Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – Care (06-12-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Polity: Parliament passes Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill |
| International: Gelephu project discussed between Bhutan and India |
| Ecology: Ratapani in MP declared India’s latest tiger reserve |
| Economy: Oilfields Amendment Bill aims to delink petroleum, mineral oil production from mining activities |
| ‘Anna Chakra’, the PDS Supply chain optimisation tool and SCAN portal launched |
| Awards: India honored with the ISSA Good Practice Award for Asia and Pacific 2024 |
Parliament passes Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Polity
Context: Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill, 2024, empowers the Directorate General of Civil Aviation with expanded regulatory authority
Why in News
- The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament, introduces significant reforms aimed at streamlining the licensing process for aviation personnel and enhancing regulatory oversight in the aviation sector.
Key Highlights
Streamlining Licensing Processes:
- The licensing process for aviation personnel, previously managed by the Department of Telecom (DoT), has been transferred to the DGCA.
- This move ensures a single-window clearance for aviation certifications, reducing bureaucratic hurdles and providing ease of access for pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, and flight dispatchers.
- Trainee pilots and aviation personnel have frequently reported corruption in the Radio Telephone Operator Restricted (RTR) certificate testing under the DoT. Centralizing this process with the DGCA is expected to curb such malpractices.
Enhanced Regulatory Scope:
- The DGCA now has additional powers to regulate aircraft design and design facilities.
- The existing provisions for the manufacture, repair, and maintenance of aircraft remain, ensuring a comprehensive framework for oversight across the aviation lifecycle.
Legislative Timeline:
- The Bill was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 31, 2024, and passed by the Lower House on August 9, 2024. It was subsequently approved by Rajya Sabha on December 5, 2024, during the Winter Session of Parliament.
Implications:
Improved Governance and Accountability:
- The transfer of licensing responsibilities to DGCA addresses complaints of corruption, particularly regarding bribes for RTR exams.
- A single-window system enhances efficiency, reduces delays, and builds trust in the regulatory process.
Boost to Aviation Safety Standards:
- Regulating aircraft design and design facilities strengthens safety protocols and aligns with international aviation standards.
- The DGCA’s expanded mandate ensures tighter oversight of the entire lifecycle of aircraft, from design to maintenance.
Ease of Business in Aviation:
- Centralized certification and regulatory oversight are likely to attract investment in the aviation sector.
- The reforms may encourage innovation in aircraft design and promote domestic manufacturing.
Relief to Trainee Pilots and Personnel:
- By eliminating the alleged corruption under the DoT, the reforms make licensing more accessible and affordable for aspiring aviation professionals.
Challenges and Considerations:
Implementation Challenges:
- The DGCA must ensure it has adequate resources and manpower to handle the additional responsibilities efficiently.
- Training and capacity-building for DGCA officials will be critical to avoid bottlenecks.
Oversight and Monitoring:
- Independent oversight mechanisms are essential to ensure that the DGCA maintains transparency and accountability in the expanded certification processes.
Impact on Existing Workforce:
- Transitioning from DoT to DGCA may require re-training for personnel involved in licensing, which could temporarily disrupt operations.
Conclusion:
- The passage of the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill, 2024, marks a progressive step in addressing systemic inefficiencies in India’s aviation sector.
- By centralizing licensing and expanding regulatory oversight under the DGCA, the Bill enhances governance, boosts aviation safety, and provides relief to aviation personnel.
- However, the success of these reforms hinges on effective implementation and robust monitoring mechanisms to ensure sustained improvements.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q1. Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill, 2024 is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. 1, 2, and 3 only |
Q. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: (2023)
Action – The Act under which it is covered 1, Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms – The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties – The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others – The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Answer: (b)
|
| Answer – 1 – B
Explanation –
Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
Bhutan and India discuss Gelephu Project and Hydropower Plans
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 International Relations
Context: India’s commitment to strengthening ties with Bhutan
Why in News
- The visit of Bhutan’s King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck and Queen Jetsun Pema to India on December 5, 2024, highlighted the enduring partnership between the two nations, particularly in the areas of hydropower, urban development, and cross-border connectivity.
Key Highlights:
Gelephu Mindfulness City Project:
- India reaffirmed its support for the Gelephu Mindfulness City Project, which aims to foster economic growth and well-being in Bhutan and its border areas.
- The project is a critical component of India-Bhutan cooperation, involving potential investments in infrastructure, renewable energy, and urban planning, with discussions involving private players like the Adani Group.
