooperation between the Center and the states.
- Enhanced Consultation and Cooperation: The Union government should engage in meaningful consultations with states before imposing borrowing restrictions or making amendments to fiscal laws. Collaborative decision-making processes can promote consensus and address states’ concerns effectively.
- Balanced Fiscal Federalism: Efforts should be made to strike a balance between fiscal discipline and states’ autonomy. While fiscal responsibility is important, it should not come at the cost of states’ ability to address their developmental priorities and deliver essential services to citizens.
- Institutional Mechanisms: Establishing robust institutional mechanisms for resolving center-state fiscal disputes can facilitate timely resolution and prevent escalation. This may include setting up expert committees or tribunals to arbitrate on fiscal matters and provide recommendations for resolution.
- Empowerment of States: States should be empowered to manage their finances efficiently and effectively, with adequate support from the Union government where necessary. This includes providing states with the flexibility to borrow according to their needs while ensuring fiscal prudence and accountability.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. “Public Debt of the State” is listed under Entry 43 of the Concurrent List in the Constitution. 2. Article 293 allows the states to borrow outside the territory of India. 3. Net Borrowing Ceiling limits states’ borrowing capacity, diminishing their financial autonomy. How many of the above statements are incorrect? A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. None of the above
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Q. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passes by the (UPSC Prelims 2016)
A. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership B. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership C. Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership D. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting Answer: D
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| Ans 3 B
Explanation · “Public Debt of the State” is listed under Entry 43 of the State List in the Constitution, meaning that Parliament lacks authority to legislate or govern in this domain. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. · Article 293 of the Constitution allows States to borrow exclusively within India’s borders, with guarantees from the consolidated fund of the respective State, and within limits set by the State legislatures. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. · NBC limits states’ borrowing capacity, diminishing their financial autonomy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Zimbabwe declares drought disaster & Al-Nino effect
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS II (International Issues)
Context: The disaster declaration in Zimbabwe was widely expected following similar actions by neighbouring Zambia and Malawi, where drought linked to the El Nino weather phenomenon has scorched crops.
Why in news
- Zimbabwe declared a state of disaster on April 3 over a devastating drought that’s sweeping across much of southern Africa, with the country’s President saying it needs $2 billion for humanitarian assistance.
Key highlights
- The declaration was widely expected following similar actions by neighbouring Zambia and Malawi, where drought linked to the El Nino weather phenomenon has scorched crops, leaving millions of people in need of food assistance.
- “Due to the El Nino-induced drought … more than 80% of our country received below normal rainfall,” President Emmerson Mnangagwa said in a speech calling for international aid.
- The country’s top priority, he said, is “securing food for all Zimbabweans. No Zimbabwean must succumb to, or die from hunger”.
- He appealed to United Nations agencies, local businesses and faith organisations to contribute towards humanitarian assistance.
- In Zimbabwe, the United Nations’ World Food Programme has already rolled out a food assistance programme targeting the 2.7 million people, nearly 20% of the country’s population, from January to March.
- The first few months of the year are traditionally known as the “lean period”, when households run short as they wait for the new harvest.
- More than 60% of Zimbabwe’s 15 million people live in rural areas, growing the food they eat, and sometimes small surpluses that can be sold to cover expenses such as school fees.
- With relatively little participation in the cash economy, many of those won’t be able to buy food even when it’s available in markets.
Role of UN in this Context
- The United States Agency for International Development, the U.S. government’s foreign aid agency, has estimated through its Famine Early Warning Systems Network that 20 million people in southern Africa needed food relief between January and March.
- These needs could extend into early 2025 for many people in areas of highest concern such as Zimbabwe, southern Malawi, parts of Mozambique and southern Madagascar due to El Nino.
Current Crisis
- According to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP), February 2024 was the driest month in 40 years for Zambia and Zimbabwe, and raised concerns late last year that several nations in southern Africa were on the brink of a hunger crisis because of the effect of El Niño.
- Malawi, Mozambique, and parts of Angola had ‘excessive rainfall deficits’.
- Millions in southern Africa depend upon the food they grow to live on.
- Corn, the region’s staple food, has been badly tormented by the drought.
- The WFP said that there were already nearly 50 million people in southern and elements of relevant Africa dealing with food lack of confidence even before one of the driest spells in a decade hit.
Impact of El Nino on Global Weather
- It can appreciably affect weather patterns, ocean conditions, and marine fisheries worldwide.
- In 2016, the world noticed its hottest year on record because of a strong El Nino.
- It brought an intense drought for southern Africa, the area’s worst in 35 years in 2015-16.
- Meteorologists say that this El Niño, coupled with excess warming from climate change, will see the world grapple with record-high temperatures.
