CARE 13th December 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – Care (13-12-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: EU states agree ‘historic’ full Schengen accession for Bulgaria, Romania
Times magazine names Donald Trump as ‘Person of the Year’ for 2024
Environment and Ecology: Pollution kills 1.5 million a year, no Indian lives in WHO standard air, says study
Science and Technology: ISRO’s CE20 cryogenic engine passes critical test featuring restart enabling system
Polity and Governance: Union Cabinet gives approval for Bills on simultaneous polls
Disaster Management: Lok Sabha passes Bill to amend the Disaster Management Act

EU states agree ‘historic’ full Schengen accession for Bulgaria, Romania

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/eu-states-agree-historic-full-schengen-accession-for-bulgaria-romania/article68977820.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: Bulgaria and Romania’s Full Schengen Membership

Why in News

Bulgaria and Romania will join the Schengen Area as full members enabling free movement across land, air, and sea borders.

Overview

  • Bulgaria and Romania joined the European Union (EU) in 2007 but had to wait for over 13 years to gain full membership in the Schengen Area.
  • Schengen is a borderless travel zone allowing free movement across member states without internal border checks.
  • Despite fulfilling technical criteria set by the EU in 2010, the two countries faced political and diplomatic challenges in gaining unanimous approval from existing Schengen members.
  • The delay stemmed from concerns raised by some member states, particularly Austria, about migration issues and the need for stronger external border protections.

Recent Developments: Breakthrough Agreement

  • On December 12, 2024, EU member states approved Bulgaria and Romania’s full membership in the Schengen Area, set to take effect on January 1, 2025.
  • This decision was made possible after Austria withdrew its objections earlier in the week, following the signing of a “border protection package” agreement in Budapest. This agreement included:
  • Joint deployment of border guards to the Bulgarian-Turkish border, ensuring stricter external border management.
  • Temporary land border controls for an initial period of six months to address migration concerns.

This compromise addressed Austria’s concerns about undocumented immigrants and allowed for a unanimous decision among Schengen members.

Importance of the Schengen Membership

Bulgaria and Romania are already partially integrated into the Schengen zone. Since March 2024, air and sea travel between these countries and other Schengen states has been free of border checks.

However, land border checks remained in place, limiting the benefits of full Schengen membership. With this decision:

  • Border checks at land routes will be eliminated, facilitating seamless travel and trade.
  • Citizens and businesses in Bulgaria and Romania will enjoy the full benefits of Schengen membership, enhancing economic activity and cross-border cooperation.
Statements from Leaders
  • Hungarian Interior Minister Sandor Pinter, representing Hungary’s EU presidency, hailed the decision as a “historic moment” for Bulgaria and Romania.
  • Romanian President Klaus Iohannis emphasized that this move was a “recognition of our years-long efforts” and reaffirmed Romania’s commitment to safeguarding the EU’s external borders.
  • Bulgaria and Romania issued a joint statement describing the decision as a “historic milestone”, underlining its importance in achieving their long-standing objective of full EU integration.
The Schengen Area: Key Facts
  • Established in 1985, the Schengen zone enables free movement of people across its member states by removing internal border controls.
  • It currently includes 29 members, comprising 25 EU nations and four non-EU countries (Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein).
  • The zone allows over 400 million people to travel freely, making it the world’s largest borderless travel area.
Challenges and Future Implications
  • While the inclusion of Bulgaria and Romania strengthens EU unity and economic integration, it also highlights ongoing challenges in managing migration.
  • Austria’s initial resistance underscores the concerns of several member states regarding the security of the EU’s external borders.
  • The “border protection package” agreed upon by Bulgaria, Romania, and Austria sets an important precedent for balancing freedom of movement with migration management.
  • This collaborative approach may serve as a model for future expansions or reforms of the Schengen zone.
Conclusion
  • The inclusion of Bulgaria and Romania as full Schengen members is a landmark achievement for the two nations, symbolizing their progress and commitment to European values.
  • This development not only enhances the connectivity and security of the EU but also strengthens its position as a unified bloc.
  • For Bulgaria and Romania, it represents a step closer to full integration into the European community, bringing tangible benefits for their citizens and economies.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Bulgaria and Romania’s full membership in the Schengen Area?