Hydropower Cooperation:
- Hydropower remains a cornerstone of India-Bhutan relations:
- The Punatsangchhu-II hydro power project (1020 MW) is nearing completion.
- Both sides emphasized the need for an expedited conclusion of the Punatsangchhu-I project and finalization of modalities for new reservoir-based hydropower projects.
- This sector strengthens Bhutan’s economy through energy exports while bolstering India’s renewable energy goals.
Regional and Geopolitical Context:
- The visit follows diplomatic challenges for India in South Asia:
- Bangladesh: Unstable ties with Dhaka’s interim government after the fall of Sheikh Hasina’s administration.
- Nepal: Prime Minister Oli’s alignment with China under a new Belt and Road Cooperation Framework signed on December 4, 2024.
- Bhutan’s cooperation with India serves as a strategic counterbalance in the region.
Cross-Border Connectivity:
- Discussions included projects to enhance cross-border connectivity:
- Rail link projects and digital network integration aim to deepen people-to-people ties and economic linkages.
Private Sector Involvement:
- The Adani Group’s involvement in Bhutan’s infrastructure projects was a topic of interest. While some neighboring countries are reviewing Adani projects, Bhutan continues discussions on renewable energy and urban development collaborations.
Implications:
- Strengthening Bilateral Ties:
- The Gelephu project and hydropower initiatives reinforce India’s long-term strategic partnership with Bhutan, highlighting shared goals in sustainable development and economic integration.
- Economic and Strategic Benefits:
- Bhutan benefits from India’s technical expertise and financial support for its projects, while India secures reliable sources of renewable energy and a trusted ally in South Asia.
- Regional Diplomacy:
- With growing Chinese influence in neighboring countries like Nepal, India’s proactive engagement with Bhutan underscores its focus on safeguarding ties with like-minded partners in the region.
- Private Sector’s Role in Diplomacy:
- The involvement of Indian conglomerates like Adani in Bhutan’s development projects showcases the evolving role of private entities in bilateral relations. However, scrutiny of Adani projects highlights the need for transparency and trust-building.
Challenges:
- Geopolitical Pressures: India must navigate its strained relations with other neighbors while ensuring Bhutan’s neutrality in regional politics.
- Hydropower Project Delays: Delays in the Punatsangchhu-I project highlight the need for timely execution and efficient management of bilateral infrastructure projects.
- Private Sector Oversight: The involvement of entities like the Adani Group in Bhutanese projects calls for robust mechanisms to ensure ethical practices and avoid reputational risks.
Conclusion:
- The discussions during the Bhutanese King’s visit reaffirm the strength of India-Bhutan relations, with hydropower and urban development as critical pillars.
- Amidst shifting regional dynamics, India’s commitment to Bhutan underscores its strategic focus on fostering partnerships that promote stability, development, and mutual prosperity.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Assertion (A): India’s support for the Gelephu Mindfulness City Project is critical for enhancing economic and investment linkages with Bhutan. Reason (R): The Gelephu project and hydropower initiatives are part of India’s strategy to counter growing Chinese influence in South Asia.Options: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true. |
Q. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: (2023)
1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project Dibrugarh and Surat. connects Answer: (d) |
| Answer 2– A
Explanation –
|
Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary Declared India’s 57th Tiger Reserve
Source: The Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ratapani-mp-tiger-reserve-protected-areas-9708543/
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Ecology and Environment
Context: Project Tiger initiative
Why in News
- Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh was declared India’s 57th tiger reserve
Key Highlights
- What is a Tiger Reserve?
- A tiger reserve is a protected area established under Project Tiger (1973) to conserve tigers and their habitats.
- These reserves are divided into:
- Core areas: Legally protected as national parks or wildlife sanctuaries.
- Buffer areas: Surrounding zones that allow limited human activities while acting as transition spaces for wildlife.
- The Significance of Ratapani’s Designation:
- Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Madhya Pradesh (a state known as the “Tiger State” of India), will receive increased protection, funding, and technical support under Project Tiger.
- Madhya Pradesh, already home to iconic reserves like Kanha, Bandhavgarh, and Pench, further strengthens its position in tiger conservation.
- India’s Role in Global Tiger Conservation:
- India hosts over 70% of the world’s wild tiger population, with 3,167 tigers as per the 2022 All India Tiger Estimation.
- Tiger reserves cover 82,000 sq km (2.3% of India’s geographical area), demonstrating the country’s leadership in preserving biodiversity.
- Process of Declaring a Tiger Reserve:
- Identification: State governments identify areas with viable tiger populations and suitable habitats.
- Ecological Assessment: Includes studies on prey base, vegetation, and habitat potential.
