CARE 10th June 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (10-06-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: UN to add Israel, Hamas to the global list of offenders that harm children
Economy: CCI tightens grip on big tech with new settlement and commitment monitoring regulations 
RBI keeps repo rate unchanged to control inflation, ups this year’s GDP growth forecast to 7.2%
RBI plans digital payments intelligence platform to curtail frauds
Health: What is the National Health Claim Exchange? 
Environment: Catla, one of India’s 3 major carps, among top 10 species of aquatic animals harvested in 2022: FAO

UN to add Israel, Hamas to the global list of offenders that harm children

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/un-to-add-israel-hamas-to-the-global-list-of-offenders-that-harm-children/article68266506.ece 

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 International Relations

Context: The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction 

Why in News 

  • The U.N. secretary-general will tell the Security Council that both Israel and Hamas are violating children’s rights and leaving them exposed to danger in their war to eliminate each other.

Global list of states and militias that are menacing children 

  • The secretary-general annually makes a global list of states and militias that are menacing children and threatening them. 
  • Parties on the list have ranged from the Kachin Independence Army in Myanmar to — last year — Russia during its war with Ukraine.
  • Now Israel is set to join them.
  • The militant Hamas and Palestinian Islamic Jihad groups will also be listed.
  • The secretary-general sends the list to the Security Council and the council can then decide whether to take action. 

Influence of Permanent Members

  • The United States is one of five veto-wielding permanent council members and has been reluctant to act against Israel, its longtime ally.
  •  Another permanent member is Russia and when the United Nations put Russian forces on its blacklist last year for killing boys and girls and attacking schools and hospitals in Ukraine, the council took no action.
  • The inclusion of Israel this month will likely just put more of a global spotlight on the country’s conduct of the war in Gaza and increase already high tensions in its relationship with the global body.

Impact of War on Children and Women

  • The proportion of Palestinian women and children being killed in the Israel-Hamas war appears to have declined sharply, an Associated Press analysis of Gaza Health Ministry data has found, a trend that both coincides with Israel’s changing battlefield tactics and contradicts the ministry’s own public statements.
  • The trend is significant because the death rate for women and children is the best available proxy for civilian casualties in one of the 21st century’s most destructive conflicts. 
  • In October, when the war began, it was above 60%. For the month of April, it was below 40%.

Global Initiatives

  • Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction
      • The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction is a multilateral treaty that provides an expeditious method to return a child who was wrongfully taken by a parent from one country to another country.
      • The Convention seeks to address international child abduction arising when a child is removed by one parent, when both parents have custody rights, or custody has yet to be determined.
      • The Convention was developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH).
  • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) 
      • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up as a statutory body under Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) Act 2005 to protect, promote and defend child rights in the country.
  • Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) 
    • The Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an autonomous body under Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India. 
    • CARA which primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through recognized agencies.

Indian Initiatives 

  • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
      • NCPCR is a statutory body set up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
      • It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
      • The Commission’s mandate is to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in consonance with the child rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
      • It inquiries into complaints relating to a child’s right to free and compulsory education under the Right to Education Act, 2009.
      • It monitors the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
  • Constitutional Provisions Related to Children
    • The Constitution guarantees to every child the right to live with dignity (Article 21), the right to personal liberty (Article 21), the right to privacy (Article 21), the right to equality (Article 14) and/or the right against discrimination (Article 15), the right against exploitation (Article 23 & 24).
    • Right to free and compulsory elementary education for all children in the 6–14-year age group (Article 21 A)
    • The Directive Principles of State Policy, and in particular Article 39(f), cast an obligation on the State to ensure that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.

Legislations related to Children

  • The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 codifies laws for adoption and maintenance of both boys and girls and declares that the sons and daughters are treated equally in the matter of succession.
  • The Pre-Conception and Prenatal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994 regulates the use of pre-natal sex determination techniques.  
  • The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act (ITPA), 1956 prohibits commercial sexual exploitation and all cases relating to prostitution registered under the Act. This Act defines a minor as a person between 16 to 18 years of age.
  • The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 prohibits the engagement of children in certain employments and regulates the conditions of work of children in certain other employments.
  • The Juvenile Justice Act formulates laws relating to juveniles in conflict with law (juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence) and provide proper care and protection for children in need. The Act adopts child-friendly approach by catering to the development needs of the children and their rehabilitation in institutions established under law.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):

  1. NCPCR was established in same year as National Human Rights Commission in India.
  2. NCPCR operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
  3. NCPCR’s mandate includes ensuring alignment of laws, policies, and programs with child rights as per the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following: (2010) 

  1. The Right to Development 
  2. The Right to Expression 
  3. The Right to Recreation 

Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?

    1. 1 only 
    2. 1 and 3 only 
    3. 2 and 3 only 
  • 1, 2 and 3. 