1.  Bulgaria and Romania joined the European Union in 2007 but were delayed in gaining full Schengen membership due to concerns over external border security.

2.  The Schengen Area allows free movement of people without internal border checks across all European Union member states.

3.  Austria initially opposed Bulgaria and Romania’s membership but agreed after signing a “border protection package” agreement in Budapest.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.  Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? 2022

  • A It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
  • B China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
  • C A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
  • D Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Ans: B

Answer – 1 – B

Explanation –

  • Statement 1 is correct: Bulgaria and Romania joined the EU in 2007 but faced delays due to concerns over border security.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Schengen Area includes 29 members but does not cover all EU member states (e.g., Ireland is not a member).
  •  Statement 3 is correct: Austria dropped its opposition after signing a “border protection package” agreement in Budapest.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Times magazine names Donald Trump as ‘Person of the Year’ for 2024

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/coastal-shipping-bill-introduced-in-lok-sabha-amid-din/article68938025.ece

UPSC Relevance:   GS2 International Relations

Context: Donald Trump’s Developments and Indian Implications

Why in News

The developments surrounding Donald Trump, including his legal challenges, political resurgence, and recognition, have notable global and Indian implications.

Legal History and Political Comeback
  • Trump faced a legal conviction in Manhattan, making him the first former U.S. President convicted of a crime.
  • Despite this, he made a dramatic political comeback by securing a second term in the White House.
  • Indian Implications:
    • The political stability of the U.S. is critical for global markets, including India. Trump’s return to power may influence bilateral relations, particularly in trade and defense partnerships.
    • Any changes in U.S. immigration policies under his administration could impact Indian professionals and students, given India’s significant diaspora in the U.S.
Recognition as TIME’s Person of the Year
  • Trump was named TIME magazine’s Person of the Year for his influence on global news and politics, marking his ability to shape the narrative and policy debates.
  • Indian Implications:
    • His influence on global issues, such as climate change, trade, and international security, could affect India’s stance in multilateral negotiations.
    • Trump’s recognition reflects a shift in global leadership dynamics, highlighting the importance of strong political narratives, which could inspire Indian leaders in their international engagements.
Economic Impact and Stock Market Influence
  • Trump’s victory led to significant rallies in U.S. stock markets, with indices such as the S&P 500, Dow Jones, and Nasdaq reaching record highs. His economic policies, including tax cuts and deregulation, were well-received by the business community.
  • Indian Implications:
    • U.S. market growth can indirectly benefit India through increased investments and confidence in global markets. The Indian IT sector, which relies heavily on U.S. clients, may see opportunities for expansion.
    • However, his protectionist policies, such as tariffs, could impact Indian exporters, particularly in sectors like steel, textiles, and automobiles.
Controversial Policies
  • Trump pledged to pardon individuals convicted in connection with the U.S. Capitol riots and proposed ending birthright citizenship, a controversial move with potential legal challenges.
  • Indian Implications:
    • Restrictive immigration policies, if implemented, could affect Indian families and professionals seeking opportunities in the U.S.
    • Such policies could also increase the focus on India as an alternative hub for global talent and innovation, as companies diversify their operations.
Ties to New York and the NYSE Opening Bell
  • Trump’s ceremonial ringing of the NYSE opening bell symbolized his alignment with the business and financial sectors, showcasing his influence in shaping economic narratives.
  • Indian Implications:
    • As the U.S. financial markets remain a benchmark for global economic health, their stability directly impacts Indian markets, influencing foreign institutional investments (FIIs) and stock market trends.
