Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (2-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Telangana: Telangana Government Decides Against Signing Power Deal with NTPC |
| Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. Achieves Coal Mining Target in 2023-24 |
| Economy: Geographical Indication (GI tags) |
| Defence: India’s FY24 Defence Exports Jump to a Record Rs 21,083 Crore |
| International: Bulgaria, Romania take first steps into Europe’s visa-free Schengen zone |
| Science and Technology: World’s most powerful laser |
| Team led by PRL Ahmedabad finds ozone on Jupiter’s moon Callisto |
| Environment and Ecology: Russia war is weakening scientists’ ability to track the climate |
Telangana Government Decides Against Signing Power Deal with NTPC
Source: The New Indian Express
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 and 3 (State government policies and Energy Resources)
Context: Telangana Government is charting a course towards green energy alternatives
Why in news
- In a significant move aimed at protecting consumers from escalating power costs, the Telangana government has opted not to sign the power purchase agreement (PPA) with NTPC for the Ramagundam Phase-2 project.
Key highlights
- The decision comes amidst projections of power costs reaching Rs 8 to Rs 9 per unit, a burden deemed unsustainable for consumers.
- Instead, the government is charting a course towards green energy alternatives such as solar, hydel, and wind power, expected to offer more cost-effective solutions compared to NTPC-generated power.
Blame Game Ensues Over Delayed Agreement
- The decision not to sign the PPA has sparked a blame game between the current Congress-led state government and its predecessor.
- The Congress government has pointed fingers at the previous BRS government for the decade-long delay in signing the agreement, attributing it to a potential rise in construction costs.
About NTPC
- NTPC Limited, formerly known as National Thermal Power Corporation, is an Indian central Public Sector Undertaking.
- NTPC is under the ownership of the Ministry of Power and the Government of India, and is the largest electric power generating power company.
- The headquarters of the PSU are situated at New Delhi.
- In May 2010, NTPC was conferred Maharatna status by the Union Government of India.
- It is ranked 433th in the Forbes Global 2000 for 2023.
NTPC Deadline Looms Over State Government
- With NTPC urging prompt action, warning of potential allocation of Phase-2 power to other southern states, pressure mounts on the Telangana government.
- Former Chief Minister K Chandrasekhar Rao counters, asserting the responsibility lies with the incumbent government to finalize the agreement.
Implications of Delay and Future Plans
- Despite potential construction delays, the state braces for a significant hike in power costs upon Phase-2 completion, surpassing open market rates. Concerns loom over the burden on consumers with a 25-year PPA.
- In response, the government is exploring alternative energy sources and considering a new energy policy focused on renewables.
New Energy Policy and Sustainable Initiatives
- The proposed energy policy aims to address the state’s power requirements until 2032, emphasizing renewable energy generation.
- Plans include leveraging solar power during daylight hours, setting up solar units across government buildings, and exploring hydel power options in Himachal Pradesh.
Draft Policy and Stakeholder Engagement
- The state government plans to introduce the draft energy policy post-Lok Sabha polls, incorporating inputs from stakeholders.
- The policy shift is motivated by the cost escalation of thermal power plants and underscores a commitment to sustainable, cost-effective energy solutions.
Green Focus and Future Prospect
- The government’s emphasis on green energy signifies a strategic shift towards sustainable development, aiming to reduce reliance on conventional power sources.
- Initiatives such as solar power utilization and hydel power projects reflect a forward-looking approach towards meeting the state’s energy needs while mitigating environmental impact.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regards to National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)?
A. NTPC is under the ownership of the Union Ministry of Power. B. NTPC is the largest electric power generating power company of the country. C. In May 2010, NTPC was conferred Maharatna status D. All are correct.