- According to a study posted within the journal Science, El Niño should lead to global financial losses of $3 trillion in 2024.
Impact on India
- In India, El Niño is often associated with weak monsoons and drought-like conditions.
- It can cause reduced rainfall, dry spells, and heatwaves, resulting in crop disasters and water scarcity.
- It is because of intense weather decimating agricultural production, manufacturing, and helping spread disease.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Zimbabwe:
1. Due to devastating drought, Zimbabwe has declared a state of disaster recently. 2. More than 60% of Zimbabwe’s population live in urban areas. 3. According to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP), February 2024 was the driest month in 40 years for Zambia and Zimbabwe. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1,2 and 3
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Q. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2017)
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: B
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| Answer 4– C
Explanation – · Zimbabwe declared a state of disaster on April 3 due to a devastating drought that is sweeping across much of southern Africa. · The drought is linked to the El Nino weather phenomenon and has scorched crops, leaving millions of people in need of food assistance. So, statement 1 is correct. · More than 60% of Zimbabwe’s 15 million people live in rural areas, growing the food they eat, and sometimes small surpluses that can be sold to cover expenses such as school fees. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · According to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP), February 2024 was the driest month in 40 years for Zambia and Zimbabwe, and raised concerns late last year that several nations in southern Africa were on the brink of a hunger crisis because of the effect of El Niño. So, statement 3 is correct. · President Emmerson Mnangagwa stated that more than 80% of the country received below normal rainfall, emphasizing the urgent need for international aid to address the situation. Therefore, correct answer is option C.
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India to build first commercial crude oil strategic storage
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS III ( India Economy and Energy resources and storage Initiative )
Context: India builds its first commercial crude oil strategic storage as part of efforts to strengthen its stockpiles and ensure a steady supply of oil in case of disruptions
Why in news
- India, the world’s third-largest oil consumer and importer, plans to build its first commercial crude oil strategic storage.
Key highlights
- Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL) invited bids for constructing a 2.5 million-tonne underground storage at Padur in Karnataka.
- The storage will be built under Phase-II of ISPRL’s project and will operate under a public-private partnership (PPP) model.
- India aims to use strategic reserves in emergency situations like supply disruptions or war, as it meets over 85% of its oil needs through imports.
Strategic petroleum reserves (SPRs):
- Strategic petroleum reserves (SPRs) are reserves of crude oil stored by nations.
- They serve to ensure a consistent supply of crude oil, especially during periods of geopolitical instability or disruptions in supply.
- These underground storage sites are vital for maintaining a reliable flow of energy resources essential for a nation’s progress and advancement.
- The Indian government, via the Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Ltd. (ISPRL), has established Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) at three sites under Phase–1. These sites include Vishakhapatnam with a capacity of 1.33 MMT, Mangaluru with a capacity of 1.50 MMT, and Padur with a capacity of 2.5 MMT, totaling 5.33 MMT.
- Three SPRs collectively have the capacity to fulfill roughly 9.5 days of the national oil demand.
- In addition to SPRs, India’s oil marketing companies (OMCs) possess storage facilities capable of accommodating crude oil and petroleum products for a duration of 64.5 days.
- This indicates that there is enough storage capacity to satisfy approximately 74 days of the country’s petroleum requirements.
Biggest Global Strategic Petroleum Reserves in the World:
- United States- 714 million barrels
- China- 475 million barrels
- Japan- 324 million barrels
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q5. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
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Q. The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of (UPSC Prelims 2020)
A. Crude oil B. Bullion C. Rare earth elements D. Uranium Ans: A
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| Answer 5 D
Explanation · Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL), a special purpose vehicle created by the government for building and operating strategic petroleum reserves in the country, has invited bids for constructing 2.5 million tonnes of underground storage at Padur in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
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Tamil Nadu Tops in Electronics Exports to the U.S.
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Manufacturing in India and Import Export)
Context: In the last two fiscal years, close to 40% of India’s smartphones were sent from just one district — Kancheepuram
Why in news
- Tamil Nadu, India’s largest exporter of electronic goods in FY23, accounted for 30% of all electronic goods exports from India in FY24.
Key highlights
- The state has emerged as a leader in this sector, surpassing states like Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka that previously dominated electronic goods exports.
- While the figures of other states have either dropped or become stagnant, Tamil Nadu’s numbers have consistently risen in recent years.
Surge in Smartphone Exports
- The surge in Tamil Nadu’s electronic goods exports can be attributed to the rise in exports of smartphones, which currently account for close to 40% of India’s electronics exports.
- In the last two fiscal years, close to 40% of smartphones in India were exported from just one district, Kancheepuram, located in the north-eastern part of Tamil Nadu.