    • A robust U.S.-India economic partnership could benefit Indian startups and technology firms, given Trump’s focus on business-centric policies.
Business-Focused Administration
  • Trump’s administration is expected to prioritize economic growth, with policies favoring the business sector, such as corporate tax cuts and deregulation. However, his protectionist stance could lead to trade conflicts.
  • Indian Implications:
    • Indian companies with operations in the U.S. could benefit from lower taxes and relaxed regulations, fostering growth and employment opportunities.
    • On the other hand, increased tariffs on imports could harm Indian exporters, necessitating diversification of export destinations.
Influence on Global Leadership Dynamics
  • Trump’s ability to rebuild his political influence after setbacks highlights the evolving nature of leadership in democracies. His populist strategies resonate with voters’ economic anxieties and aspirations.
  • Indian Implications:
    • The focus on economic nationalism and voter engagement through targeted campaigns could inspire Indian political leaders in their electoral strategies.
    • India-U.S. relations could see shifts depending on the alignment of priorities, particularly in areas like climate change, defense, and trade.
TIME Magazine: Overview and Significance
  • TIME Magazine is a globally renowned weekly news publication based in the United States.
  • It is recognized for its in-depth reporting, influential cover stories, and annual lists, which highlight key personalities, events, and trends shaping the world.
  • Since its inception, TIME has played a pivotal role in chronicling history, culture, and global affairs.
  • Founded: 1923 by Briton Hadden and Henry Luce in New York City.
  • Objective: To provide concise, well-researched news summaries that cater to a global audience.
  • Legacy: TIME is considered one of the most trusted sources for news and analysis worldwide.
  • Iconic Cover Stories: TIME’s covers are known for spotlighting significant figures and moments, often shaping public opinion.
  • Annual Features
    • Person of the Year: Since 1927, TIME has selected an individual or group who had the most significant impact (positive or negative) on global events.
    • TIME 100: An annual list of the 100 most influential people globally, categorized into leaders, artists, innovators, and pioneers.
    • TIME 100 Next: A list focused on rising stars across various fields.
    • Best Inventions: Recognizing groundbreaking innovations.
Conclusion
  • Donald Trump’s return to power and continued influence have significant implications for India, especially in areas of trade, immigration, and bilateral relations.
  • While his business-centric policies and market impact may create opportunities for collaboration, his protectionist stance and controversial policies could pose challenges.
  • India must navigate these dynamics strategically to safeguard its economic and geopolitical interests.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2 With reference to TIME Magazine, consider the following statements:

1.  TIME Magazine was founded in 1923 by Briton Hadden and Henry Luce.

2.  The magazine’s “Person of the Year” feature recognizes only individuals who have made positive contributions to global events.

3.  TIME regularly includes Indian personalities in its annual lists like TIME 100 and Person of the Year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.   Kim Dae-Jung won the Nobel Prize for Peace. He is from which one of the following countries? (2008)

(a) Vietnam

(b) Combodia

(c) South Korea

(d) Japan

Ans. (c)

 

 

Answer 2– B

Explanation –

  • Statement 1: Correct. TIME Magazine was founded in 1923 by Briton Hadden and Henry Luce.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect. The Person of the Year feature recognizes individuals or groups who had the most influence on global events, whether positive or negative.
  • Statement 3: Correct. Indian personalities frequently feature in TIME’s annual lists, such as Mahatma Gandhi, Sundar Pichai, and Priyanka Chopra.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Pollution kills 1.5 million a year, no Indian lives in WHO standard air, says study

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/pollution-kills-1-5-million-a-year-no-indian-lives-in-who-standard-air-says-study-9721991/

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Lancet Planet Health Study on Air Pollution in India

Why in News

A Lancet study shows air pollution in India causes 1.5 million deaths annually, with most areas exceeding both national and WHO air quality standards.