- Proposal Submission: Sent to the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) for approval and forwarded to the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
- Notification: A preliminary notification under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is issued, followed by a final notification under Section 38V.
- Ecological and Climate Benefits:
- Tigers, as apex predators, regulate ecosystems, ensuring forest health and biodiversity.
- Umbrella Effect: Protecting tigers safeguards entire ecosystems and species that share their habitat.
- A 2023 study in Nature highlighted that tiger reserves prevented the loss of 5,800 hectares of forest (2007–2020), avoiding the release of 1 million metric tons of CO₂, contributing to climate change mitigation.
Challenges in Tiger Conservation:
- Human-Wildlife Conflict:
- Expanding human settlements near buffer zones increases encounters, leading to conflicts and retaliatory killings of tigers.
- Habitat Degradation:
- Unchecked deforestation, infrastructure projects, and agricultural expansion threaten tiger habitats.
- Poaching and Illegal Wildlife Trade:
- Despite stringent laws, poaching remains a significant threat due to the demand for tiger body parts.
- Climate Change:
- Rising temperatures and altered rainfall patterns disrupt tiger habitats and prey availability.
Why Tiger Reserves Matter:
- Ecological Balance:
- As top predators, tigers help maintain the food chain, preventing overpopulation of herbivores and ensuring forest regeneration.
- Water Security:
- Forests in tiger reserves act as watersheds, sustaining rivers and water bodies critical for human and wildlife survival.
- Climate Mitigation:
- By conserving forests, tiger reserves contribute to carbon sequestration and combat climate change.
- Cultural and Economic Value:
- Tigers are symbols of India’s natural heritage and a draw for eco-tourism, which supports local livelihoods.
Conclusion:
- The declaration of Ratapani as a tiger reserve underscores India’s commitment to wildlife conservation and biodiversity protection.
- With tiger populations stabilizing, conservation efforts must focus on habitat protection, community participation, and mitigating human-wildlife conflicts.
- By integrating ecological priorities with climate goals, tiger reserves like Ratapani contribute to a sustainable future.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ | |||||||||||||||
Q3. Match the following tiger reserves with their respective states and features:
Options: |
Q. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (c) |
| Answer 3– A
Explanation –
|
Oilfields Amendment Bill aims to delink petroleum, mineral oil production from mining activities
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Economy
Context: Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024
Why in News
- The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on December 3, 2024.
Key Highlights:
- Objectives of the Bill: To delink petroleum and mineral oil production from mining activities governed by the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
- To encourage private investment in the oil and gas sector.
- To reduce import dependence on crude oil and natural gas by boosting domestic production.
- Defining “Mineral Oil”: For the first time, the Bill explicitly defines mineral oils as naturally occurring hydrocarbons in liquid, viscous, or solid form, including crude oil and natural gas.
- Excludes coal, lignite, and helium associated with petroleum or coal, which remain under the Mines and Minerals Act.
- Introduction of Petroleum Leases: Replaces the term “mining leases” with petroleum leases, which cover activities from exploration to the disposal of mineral oils.
- Grants existing lessees assurance that their leases will remain valid and unchanged during their tenure.
- Shift in Penalties: Scraps criminal punishments for violations of the Oilfields Act, replacing imprisonment with civil penalties of up to ₹25 lakh, with an additional ₹10 lakh per day for ongoing violations.
- Emphasis on Private Sector Participation: Encourages investment from private players while protecting existing leases.
- Introduces provisions for the Centre to regulate operations, control carbon emissions, and promote renewable energy projects at oilfields.
Criticisms and Concerns:
- State Rights: Opposition parties like the DMK argue that replacing “mining leases” with “petroleum leases” diminishes state powers to tax mining activities.
- States derive this power from Entry 50 of the State List, which allows them to tax mineral rights. By shifting the framework to petroleum leases, the Bill positions regulation under Entry 53 of the Union List, centralizing control.
- Environmental Concerns: Handing control to private players raises questions about environmental safeguards.
- Critics advocate prioritizing public sector companies, like ONGC, for energy exploration to ensure better compliance with environmental standards.
- Regulatory Oversight: The removal of criminal punishments could weaken deterrence against violations. The effectiveness of civil penalties in ensuring adherence to regulations is debated.
Why the Bill Matters:
- Economic Implications: The Bill seeks to boost domestic fuel production, reducing India’s heavy reliance on imported crude oil and gas, which account for ~85% of its oil needs.
- Strategic Independence: Encouraging private sector participation aims to increase exploration and production capacity, contributing to energy security.