- Most of these electronic goods, mainly dominated by mobile phones, were exported to the United States, followed by the United Arab Emirates and the Netherlands.
Impressive Growth in Exports
- Between April 2023 and January 2024, Tamil Nadu exported electronic goods worth more than $7.4 billion, which is close to four times its volume in FY22.
- This growth has propelled Tamil Nadu to become the top exporter of electronic goods in India, surpassing states like Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.
- In FY24, Tamil Nadu’s exports were higher than the combined exports of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.
- The other states in the top five list, Gujarat and Maharashtra, have experienced stagnation in their electronic goods exports.
Contribution to India’s Overall Exports
- The share of the electronic goods sector in India’s overall exports has more than doubled in recent years, mostly due to the rise in Tamil Nadu’s contribution.
- In FY24, electronic goods accounted for $25 billion of India’s total exports.
- This significant increase in exports has propelled Tamil Nadu to the top spot, surpassing other prominent states.
- In FY23, Tamil Nadu’s electronic exports nearly tripled to $5.37 billion from $1.86 billion in the previous year.
Biggest Markets for India’s Electronic Goods Exports
- The United States and the United Arab Emirates are the biggest markets for India’s electronic goods exports.
- In FY24, the U.S. imported close to 35% of India’s electronic goods exports, worth $8.7 billion.
- The UAE followed with imports worth $3 billion. The Netherlands and the U.K. also accounted for about 5% each of India’s electronic goods exports.
Conclusion
- In the latest two financial years (FY23 and FY24), the smartphones exported from Kancheepuram district in Tamil Nadu played a major part in boosting India’s exports of electronic goods, most of which went to the U.S. Tamil Nadu’s impressive growth in electronic goods exports has made it the top exporter in India, surpassing other states.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. Tamil Nadu in India is the largest importer of smartphones from USA. 2. In FY24, Tamil Nadu’s electronic exports were higher than the combined exports of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2010)
1. Development of infrastructure facilities. 2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. 3. Promotion of exports of services only. Which of the above are the objectives of this Act? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: A |
| Answer 6 A
Explanation · Tamil Nadu, was India’s largest exporter of electronic goods in FY23, and accounted for 30% of all electronic goods exports from India in FY24. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · Tamil Nadu has emerged as a leader in electronic goods sector, surpassing states like Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka that previously dominated electronic goods exports. · The surge in Tamil Nadu’s electronic goods exports can be attributed to the rise in exports of smartphones, which currently account for close to 40% of India’s electronics exports. so, statement 2 is correct. · Therefore, option A is correct answer.
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India Employment Report (IER) 2024
Source: The Hindu
https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Urban population and poverty scenario)
Context: An analysis of income and employment trends of slum dwellers points to the prospects of economic mobility and decent work for the poor in urban India
Why in news
- The India Employment Report (IER) 2024 by the Institute for Human Development and International Labour Organization poses questions on the trickle-down effect of benefits to the working class in the backdrop of a 5.4% average real economic growth, from 2015-16 to 2022-23.
Key highlights
- The India Employment Report (IER) 2024 shows a divergent trend between rural and urban areas in terms of employment and income.
- It demonstrates a relatively higher unemployment rate in urban areas, at 4.8% in 2000 over the 1.5% in rural areas.
- However, average monthly earnings are higher by 76% for self-employed, 44% for regular employed and 22% for casual labour in urban areas in 2022.
- The coexistence of higher unemployment and wages requires further investigation to understand its implications for the urban poor.
- The higher income in urban areas and a better life have prompted rural-urban migration in the past.
- As in the IER 2024, although overall migration has increased, the migration of males has declined by 1.2% during 2000-08, and further marginally in 2021.
- This implies that migration for economic mobility is losing its sheen. Rural poor households migrate to slums instead of formal settlements.
- Hence, an analysis of income and employment trends of slum dwellers would reveal the prospects of economic mobility and decent work for the poor in urban India.
International Labour Organization
- The International Labour Organization is a United Nations agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice by setting international labour standards.
- Founded in October 1919 under the League of Nations, it is one of the first and oldest specialised agencies of the UN.
- The ILO has 187 member states: 186 out of 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands.
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, with around 40 field offices around the world.