Overview of the Booker Prize and Recent Winner

  • A recent study published in Lancet Planet Health has revealed alarming insights into the severe health impacts of air pollution in India.
  • The study specifically highlights the dangers of PM2.5 (fine particulate matter) pollution and its significant association with premature mortality.
Key Findings of the Study
  1. No Area in India Meets WHO’s Recommended PM2.5 Levels
  • The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends an annual average PM2.5 level of 5 µg/m³.
  • The study found that no region in India adheres to these guidelines, exposing the entire population to unsafe air quality.
  1. High Mortality Due to PM2.5 Pollution
  • PM2.5 is associated with 1.5 million deaths annually in India.
  • Even if air pollution were reduced to India’s National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) of 40 µg/m³, there would still be 0.3 million deaths annually.
  1. Widespread Non-Compliance with NAAQS
  • 81.9% of the Indian population lives in areas where PM2.5 levels exceed the NAAQS standard of 40 µg/m³.
  1. Geographic Variability in Pollution Levels
  • The lowest levels of PM2.5 were recorded in Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh at 11.2 µg/m³ (2019).
  • The highest levels were observed in Ghaziabad and Delhi, reaching 119 µg/m³ in 2016.
  1. Every 10 µg/m³ Increase in PM2.5 Raises Health Risks
  • An increase of 10 µg/m³ in PM2.5 levels raises the risk of death from any cause by 8.6%.
Health Impacts of PM2.5 Pollution

PM2.5 particles are fine enough to penetrate deep into the lungs and even enter the bloodstream, causing:

  1. Respiratory Issues:
    • Chronic bronchitis, asthma, and other respiratory diseases.
  2. Cardiovascular Diseases:
    • Increased risk of heart attacks, strokes, and high blood pressure.
  3. Developmental Delays in Children:
    • Cognitive impairment and delayed growth in children.
  4. Overall Mortality:
    • Premature deaths attributed to long-term exposure.
Sources of PM2.5 Pollution in India
  • Construction Activities: Dust and debris from urban construction.
  • Vehicular Emissions: Exhaust from diesel and petrol vehicles.
  • Crop Residue Burning: Seasonal agricultural fires in states like Punjab and Haryana.
  • Industrial Pollution: Emissions from factories and power plants.
Recommendations from the Study
  1. Reducing Air Pollution to NAAQS Levels
  • Lowering PM2.5 to NAAQS standards could reduce deaths significantly, although the number would still remain high.
  1. Achieving WHO’s PM2.5 Guidelines
  • A more ambitious goal of reducing PM2.5 to 5 µg/m³ would lead to much greater health benefits and prevent a substantial number of deaths.
  1. Identifying Pollution Sources
  • Proactive measures must focus on pinpointing and mitigating pollution sources like vehicular emissions, construction dust, and crop burning.
  1. Public Health Awareness
  • Educating the population about the health risks of air pollution and the importance of cleaner air.
Comparative Perspective
  • The study’s estimates of 1.5 million deaths are higher than the Global Burden of Disease report’s previous estimate of 1.1 million deaths. This difference may be due to:
    1. A growing population.
    2. Improved methodology, including satellite and ground station data.
Policy Implications for India
  • Air Quality Monitoring: Enhance the network of air quality monitoring stations for real-time data.
  • Stringent Regulations: Enforce stricter emission standards for industries and vehicles.
  • Promotion of Clean Energy: Transition from fossil fuels to renewable energy sources.
  • Urban Planning: Develop green spaces and reduce construction-related pollution.
Conclusion
  • The Lancet Planet Health study underscores the urgent need for India to address its air pollution crisis.
  • Air quality improvement is not just an environmental issue but a public health imperative.
  • By focusing on both national standards (NAAQS) and global benchmarks (WHO guidelines), India can mitigate the devastating health and mortality impacts of air pollution, ensuring a healthier future for its population.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. According to a study published in Lancet Planet Health, what is the primary health impact of air pollution in India?