- Modernizing the Framework:
- By focusing on “mineral oils” instead of general mining, the Bill simplifies and modernizes regulations to align with current industry requirements.
Balancing Development and Governance:
- Central-States Cooperation: Ensuring states retain a role in petroleum lease allocations could address concerns of diminished state powers.
- Strengthened Environmental Measures: Expanding the Centre’s power to regulate carbon emissions and mandate renewable energy projects is critical for sustainable energy exploration.
- Transparent Oversight: A robust mechanism for oversight of private operators is essential to address concerns about environmental degradation and operational transparency.
Conclusion:
- The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, represents a significant step toward boosting domestic energy production and reducing import dependence. However, addressing concerns related to state rights, environmental impact, and regulatory oversight will be crucial for its successful implementation and broader acceptance.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q4. Which of the following statements about the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: |
Q. Consider the following statements: (2018)
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans- a
|
| Answer 4- B
Explanation
|
‘Anna Chakra’, the PDS Supply chain optimisation tool and SCAN portal launched
Source: PIB
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2081277®=3&lang=1
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Economy
Context: ‘Anna Chakra’: PDS Supply Chain Optimization Tool
Why in News
- Union Minister Pralhad Joshi launched ‘Anna Chakra’, a Public Distribution System (PDS) supply chain optimization tool, and SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) Portal on December 5, 2024.
Key Highlights:
- ‘Anna Chakra’: PDS Supply Chain Optimization Tool
- Purpose:
- Enhances efficiency of the logistics network in the world’s largest food security program, benefiting 81 crore people.
- Streamlines the movement of food grains from farmers to Fair Price Shops (FPSs).
- Technological Backbone:
- Developed by the Department of Food Public Distribution (DFPD) in collaboration with:
- World Food Programme (WFP)
- Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT), IIT-Delhi
- Utilizes advanced algorithms to optimize routes for PDS supply chains.
- Developed by the Department of Food Public Distribution (DFPD) in collaboration with:
- Environmental and Cost Benefits:
- Estimated annual savings of ₹250 crores through reduced logistics costs.
- Reduced fuel consumption and transportation emissions, leading to a lower carbon footprint.
- Key Features:
- Covers 37 lakh FPSs and 6,700 warehouses across 30 states.
- Integrated with:
- FOIS (Freight Operations Information System) for inter-state logistics.
- PM Gati Shakti platform, housing geo-locations of warehouses and FPSs.
- SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) Portal
- Purpose:
- A single-window system for states to submit and process subsidy claims under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
- Workflow Automation:
- End-to-end digital processing of food subsidy claims, ensuring faster approvals.
- Rule-based scrutiny for transparency and accountability.
- Benefits:
- Expedites the subsidy settlement process, reducing delays and manual interventions.
Implications of These Initiatives:
- Enhanced PDS Efficiency:
- Optimized supply chains reduce delivery times and operational costs, ensuring timely availability of food grains to beneficiaries.
- Environmental Sustainability:
- By reducing fuel consumption and emissions, ‘Anna Chakra’ aligns with India’s goals for sustainable development and climate action.
- Fiscal Prudence:
- The projected annual savings of ₹250 crores strengthen the economic sustainability of the PDS.
- Technological Integration:
- The use of platforms like PM Gati Shakti and ULIP demonstrates India’s commitment to leveraging digital technologies for governance.
- Improved Governance in Subsidy Disbursal:
- The SCAN portal reduces bureaucratic inefficiencies and enhances transparency, addressing long-standing issues in subsidy claim settlements.
Challenges and Considerations:
- Implementation at Scale:
- Effective adoption across states with varying logistical capabilities may pose challenges.
- Capacity-building for stakeholders at the grassroots level, such as FPS operators and warehouse managers, is crucial.
- Data Integration and Accuracy:
- Ensuring accurate geo-tagging and integration of data across platforms like FOIS and PM Gati Shakti is essential for seamless operations.
- State Cooperation:
- Success depends on collaboration between the Centre and states, especially for interstate logistics optimization.
- Cybersecurity Risks:
- Increasing reliance on digital platforms necessitates robust cybersecurity measures to protect sensitive data.
Conclusion:
- The launch of ‘Anna Chakra’ and SCAN portal marks a transformative step in modernizing India’s Public Distribution System.
- By combining technological innovation with a focus on efficiency and sustainability, these initiatives aim to strengthen the delivery of essential commodities to millions.