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| Answer 1– D
Explanation · NTPC Limited, formerly known as National Thermal Power Corporation, is an Indian central Public Sector Undertaking. NTPC is under the ownership of the Ministry of Power, Government of India. So, statement A is correct. · NTPC Limited is India’s largest integrated power utility and the largest electric power generating company in the country. · It has a total installed capacity of 75,958 MW, including JVs, and contributes 25% of the country’s total electricity demand. So, statement B is correct. · In May 2010, NTPC was conferred Maharatna status by the Union Government of India. · It is ranked 433th in the Forbes Global 2000 for 2023. · As of October 2021, there are 13 Maharatnas, 14 Navratnas and 72 Miniratnas (divided into Category 1 and Category 2). · So, statement C is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option D. |
Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. Achieves Coal Mining Target in 2023-24
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC syllabus Relevance: State mineral resources
Context: Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. Achieves Coal Mining Target in 2023-24 by producing 70.02 million tonnes (MT) of coal against the target of 70 MT.
Why in news
- The Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. (SCCL) has achieved the coal production target in the just concluded 2023-24 financial year for the first time in recent years, particularly after the COVID-19 pandemic.
Key Highlights
- Despite the coal production slipping below the monthly target in May, September, and December 2023, and in January 2024, the company was able to achieve the target.
- The company was able to reach only 67.14 MT production in 2022-23 when the target was the same at 70 MT.
- The annual coal despatch touched 69.86 million tonnes, whereas, 420.32 lakh cubic meters of overburden were removed during the fiscal.
Future Targets and Expansion Plans
- The company management has reportedly fixed a target of 72 million tonnes for the financial year 2024-25.
- According to officials, the company would have surpassed the 70 million tonnes target easily if it managed to start production in Naini coal block situated in Odisha.
- The company anticipated to increase production by 6 million tonnes from its Naini coal block, 3 million tonnes each from KV opencast in Kothagudem area and Ramagundam opencast, 1 million tonnes from JK opencast in Yellandu area, and 0.4 million tonnes from Goleti opencast in Bellampally area, as well as 0.4 million tonnes from Goleti opencast in Bellampally area.
Revenue and Financial Performance
- Meanwhile, Singareni’s revenue is likely to touch Rs.37,000 crore during the financial year, a 12 percent increase compared to the last financial year (2022-23), which saw a revenue generation of Rs.33,000 crore.
- Out of the Rs.37,000 crore, the company would be earning Rs.32,500 crore through the sale of coal and Rs.4,500 crore through the sale of electricity generated by the Singareni thermal power station.
About Singareni Coal Mines
- The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) is a Government coal mining company jointly owned by the Government of Telangana and Government of India on a 51:49 equity basis.
- SCCL is currently operating 20 opencast and 24 underground mines in 4 districts of Telangana with a manpower around43,895.
- The Singareni coal reserves stretch across 350 Km of the Pranahita Godavari Valley of Telangana with a proven geological reserve aggregating to whopping 8791 million tonnes.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Singareni Coal Mines?
1. The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) is a jointly owned by the Government of India and Government of Telangana on a 51:49 equity basis. 2. The Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. (SCCL) has achieved the coal production target in the 2023-24 financial year for the first time in recent years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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| Answer 2– A
Explanation · The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) is a Government coal mining company jointly owned by the Government of Telangana and Government of India on a 51:49 equity basis. · SCCL is currently operating 20 opencast and 24 underground mines in 4 districts of Telangana with a manpower around43,895. So, statement 1 is correct. · The Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. (SCCL) has achieved the coal production target in the just concluded 2023-24 financial year for the first time in recent years, particularly after the COVID-19 pandemic. · The company has produced 70.02 million tonnes (MT) of coal against the target of 70 MT. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option A.
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Geographical Indication (GI tags)
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs), GS – 2 (Government Policies & Interventions)
Context: More States are filing applications to get a GI tag for some of their traditional and historic products.
Why in news
- Over 60 products from across India, including the famous Banaras Thandai, have been given the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Key highlights
- This is the first time such a large number of GI tags have been given at a go.
- More States were coming forward and filing applications to get a GI tag for some of their traditional and historic products.