A) Air pollution leads to 1.5 million deaths annually, with the majority of the population exposed to PM2.5 levels exceeding national and WHO standards.
B) Air pollution has a negligible impact on public health, with no significant increase in mortality rates.
C) Air pollution mainly affects respiratory health and causes developmental delays in children only.
D) The study finds that air pollution contributes to less than 100,000 deaths annually in India.

 

Q.  In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 2022

  1. The 24-hour mean of should not exceed and annual mean of should not exceed
  2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
  3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
  4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements, given above are correct?

A 1, 3 and 4 only

B 1 and 4 only

C 2, 3 and 4 only

D 1 and 2 only

Ans: B

 

Answer 3– A

Explanation –

  • The study published in Lancet Planet Health reveals that air pollution, particularly the high levels of PM2.5 (particulate matter smaller than 2.5 micrometers), is responsible for approximately 1.5 million deaths annually in India. The research highlighted that a vast majority of the Indian population (81.9%) lives in areas where the air quality does not meet even the country’s National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) of 40 µg/m³ of PM2.5. This is much higher than the World Health Organization’s (WHO) recommended level of 5 µg/m³. The study suggests that even if air quality were to meet the NAAQS, it would still result in 0.3 million deaths due to long-term exposure to pollution.
  • The health impacts of air pollution, including respiratory issues, increased risk of heart attacks, strokes, and developmental delays in children, were also highlighted in the study. Therefore, option A accurately reflects the main findings of the study.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

ISRO’s CE20 cryogenic engine passes critical test featuring restart enabling system

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/isros-ce20-cryogenic-engine-passes-critical-test-featuring-restart-enabling-system-9721272/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3- Science and Technology

Context: ISRO’s CE20 Cryogenic Engine Test

Why in News

ISRO successfully tested its CE20 cryogenic engine, marking a key milestone for future space missions, including the Gaganyaan manned mission.

Background:

  • ISRO has made significant progress in its space missions with the successful sea level hot test of the CE20 Cryogenic Engine, marking an important milestone for future projects, including the Gaganyaan manned mission.
  • The test was carried out at the ISRO Propulsion Complex in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu, on November 29.
What is Cryogenic Engine?
  • A cryogenic engine uses ultra-low temperature fuels, typically liquid oxygen (LOX) and liquid hydrogen (LH2), to achieve high efficiency and thrust in space exploration.
  • These engines are primarily used in the upper stages of rockets, such as ISRO’s CE20, which powers the LVM-3 rocket and will be used for India’s Gaganyaan
  • Cryogenic engines are known for their high specific impulse, offering more thrust per unit of fuel.
  • However, they require sophisticated storage and handling due to the extreme cold temperatures.
Cryogenic Engine and Its Importance:

The CE20 Cryogenic Engine is an indigenous development by ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre. It powers the upper stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM-3), which is crucial for carrying heavier payloads into space, including those for the Gaganyaan mission.

  • Thrust and Capability: The engine has been designed to provide a thrust of up to 19 tonnes, and it has already powered six LVM-3 missions. Recently, it has been upgraded to work at higher thrust levels: 20 tonnes for the Gaganyaan mission and up to 22 tonnes for future upgrades to the LVM-3 vehicle. This improvement enhances the payload capability of the vehicle, which is essential for more ambitious missions, including crewed space travel.
Challenges in Testing the CE20 Engine:

Testing cryogenic engines like CE20 at sea level presents unique difficulties. A key challenge lies in the nozzle area ratio, which is 100 for this engine. The nozzle area ratio affects the engine’s efficiency, and at sea level, it creates significant challenges related to the exit pressure and flow separation within the nozzle.