- However, their success will depend on effective implementation, stakeholder participation, and robust digital infrastructure.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements about the ‘Anna Chakra’ PDS optimization tool and SCAN portal launched by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution:
1. The ‘Anna Chakra’ tool aims to optimize the supply chain of the Public Distribution System (PDS) by leveraging advanced algorithms and geo-tagged data. 2. The SCAN portal facilitates the manual submission of subsidy claims by states under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). 3. The integration of the ‘Anna Chakra’ tool with the PM Gati Shakti platform reduces transportation-related carbon emissions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only
|
Q. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements: (2018)
1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans- b |
| Answer 5- A
Explanation
|
India Wins ISSA Good Practice Award for Asia and Pacific 2024
Source: PIB
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081045
UPSC Relevance: Awards and Honours
Context: India’s efforts in social security reforms, with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) receiving certificates of merit for several innovative initiatives
Why in News
- India has been honored with the International Social Security Association (ISSA) Good Practice Award for Asia and Pacific 2024 at the Regional Social Security Forum in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
Key Highlights:
- Recognition and Significance:
- The ISSA Good Practice Award highlights the global recognition of India’s efforts to modernize its social security mechanisms.
- EPFO received five Certificates of Merit for initiatives aimed at improving communication, transparency, grievance redressal, and pensioner convenience.
- Awarded Initiatives:
- Communication Channels:
- Focus: Reaching stakeholders through multiple media platforms (digital and non-digital).
- Tools: Webinars, SMS, emails, social media, IEC videos, and district outreach programs like Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0.
- Outcome: Enhanced awareness and timely communication with stakeholders.
- E-proceedings:
- Focus: Use of ICT for justice delivery in compliance-related inquiries.
- Innovation: Transitioned from physical to online inquiries, ensuring transparency and reducing the average inquiry time.
- Outcome: Faster resolution of cases and improved fairness.
- Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0:
- Focus: Ensuring last-mile delivery of services.
- Features: Monthly grievance resolution camps in districts lacking EPFO presence.
- Outcome: Improved ease of access to EPFO services, aligning with the government’s ease of doing business and ease of living policies.
- Multilingual Call Centres:
- Focus: Inclusive grievance redressal in India’s diverse linguistic landscape.
- Features: Support in 12 major regional languages for free.
- Outcome: Efficient resolution of member issues, enhancing satisfaction and accessibility.
- Prayaas:
- Focus: Prioritizing pensioners.
- Features: Ensures pension payment orders (PPOs) are handed to retirees on their last working day.
- Outcome: Rising numbers of PPOs issued under this initiative indicate its growing success.
Special Mention:
- Digital Life Certificate (Jeevan Pramaan Patra):
- Focus: Aadhaar-based biometric authentication system for pensioners.
- Outcome: Simplifies filing of life certificates, enhancing convenience for retirees.
Implications:
- Global Recognition:
- The award places India among global leaders in social security innovation and reform, showcasing its ability to adapt to changing socio-economic conditions.
- Enhanced Member Experience:
- Initiatives like Prayaas, multilingual call centers, and Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0 demonstrate EPFO’s commitment to member-centric services, prioritizing inclusivity and accessibility.
- Technological Integration:
- Programs like E-proceedings and the Digital Life Certificate highlight India’s use of ICT to streamline processes and reduce bureaucratic inefficiencies.
- Policy Alignment:
- These reforms align with broader government policies promoting ease of living, transparency, and digital governance.
Challenges and Considerations:
- Scalability:
- Sustaining these initiatives across India’s vast and diverse population may require further investment in infrastructure and training.
- Awareness:
- Ensuring beneficiaries, especially in rural and remote areas, are aware of these initiatives is critical to their success.
- Continuous Improvement:
- EPFO must consistently adapt to emerging challenges, such as technological advancements and changing member expectations.
Conclusion:
- India’s recognition with the ISSA Good Practice Award for Asia and Pacific 2024 underscores the country’s progress in modernizing its social security framework.
- Initiatives like Anna Chakra, SCAN portal, and others reflect India’s commitment to leveraging technology and innovation to improve public service delivery.
- This global recognition inspires continued efforts toward creating an inclusive and efficient social security system.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q6. Consider the following statements about India’s recognition with the ISSA Good Practice Award for Asia and Pacific 2024:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only |
Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021)
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer- (d)
|
| Answer 6- A
Explanation Statement 1: Correct- EPFO received recognition for its innovative initiatives, including:
Statement 2: Incorrect- The Digital Life Certificate (Jeevan Pramaan Patra) was not recognized for multilingual grievance redressal. It was awarded a special mention for simplifying the filing of life certificates for pensioners through Aadhaar-based biometric authentication. |