- Six traditional crafts from Assam -Asharikandi terracotta craft, Pani Meteka craft, Sarthebari metal craft, Jaapi (bamboo headgear of rural Assam), Mishing handloom products, and the Bihu dhol — have bagged the GI tag.
- The famous Banaras Thandai also got the tag.
- The Tripura region secured two tags – one for the Pachra-Rignai, which is a traditional dress worn on special occasions, and the other for the Matabari Peda, a sweet preparation.
- Meghalaya Garo Textile’ weaving, which is linked to socio-cultural and religious rituals, and the ‘Meghalaya Lyrnai Pottery’ and ‘Meghalaya Chubitchi’, have also secured GI tags.
- Till date, around 635 products in India have been given the GI tag.
- The first GI tag in the country was given two decades ago to the famous Darjeeling tea.
About GI Tag
- A Geographical Indication (GI tag) is a sign used on products with a specific geographical origin, possessing unique qualities or reputation due to that origin.
- It serves as an intellectual property right (IPR), attributing a product’s quality, reputation, or other characteristic to its geographical origin.
- GIs are recognized as an aspect of IPRs under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property and the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
- Eligibility criteria: Any trader’s group, association, or organization can apply for a GI tag. They must demonstrate the product’s uniqueness with historical records and a detailed production process.
International Conventions on GI Tags
- Paris Convention: The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883) provides a multilateral framework for the protection of industrial property rights, including geographical indications.
- Lisbon System: The Lisbon Agreement for the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their International Registration (1958) establishes an international registration system for appellations of origin, a specific type of GI.
- Madrid System: The Madrid System for the International Registration of Marks, while primarily focused on trademarks, can also be utilised for the protection of geographical indications through the registration of collective or certification marks.
GI Tag in India
- The Geographical Indication Registry, a division of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry’s Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade (DIPIT), is responsible for issuing GI tags, further safeguarding these unique products and their geographical origins.
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
- The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 is the main law in India that oversees the registration and protection of geographical indications.
The Act’s key provisions include
- The establishment of the Geographical Indications Registry, which is responsible for processing and registering GI applications.
- The criteria for registering a GI, include the association between the product and its geographical origin, and the reputation or quality attributable to that origin.
- The duration of protection is initially 10 years but can be renewed indefinitely.
- Provisions for enforcing GI rights, including civil and criminal penalties for infringement.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Geographical Indication (GI) Tags in India:
1. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 oversees the registration and protection of geographical indications in India. 2. The Geographical Indication Registry, is a division of the Union Ministry of Culture. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma 3. Tirupathi Laddu Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: C
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| Ans 3 A
Explanation
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India’s FY24 Defence Exports Jump to a Record Rs 21,083 Crore
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS-3 ( India Defence policies and arms production in India )
Context: Defence exports have grown by 31 times over the past 10 years, compared to FY 2013-14
Why in news
- India’s defence exports have reached a record high of Rs 21,083 crore (approximately USD 2.63 billion) in the Financial Year (FY) 2023-24, marking a growth of 32.5% compared to the previous fiscal year.
Contribution of Private Sector and DPSUs
- The defence industry, including both the private sector and Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs), has played a crucial role in achieving this milestone. Private sector companies contributed approximately 60% of the total defence exports, while DPSUs accounted for around 40%.
Increase in Export Authorizations
- In addition to the surge in defence exports, there has been a notable rise in the number of export authorizations issued to defence exporters during FY 2023-24.
- The number of export authorizations increased from 1,414 in FY 2022-23 to 1,507 in FY 2023-24.
Growth in Defence Exports Over Two Decades
- Comparing data from two decades, from 2004-05 to 2013-14 and 2014-15 to 2023-24, reveals a remarkable growth of 21 times in defence exports.
- Total defence exports during the period from 2004-05 to 2013-14 amounted to Rs 4,312 crore, which has now risen to Rs 88,319 crore in the period from 2014-15 to 2023-24.