  • Exit Pressure: At sea level, the nozzle’s exit pressure is around 50 mbar (millibar), which is significantly lower than the atmospheric pressure. This leads to flow separation, which can cause vibrations, thermal problems, and mechanical damage to the nozzle, making testing at this pressure challenging.
Innovative Solutions for Testing:
  • To mitigate the challenges posed by sea-level testing, ISRO devised an innovative Nozzle Protection System.
  • This system helps reduce the complexity and cost of testing by providing a more straightforward approach for the acceptance testing of cryogenic engines.
  • By using this system, ISRO was able to conduct the test effectively while avoiding the severe issues that typically arise during sea-level testing.
Restart-Enabling Systems and Multi-Element Igniter:

One of the critical aspects of this test was the demonstration of the multi-element igniter and its restart capability. Cryogenic engines require a reliable method for restarting in space, and this test confirmed the engine’s ability to do so under difficult conditions.

  • Multi-Element Igniter: This is an essential component for restarting the engine in space, and it involves multiple elements that need to ignite in sequence. In this test, only the first element of the igniter was activated, but the health of the remaining elements was carefully monitored. The performance of this system was successfully demonstrated, providing confidence in the engine’s restart capabilities for future missions.
  • Vacuum Ignition: ISRO had already demonstrated vacuum ignition for the CE20 engine, which is crucial for its operation in the vacuum of space. The recent test further validated this process, showing that the engine could restart without nozzle closure, a critical capability for space missions.
Implications for Future Missions:

The successful test of the CE20 Cryogenic Engine is pivotal for ISRO’s upcoming missions:

  1. Gaganyaan Mission: As ISRO’s first manned mission, Gaganyaan relies on the CE20 engine for launching its crewed spacecraft. Ensuring the engine’s reliability and restart capability is crucial for the safety and success of the mission.
  2. Increased Payload Capacity: The higher thrust levels of the upgraded CE20 engine (up to 22 tonnes) allow ISRO to carry heavier payloads into space, enabling more complex scientific missions and satellite launches.
  3. Cryogenic Technology Development: The successful testing of cryogenic engines strengthens India’s space exploration capabilities, positioning ISRO as a leader in developing sophisticated propulsion systems for future missions, including those beyond Earth’s orbit.
Conclusion:
  • This major achievement reflects ISRO’s continuous innovation in space propulsion technology, which will play a central role in both national and international space missions.
  • By overcoming significant technical challenges through the development of advanced systems like the Nozzle Protection System and demonstrating the multi-element igniter’s performance, ISRO is paving the way for more ambitious projects, including manned missions and deep space exploration.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4.  Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ISRO’s recent test of the CE20 cryogenic engine?

  1. The CE20 engine was tested at the ISRO Propulsion Complex, Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu.
  2. The engine was developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre and powers the upper stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM-3).
  3. The engine was successfully tested for its performance in vacuum conditions during the recent test.
  4. The CE20 engine has been qualified for the Gaganyaan mission with an uprated thrust level of 22 tonnes.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) Only One
b) Only Two
c) Only Three
d) Only Four

Q.   With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018)

  1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only

Ans: (a)

 

 

Answer 4- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct as the CE20 engine was tested at the ISRO Propulsion Complex in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu.
  • Statement 2 is correct; the engine was developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre and powers the upper stage of the LVM-3 rocket.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect because the recent test was conducted under ambient (sea-level) conditions, not vacuum conditions.
  • Statement 4 is correct as the CE20 engine was qualified for the Gaganyaan mission with an uprated thrust level of 22 tonnes.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.  

­­­Union Cabinet gives approval for Bills on simultaneous polls

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-nod-to-bills-for-simultaneous-polls-sources/article68976737.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Union Cabinet’s Approval for Simultaneous Elections Bills

Why in News

The Union Cabinet approved two Bills for implementing simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, aiming to reduce election-related expenses and disruptions in governance.