- In 1969, the ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize for improving fraternity and peace among nations, pursuing decent work and justice for workers, and providing technical assistance to other developing nations.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Employment Report 2024 highlights a divergent trend between rural and urban areas in terms of employment and income. 2. International Labour Organization was founded after the end of second world war. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
A. Poverty rates vary from State to State B. Price levels vary from State to State C. Gross State Product varies from State to State D. Quality of public distribution varies from State to State Answer: B
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| Answer 7– A
Explanation · The India Employment Report (IER) 2024 by the Institute for Human Development and International Labour Organization poses questions on the trickle-down effect of benefits to the working class in the backdrop of a 5.4% average real economic growth, from 2015-16 to 2022-23. · It demonstrates a relatively higher unemployment rate in urban areas, at 4.8% in 2000 over the 1.5% in rural areas. · However, average monthly earnings are higher by 76% for self-employed, 44% for regular employed and 22% for casual labour in urban areas in 2022. So, statement 1 is correct. · The International Labour Organization is a United Nations agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice by setting international labour standards. · Founded in October 1919 under the League of Nations, it is one of the first and oldest specialised agencies of the UN. · So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option A is correct answer.
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Multi-institutional Team Tracks Virus Behind India’s Lumpy Skin Cattle Disease
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Science and Technology)
Context: A viral infection caused by the Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV), it is transmitted by insects like flies and mosquitoes.
Why in news
- In May 2022, a devastating outbreak of lumpy skin disease (LSD) in cattle began in India, leading to the loss of approximately 1,00,000 cows.
Lumpy Skin Disease and Its Impact
- Lumpy outbreak prompted a multi-institutional team, including researchers from the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), to investigate the cause of the outbreak and provide critical insights into the evolution and origins of the virus strains fueling it.
- Lumpy Skin Disease is an infectious viral disease of cattle.
Causative Agent:
- It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family).
- LSDV is not a zoonotic virus, meaning the disease cannot spread to humans.
- Geographical distribution: LSD is currently endemic in most of Africa, parts of the Middle East, and Turkey.
- Since 2015, the disease has spread to most of the Balkan countries, the Caucasus, and the Russian Federation.
- Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported by countries in Asia (Bangladesh, India, China, Chinese Taipei, Vietnam, Bhutan, Hong Kong (SAR-RPC), Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand).
Transmission:
It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks.
- Infected animals shed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs.
- Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water.
Symptoms:
- LSD affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal, causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like lumps on the skin, which is where it derives its name from.
- The cutaneous nodules, 2–5 cm in diameter, appear on the infected cattle’s head, neck, limbs, udder, genitalia, and perineum.
- The nodules may later turn into ulcers and eventually develop scabs over the skin.
- The other symptoms include high fever, a sharp drop in milk yield, discharge from the eyes and nose, salivation, loss of appetite, depression, damaged hides, emaciation (thinness or weakness) of animals, infertility, and abortions.
Genetic Analysis and Findings
- The team collected samples from infected cattle in various states, including Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Karnataka, and performed advanced whole-genome sequencing of DNA extracted from 22 samples.
- Their genomic analysis revealed two distinct LSDV variants circulating in India, one with a low number of genetic variations and another with a high number of genetic variations.
- The sequence with fewer variations was genetically similar to strains from previous outbreaks, while the samples with high variations were similar to LSDV strains from an outbreak in Russia in 2015.
- The team found a large number of genetic variations in viral genes critical for binding to host cells, evading the immune response, and replicating efficiently.
- These variations likely enhanced the virus’s ability to cause disease. The presence of highly diverse strains was associated with cattle developing more severe symptoms, suggesting that the genetic variations could elevate virulence.
Implications and Future Research
- Insights gained from this study can pave the way for improved diagnostics, vaccines, and interventions to combat emerging infectious diseases that threaten livestock and livelihoods.
- The genomic data obtained from this research will be invaluable for vaccine development by revealing molecular hotspots and genetic variations to target.
- This study represents an example of the “One Health” approach, where multidisciplinary teams come together to address issues of national relevance.
- The collaboration between veterinary experts and multiple scientific institutions was critical to tracing the variants across the country.
- The team learned a great deal from the field knowledge of veterinary doctors, which was essential for their research.
Conclusion
- The research conducted by the multi-institutional team, including the Indian Institute of Science, has provided crucial insights into the genetic makeup of the virus responsible for the lumpy skin disease outbreak in India, offering valuable information for the development of effective interventions and control measures.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q8. Consider the following statement with reference to Lumpy Skin Disease:
1. Lumpy Skin Disease is an infectious bacterial disease of cattle. 2. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) estimates that its mortality rate is more than 50%. 3. LSD is primarily spread between animals through the bite of vectors. 4. The first reported outbreak of LSD occurred in Zambia in 1929. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. All of these
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Q. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to (UPSC Prelims 2013)
1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area 2. Tolerate extremes of PH 3. Resist disease infestation Select the correct solution using the codes given below: A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D
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| Answer 8– A
Explanation
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