Major Achievements and Deals
- India’s defence exports have achieved several significant milestones in recent years. In January 2022, India and the Philippines signed a deal worth $375 million for the supply of shore-based anti-ship variants of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
- Deliveries for these missiles began in January 2022.
- Furthermore, the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), a state-owned company, reported its highest-ever revenue from operations and double-digit growth in the previous financial year.
- India has also exported weapon systems, including missiles, rockets, drones, artillery systems, and explosives, to close to 100 nations, including Armenia and the Philippines.
Benefits of India’s Defence Exports
India’s defence exports bring several benefits to the country:
- Economic: Defence exports contribute to earning foreign currencies and reducing the import of defence products.
- Integration with Global Defence Supply Chain: Collaboration with countries like the USA and France strengthens India’s integration into the global defence supply chain.
- Strategic Interdependence: Defence exports create dependencies for maintenance, repair, and future upgrades, linking India technologically with partner nations.
- Enhanced Military Cooperation: Selling defence equipment fosters compatibility, facilitates joint operations, interoperability, and broadens military collaboration opportunities.
- Geopolitical Influence and Diplomatic Leverage: Defence ties influence the geopolitical stance of partner countries, enhancing India’s strategic position and diplomatic relations.
- Self-Reliance: Focusing on indigenization strengthens India’s defence sector, mitigates vulnerabilities associated with foreign imports, and bolsters its role as a key Indo-Pacific power.
Government Support and Policies
- Innovation for Defence Excellence (IDEX): This initiative has fostered the growth of hundreds of startups in the defence sector.
- Defence Production & Export Promotion Policy (DPEPP): This policy aims to create an environment that encourages research and development and promotes a self-reliant defence industry.
- Positive Indigenization List: The government has created a list of 411 major weapon platforms and systems with an embargo on their import from defined timelines.
- Defence Exports Steering Committee: This committee plays a significant role in coordinating and promoting the export of defence products from India.
- Infrastructure and Innovation: The government provides grants of Line of Credit to other countries, engages with the private sector and startups, and offers export facilitation measures, financial support, and promotional support.
Sipri report 2024 and India
- According to the latest data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India was the world’s leading arms importer for the period 2019-2023. India’s arms imports saw a 4.7% increase compared to the period from 2014 to 2018.
- Russia is still India’s main arms supplier, making up 36% of imports.
- However, it’s the first time since 1960-1964 that Russia’s deliveries comprised less than half of India’s arms imports in a five-year period.
- After Russia, France (33%) stands as India’s second-largest arms supplier, while the US (13%) ranks as the third-largest provider of weapons to India.
About SIPRI
- The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) (founded in 1966; HQ: Solna (Sweden)), is an Independent international institute and global think tank, that provides data, analysis, and recommendations on armed conflict, military spending, arms trade, disarmament, and arms control.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. According to recent data India’s defence imports have reached a record high of Rs 21,083 crore. 2. According to Sipri report India accounted for an 11 percent share of total global arms exports in 2018–22. 3. India was the biggest arms export market to three countries — Russia, France, and Israel as per recent reports. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (UPSC Prelims 2018)
A. An Israeli radar system B. India’s indigenous anti – missile programme C. An American anti -missile system D. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea Ans: C
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| Answer 4– A
Explanation – · India’s defence exports have reached a record high of Rs 21,083 crore (approximately USD 2.63 billion) in the Financial Year (FY) 2023-24, marking a growth of 32.5% compared to the previous fiscal year. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · According to Sipri report India remained the world’s largest arms importer for the five-year period between 2018-22. · India accounted for an 11 percent share of total global arms imports in 2018–22. · Russia accounted for 45% is India’s imports, followed by France (29%) and the US (11%). So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Russia was the largest supplier of arms to India in both 2013–17 and 2018–22, but its share of total Indian arms imports fell from 64% to 45%. · India has seen an 11 percent drop in its arms import between 2013-17 and 2018-22. · India was the biggest arms export market to three countries — Russia, France, and Israel and the second largest export market to South Korea. So, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option A is correct answer. |
Bulgaria, Romania take first steps into Europe’s visa-free Schengen zone
Source: The Economic times
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International issues and its global Impact)
Context: Bulgaria and Romania became the newest Member States to join the Schengen area as of 31 March 2024, any person crossing the internal air and sea borders will no longer be subject to checks.