Overview

  • On December 12, 2024, the Union Cabinet approved two key Bills that pave the way for implementing simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha (the Lower House of Parliament) and State Assemblies.
  • This approval marks a significant step towards reforming the electoral process in India, with the objective of reducing election-related expenses and disruptions in governance.  surrounding political context:
Constitution Amendment Bill for Simultaneous Elections
  • The first Bill seeks to amend the Indian Constitution to facilitate the holding of simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
  • This means that, if passed, elections for both the central and state governments would occur on the same dates, instead of being staggered over several months as is the current practice.
  • This move has sparked debate:
    • Supporters argue that simultaneous elections would reduce the financial burden on the government and streamline governance by minimizing disruptions caused by the frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct during elections.
    • Opponents, especially from regional parties, have raised concerns that it could weaken the federal structure of India. They argue that it may lead to the central government having more control over state governments and reduce regional representation.
  • The Constitution Amendment Bill does not require ratification by 50% of the states, making it a more straightforward process compared to other constitutional amendments. However, the Bill will need to be discussed and voted upon in Parliament, and may be referred to a joint committee for further scrutiny.
Bill for Aligning Terms of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories
  • The second Bill addresses the terms of the Legislative Assemblies in the Union Territories of Puducherry, Delhi, and Jammu & Kashmir. These territories currently do not align with the Lok Sabha’s election cycle.
  • The Bill proposes to adjust their terms to bring them in sync with state legislatures and the Lok Sabha elections, ensuring that elections for these bodies are held simultaneously in the future.
  • This Bill is part of the effort to create uniformity in the election cycle across the country, which would facilitate simultaneous elections at both the state and central levels.
Political Reactions and Opposition

The move has drawn sharp criticism from some political leaders:

  • K. Stalin, the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, described the proposal as an “attack on democracy and federalism”, arguing that it would reduce the regional voices in governance.
  • Mamata Banerjee, the Chief Minister of West Bengal, also criticized the Bills, calling them “authoritarian impositions” and claiming that they would undermine India’s federal structure.
  • Congress, through Jairam Ramesh, reiterated its opposition, citing concerns about the detrimental effects on India’s Parliamentary system and the federal guarantees in the Constitution.
  • The opposition is concerned that simultaneous elections may lead to a centralization of power, with the ruling party at the center gaining an unfair advantage, particularly in regional elections.
Recommendations by the Ram Nath Kovind Panel
  • The Ram Nath Kovind committee, which was set up to study the feasibility of simultaneous elections, had suggested holding not only Lok Sabha and Assembly elections simultaneously but also extending this idea to municipalities and Panchayats.
  • However, the Cabinet has decided not to include local body elections in this initial proposal, as this would require additional constitutional amendments and would be more complex to implement.
Challenges and Benefits of Simultaneous Elections
  • Logistical difficulties: Organizing simultaneous elections across the country, especially with varying voter lists, security arrangements, and different election laws, could be challenging.
  • Impact on regional autonomy: Regional parties fear the dilution of their influence and that central issues may overshadow local issues in the elections.
Benefits:
  • Cost savings: Elections are expensive, and holding them simultaneously could save the government substantial amounts of money.
  • Reduced governance disruption: With fewer election-related disruptions, governance at both the central and state levels could be more stable and continuous.
  • Efficiency: It would streamline the election process, reducing the need for multiple elections over the years.
Future Steps
  • The Bills will likely be introduced in Parliament during the ongoing Winter Session. Following their introduction, they may be referred to a joint committee for further examination.
  • If the Bills pass through Parliament, they could set the stage for the implementation of simultaneous elections across India, although the process will likely take time to fully implement.
Conclusion
  • The approval of these Bills is a major step towards electoral reform in India.
  • While the idea of simultaneous elections has its advocates, it also faces significant opposition, particularly from regional parties and federalism proponents.
  • The debate will likely intensify as the Bills move through the legislative process.
 CARE MCQ  
Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding the Bills approved by the Union Cabinet for simultaneous elections:

1.  One Bill seeks to amend the Constitution to hold simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.

2.  The second Bill aims to align the terms of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories with the Lok Sabha’s election cycle.