Why in News
- Bulgaria and Romania have finally entered Europe’s expansive Schengen area, marking a significant moment in their 13-year journey towards greater integration.
Key highlights
- With Bulgaria and Romania joining, the Schengen zone now includes 29 members, including various European Union states, Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein.
- This recent move by Bulgaria and Romania, facilitates seamless air and sea travel, eliminating the need for border checks within the Schengen zone.
- However, a veto by Austria has limited this status solely to air and sea routes, citing concerns over potential asylum seekers.
- Romania plans to implement Schengen rules at four sea ports and 17 airports, with Otopeni airport near Bucharest serving as a key hub.
- However, challenges remain, particularly concerning border security and combating illegal migration.
- Both countries are committed to full integration into Schengen by year-end, though Austria’s concession thus far only extends to air and sea routes.
- Croatia, having joined the EU after Bulgaria and Romania, preceded them in becoming Schengen’s 27th member in January 2023.
- Road transport unions, such as Romania’s UNTRR, advocate for urgent measures to address these issues, emphasizing the significant economic toll faced by hauliers.
- Despite these challenges, both Bucharest and Sofia affirm their commitment to irreversible progress.
About Schengen Area
- The border-free Schengen Area guarantees free movement to more than 425 million EU citizens, along with non-EU nationals living in the EU or visiting the EU as tourists, exchange students or for business purposes (anyone legally present in the EU).
- Free movement of persons enables every EU citizen to travel, work and live in an EU country without special formalities.
- Schengen underpins this freedom by enabling citizens to move around the Schengen Area without being subject to border checks.
- Recently, the Schengen Area encompasses most EU countries, except for Cyprus and Ireland.
- Nevertheless, a unanimous decision on the lifting of checks on persons at the internal land borders is still expected to be taken by the Council at a later date.
- Additionally, the non-EU States Iceland, Norway, Switzerland and Liechtenstein also have joined the Schengen Area.
Freedom and security for travellers
- The Schengen provisions abolish checks at EU’s internal borders, while providing a single set of rules for controls at the external borders applicable to those who enter the Schengen area for a short period of time (up to 90 days).
The Schengen area relies on common rules covering in particular the following areas:
- Crossing the EU external borders, including the types of visa needed, harmonisation of the conditions of entry and of the rules on short stay visas (up to 90 days),
- cross-border police cooperation (including rights of cross-border surveillance and hot pursuit),
- stronger judicial cooperation through a faster extradition system and the transfer of enforcement of criminal judgments.
Proposal to reform the Schengen Borders Code
- The proposal to amend the Schengen Borders Code, submitted by the Commission on 14 December 2021, has three main objectives:
- to offer solutions to ensure that internal border checks remain a measure of last resort and to provide flexibility to Member States’ use of alternative and proportionate measures to the challenges they address
- to build on lessons-learned from the COVID-19 pandemic
- to respond to the recent challenges at EU’s external borders
- The proposal to amend the Schengen Borders Code is both the result of extensive consultations with Member States, as well as a response to the latest developments at EU’s external borders.
- Interinstitutional negotiations between the European Parliament, the Council and the Commission started on 7 November 2023.
Criteria for countries to join the Schengen Area
- Joining the Schengen Area is not merely a political decision of the joining State.
Countries must fulfil a list of pre-conditions:
- apply the common set of Schengen rules (the so-called “Schengen acquis”), e.g. regarding controls of land, sea and air borders (airports), issuing of visas, police cooperation and protection of personal data.
- Take responsibility for controlling the external borders on behalf of other Schengen countries and for issuing uniform Schengen visas.
- Efficiently cooperate with law enforcement agencies in other Schengen countries, to maintain a high level of security, once border controls between Schengen countries are abolished.
Conclusion
- As Bulgaria and Romania take this significant step forward, the path towards a more unified Europe continues, albeit with hurdles yet to overcome.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Which of the following statements best describes the Schengen Area?
A. It is an economic union within the European Union. B. It is a border-free area allowing free movement of people between participating countries. C. It is a trade agreement focused on reducing tariffs between member states. D. It is a political alliance aimed at strengthening defense cooperation |
Q. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Regions often Reason for being in news mentioned in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Ans: D
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| Answer 5 B
Explanation · The Schengen Area allows for free movement of people between participating countries, enabling citizens to move around without being subject to border checks. · Bulgaria and Romania became the newest Member States to join the Schengen Area as of 31 March 2024, allowing for free movement without checks at internal air and sea borders. · So, correct answer is option B.
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World’s most powerful laser
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology)
Context: World’s most powerful laser points to uncharted arenas
Why in News
- European Union’s Infrastructure ELI project, located in Romania is the world’s most powerful laser, which promises revolutionary advances in everything from the health sector to space.
Key Highlights
- The laser at the centre, near the Romanian capital Bucharest, is operated by French company Thales, using Nobel prize-winning inventions.
- France’s Gerard Mourou and Donna Strickland of Canada won the 2018 Nobel Physics Prize for harnessing the power of lasers for advanced precision instruments.
- The sharp beams of laser light have given new opportunities for deepening knowledge about the world and shaping it.
- Possible applications include treating nuclear waste by reducing the duration of its radioactivity, or cleaning up the debris accumulating out in space.
Extreme Light Infrastructure (ELI) Project
- ELI is an international laser user facility open to the global scientific community, representing the first ESFRI Landmark in newer EU Member States.
- ELI aims to study extreme light-matter interactions at unprecedented intensities and time scales, contributing to pan-European research efforts.
- Three high-power, high-repetition-rate laser facilities have been established in Czech Republic (ELI Beamlines), Hungary (ELI-ALPS), and Romania (ELI-NP) through this investment.
- The three ELI pillars will be managed by the European Research Infrastructure Consortium (ERIC), involving governance and funding aspects.
- ELI ERIC’s Founding Members include the Host Countries (the Czech Republic and Hungary), Italy (a supporter since ELI’s preparatory phase), and Lithuania (noted for its contributions to laser physics).
- Germany and Bulgaria are participating as Founding Observers, with the prospect of future membership.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements with regards to Extreme Light Infrastructure (ELI) Project:
1. The Extreme Light Infrastructure (ELI) is a research organization that houses the world’s largest collection of high-power lasers. 2. The ELI laser facility is located near Texas, US and is operated by US government. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Which type of printers are Laser printers and Inkjet printers? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
A. 3D Printers B. LED Printers C. Non-Impact Printers D. Impact Printers Answer: C
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| Answer 6 B
Explanation · The Extreme Light Infrastructure is a research organization with the world’s largest collection of high power-lasers. ELI operates several high-power, high-repetition-rate laser systems which enable the research of physical, chemical, materials, and medical sciences. So, statement 1 is correct. · The ELI laser facility is located near Bucharest, Romania, and is operated by the French company Thales, leveraging inventions that won the 2018 Nobel Prize. So, Statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option B is correct answer.
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Team led by PRL Ahmedabad finds ozone on Jupiter’s moon Callisto
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology)
Context: Recent findings could help us to understand the precise mechanisms that led to the formation of Jupiter and its moons, which remain topics of active research.
Why in news
- An international team of scientists, including from India, has discovered strong evidence indicating the presence of ozone on Jupiter’s moon Callisto.
Key Highlights
- Scientists led by R. Ramachandran, of the Atomic, Molecular, and Optical Physics Division, Physical Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad, set out to investigate the chemical evolution of sulphur dioxide ice under irradiation, leading to the formation of ozone.