3.  The Bills will be immediately implemented without the need for any further consultation or legislative processes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 Q. Consider the following statements: (2017)

1.  The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2.  The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3.  Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans: (d)

 

 

 

Answer 5- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct as the first Bill seeks to amend the Constitution for simultaneous elections.
  • Statement 2 is also correct as the second Bill proposes to align the terms of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories with the Lok Sabha election cycle.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect as the Bills require further consultations and the legislative process, including potential referral to a joint committee.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Lok Sabha passes Bill to amend the Disaster Management Act

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/lok-sabha-passes-bill-to-amend-the-disaster-management-act/article68978480.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Disaster Management

Context: Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024

Why in News

The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was passed in the Lok Sabha to strengthen the disaster management system and improve coordination among national and state authorities.

Overview of the African Elephant Population Crisis

  • Recently, the Lok Sabha passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, aimed at strengthening the working of national and state disaster management authorities.
  • The bill seeks to address several challenges faced by state governments in effectively implementing the Disaster Management Act of 2005 and enhance the country’s disaster preparedness and response mechanisms.
Key Features of the Bill:
  • Strengthening Disaster Management System:
    • The Amendment Bill aims to make the disaster management system more robust by increasing the clarity and convergence between stakeholders, such as national and state authorities, during disasters.
    • The central idea is to prepare the country better to handle disasters, as they affect the nation as a whole, according to Union Minister Nityanand Rai.
  • State Governments’ Concerns:
    • The Bill addresses the challenges and difficulties state governments face in disaster management, as flagged by several state governments.
    • These difficulties were seen in the practical implementation of the 2005 Disaster Management Act.
    • The central government believes that the changes introduced will allow better coordination and improve efficiency in managing disasters.
Opposition Concerns:
  • Opposition Parties raised several concerns about the Bill, including the creation of too many new organizations and the introduction of unnecessary English terminology.
  • The term “compensation” was replaced by “relief,” which some felt minimized the responsibility of the government to provide adequate compensation for disaster victims.
  • Additionally, there was a claim that the Bill promotes over-centralization, with some opposition members feeling that it undermines the role of elected representatives of Parliament in disaster management.
Government Response:
  • Despite the opposition, BJP Member Arun Govil took a dig at the disruptions in Parliament, equating them to a “man-made disaster” that hurt the dignity of the institution. His statement highlighted the central government’s view that political disruptions also hamper effective governance.
Key Aspects of the Debate:
  • Support for the Bill: The government emphasized that the Bill is necessary for improving disaster preparedness, ensuring better coordination, and strengthening the disaster management framework.
  • Opposition’s Criticism: Critics argued that the Bill was overly bureaucratic, lacked a holistic approach, and focused on creating new organizations without addressing core issues like climate change and effective relief measures.
Conclusion:
  • The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 passed by the Lok Sabha aims to enhance the country’s disaster management capabilities by addressing the concerns of state governments and improving coordination among various stakeholders.
  • However, it has faced significant criticism from the opposition for its perceived over-centralization and failure to include critical aspects like climate change.
 CARE MCQ  
Q6.  Consider the following statements regarding the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024:

1.  The Bill aims to strengthen coordination among national and state authorities to improve disaster management.

2.  The Bill includes provisions for addressing the impact of climate change on disaster management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 Q.  

 

 

Answer 6- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 seeks to strengthen the disaster management system by addressing issues raised by state governments in implementing the Disaster Management Act of 2005. The Bill aims to improve coordination and clarity among various stakeholders involved in disaster management at both the national and state levels, ensuring a more effective response to disasters.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Although climate change is a critical factor in disaster management, the Bill does not explicitly address it. One of the concerns raised by opposition members was that the Bill did not include climate change as a factor in its provisions. Instead, the Bill focuses more on improving organizational structures and coordination, with no mention of climate change or its impact.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

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