- The experiments were conducted at the National Synchrotron Radiation Research Centre (NSRRC) in Taiwan, which provided access to high-energy radiation sources required to recreate the radiation coming from the Sun.
- The study was published in the March 2024 issue of the journal Icarus. It outlines the researchers’ investigation into the chemical evolution of “SO2 astrochemical ice”, which is ice primarily composed of sulphur dioxide (SO2) in the presence of ultraviolet irradiation.
- This shed light on the chemical processes and composition on the surface of Callisto.
- By analysing the data of the UV absorption spectra of the irradiated ice samples, the team was able to identify a distinct signature indicating the formation of ozone.
- They corroborated their findings by comparing them with data from the Hubble Space Telescope to understand Callisto’s environment and the potential habitability of icy moons in the Solar System.
Ozone
- The ozone molecule is composed of three oxygen atoms bonded together.
- The ozone layer, found in the lower part of the earth’s stratosphere, around 15-35 km above ground, serves as a shield.
- Without the ozone layer, ultraviolet radiation levels would be much higher on the planet’s surface, rendering it uninhabitable for many species and disrupting entire ecosystems.
- Ultraviolet radiation in particular is harmful to many species (but also useful to some others).
- Two of its components, called ultraviolet-B and ultraviolet-C, of wavelengths 290-320 nanometres and 100-280 nanometres respectively, can damage DNA, trigger mutations, and increase the risk of skin cancer and cataracts in humans.
- Ultraviolet light has also been known to inhibit plant growth and have detrimental effects on various organisms.
- This is why the ozone layer is a crucial part of the earth’s atmosphere: it completely absorbs ultraviolet-B and ultraviolet-C radiation.
Callisto
- Jupiter has 95 moons that have been officially recognized by the International Astronomical Union. Jupiter’s four largest moons were the first moons discovered beyond Earth. They are called the Galilean satellites after Italian astronomer Galileo Galilei, who is credited with their discovery in 1610.
- After Saturn, Jupiter has the most moons in the Solar System. Callisto is one of Jupiter’s largest moons and the third-largest moon in the Solar System after Ganymede and Titan.
- Callisto is primarily composed of water ice, rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and some organic compounds.
- These substances make the moon a potential candidate for supporting life in the Solar System beyond the earth.
- Callisto’s surface is heavily cratered, indicating a long history of being struck by asteroids and comets.
- The presence of relatively few geological features suggests Callisto’s surface is geologically inactive.
- The detection of sulphur dioxide on Callisto’s surface has encouraged this team of scientists to conduct spectroscopic observations to gain a better understanding of the moon’s surface composition and formation.
Significance of the research
- The discovery of ozone on Callisto suggests the presence of oxygen, which in turn is a fundamental ingredient required for the formation of complex molecules required for life (as we know it), such as amino acids, raising questions about the moon’s habitability.
- This extends to other icy moons in our Solar System, potentially informing our understanding of habitable conditions beyond Earth.
- In addition to the ozone, the researchers observed an unidentified band in the absorption spectrum – similar to that observed on Ganymede in 1996 – hinting at a common molecular source in their surface compositions or chemical processes.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. Callisto is the largest moon of the solar system. 2. Ozone layer found in the earth’s atmosphere absorbs ultraviolet-B and ultraviolet-C radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 and 4 only C. 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 Answer: (B) |
| Answer 7– B
Explanation · Jupiter has 95 moons that have been officially recognized by the International Astronomical Union. Jupiter’s four largest moons were the first moons discovered beyond Earth. They are called the Galilean satellites after Italian astronomer Galileo Galilei, who is credited with their discovery in 1610. · Ganymede is Jupiter’s largest moon, and the largest moon in our solar system. It’s even bigger than Mercury, and Pluto. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · The ozone layer is a thin part of Earth’s atmosphere that absorbs almost all of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet light. Ozone layer is a crucial part of the earth’s atmosphere: it completely absorbs ultraviolet-B and ultraviolet-C radiation. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option A |
Russia’s War Is Weakening Scientists’ Ability to Track the Climate
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Climate change reasons behind human activities)
Context: Human activities are warming the Earth, and Russia-Ukraine war is now obstructing precise climate change measurements.
Why in news
- The Arctic is heating up nearly four times faster than the global average, which could lead to severe consequences such as melting permafrost and rising sea levels, impacting ecosystems and the climate worldwide.
How the Russia-Ukraine War Impacts Climate Tracking
- Arctic research deteriorated due to Russia’s invasion of Ukraine.
- Russia, which comprises nearly half of the Arctic region, has become inaccessible to foreign scientists.
- This situation has disrupted the work of the International Network for Terrestrial Research and Monitoring in the Arctic (INTERACT), hindering comprehensive climate studies due to the lack of data flow from Russian territories.
- Researchers utilized earth-system models (ESMs) to study Arctic ecosystem conditions, focusing on eight key variables such as temperature, vegetation, precipitation, and snow depth.
- Excluding Russian data from Arctic climate studies, particularly from Siberia, has significantly increased biases in understanding the Arctic’s ecosystem changes.
- INTERACT stations, generally located in regions not fully representative of the Arctic’s diversity, miss crucial data from colder, drier, and carbon-rich areas of Siberia.
- This exclusion has led to predictions that underestimate the ecosystem variables’ changes, equating to an 80-year advance in climate change impacts.
International Network for Terrestrial Research and Monitoring in the Arctic (INTERACT)
- INTERACT is an infrastructure project under the auspices of SCANNET, an arctic network of 74 terrestrial field bases (with an additional 21 research stations in Russia on pause) in northern Europe, the US, Canada, Greenland, Iceland, the Faroe Islands, and Scotland as well as stations in northern alpine areas.
- The project aims to enhance research and monitoring capabilities across the Arctic via the Transnational Access Program, supported by EU funding.
- Its primary goal is to enable the identification, understanding, prediction, and response to environmental changes in the Arctic, a region with limited observing capacity due to its vastness and sparse population.
- INTERACT is multidisciplinary, supporting thousands of scientists globally in fields like glaciology, permafrost, climate, ecology, biodiversity, and biogeochemical cycling.
- Besides research, INTERACT stations support international networks in single disciplines and contribute to education by hosting summer schools.
Conclusion
- These findings highlight the detrimental impact of the Russia-Ukraine war on climate tracking efforts in the Arctic.
- The exclusion of Russian data from climate studies has led to biases and underestimations in understanding the changes in the Arctic ecosystem.
- As the Arctic continues to warm at an alarming rate, it is crucial to ensure comprehensive and accurate monitoring to address the challenges posed by climate change.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q8. What is the primary goal of the INTERACT project?
A. To promote tourism in the Arctic region B. To establish permanent settlements in the Arctic C. To enhance research and monitoring capabilities across the Arctic D. To exploit natural resources in the Arctic for economic gain.
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Q. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways : (UPSC Prelims 2011)
1. Soil formation 2. Prevention of soil erosion 3. Recycling of waste 4. Pollination of crops Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D
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| Answer 8– C
Explanation · The primary goal of the INTERACT project is to enhance research and monitoring capabilities across the Arctic, enabling the identification, understanding, prediction, and response to environmental changes in the region. · INTERACT is an infrastructure project under the auspices of SCANNET, an arctic network of 74 terrestrial field bases (with an additional 21 research stations in Russia on pause) in northern Europe, the US, Canada, Greenland, Iceland, the Faroe Islands and Scotland as well as stations in northern alpine areas. · The project aims to enhance research and monitoring capabilities across the Arctic via the Transnational Access Program, supported by EU funding. · Its primary goal is to enable the identification, understanding, prediction, and response to environmental changes in the Arctic, a region with limited observing capacity due to its vastness and sparse population. · Therefore, option C is correct answer.
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