Ans: D

Answer 1- B

Explanation

    • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. NCPCR was indeed established in March 2007 under the CPCR Act of 2005. 
    • The National Human Rights Commission of India is a statutory body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.
    • So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    • NCPCR functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development. So, Statement 2 is correct.
    • NCPCR’s mandate does include ensuring alignment of laws, policies, and programs with child rights perspectives as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. So, Statement 3 is correct.
  •  Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

CCI tightens grip on big tech with new settlement and commitment monitoring regulations

Source: The Hindu 

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/cci-tightens-grip-on-big-tech-with-new-settlement-and-commitment-monitoring-regulations/article68266397.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Competition Commission of India, Economy

Context: New draft Rules by Competition Commission of India (CCI)

Why in News 

  • In a significant move aimed at enhancing regulatory oversight and ensuring compliance, the Competition Commission of India (CCI), has proposed new regulations to monitor the settlements and commitments of industry giants.

Key Highlights

  • The CCI’s newly issued consultation paper, and draft regulations, promises to usher in a new era of transparency and accountability for the technology sector. 
  • The CCI’s draft regulations have introduced a comprehensive framework for the appointment of independent agencies to oversee the implementation of the commission’s orders. 
  • This move aims to ensure that industry giants adhere to their commitments, and do not exploit loopholes to evade regulatory scrutiny, sources said.

Draft CCI (Settlement) Regulations and the CCI (Commitment) Regulations 2024

  • Fair trade regulator CCI has sought stakeholder comments on the proposed amendments to the CCI (General) Regulations 2009, following recent changes to the Competition Act.

About the draft regulations:

The CCI’s draft regulations have introduced a comprehensive framework for the appointment of independent agencies –

  • To ensure that industry giants adhere to their commitments and
  • Do not exploit loopholes to evade regulatory scrutiny.
  • The CCI retains the authority to suspend or terminate the engagement of these agencies if they fail to meet the stipulated standards.
  • Independent agencies to ensure unbiased monitoring of compliance:
  • The proposed regulations empower the CCI to appoint a range of independent agencies, including accounting firms, management consultancies, professional organisations, etc.
  • These agencies will be tasked with the critical responsibility of monitoring the implementation of the CCI’s orders, ensuring that the terms of engagement are strictly followed.
  • To maintain integrity and impartiality, the agencies must confirm their independence from the parties involved and disclose any potential conflicts of interest.

Key Responsibilities of monitoring agencies

  • The agencies will Inform the CCI of any instances of non-implementation or non-compliance with the orders,
  • Adequately disclose any direct/ indirect interest, that could prejudice their performance, and
  • Submit periodic reports related to the monitoring of order implementation, as directed by the Commission.

Implications of the new regulations:

  • The CCI aims to ensure greater transparency, accountability and compliance in the tech industry, thereby reinforcing its role as a vigilant watchdog in the evolving market landscape.
  • By instituting a robust and independent monitoring mechanism, the CCI aims to prevent big tech firms from circumventing regulatory orders and ensure that they adhere to their commitments in letter and spirit.

About Competition Commission of India (CCI)

  • The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the philosophy of modern competition laws. 
  • The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control and M&A), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India.
  • The objectives of the Act are sought to be achieved through the Competition Commission of India, which has been established by the Central Government with effect from 14th October 2003. 
  • CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government.
  • It is the duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
  • The Commission is also required to give opinion on competition issues on a reference received from a statutory authority established under any law and to undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on competition issues.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the philosophy of modern competition laws.
  2. CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to ‘consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2012)

  1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
  2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
  3. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Answer 2– C

Explanation – 

    • The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, does indeed follow the philosophy of modern competition laws. It aims to regulate competition in the market to prevent anti-competitive behavior and promote fair practices. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
    • CCI (Competition Commission of India) does consist of a chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government. This composition ensures effective governance and decision-making within the commission. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

What is the National Health Claim Exchange?  

Source: Indian Express

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/what-is-the-national-health-claim-exchange-explained/article68267419.ece#:~:text=The%20Ministry%20and%20IRDAI%20are,and%20government%20insurance%20scheme%20administrators

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Health

Context: Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) launched the National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX)

Why in News

  • The Health Ministry and IRDAI are launching the National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX), a digital platform which will bring together insurance companies, healthcare sector service providers and government insurance scheme administrators. 

National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX)

  • The Health Claim Exchange Specification is a communication protocol that facilitates the seamless exchange of health claim information between payers (insurance companies, TPAs, government scheme administrators), providers (hospitals, labs, polyclinics), beneficiaries, and other entities.
  • It is designed to be interoperable, machine-readable, auditable, and verifiable, ensuring accurate and trustworthy information exchange.
  • It is an open standard-based communication protocol.
  • It aligns with IRDAI’s goal of ‘Insurance for All by 2047’ and will support streamlined, paperless, and secure interactions between hospitals and insurers.
  • Standardized Healthcare Pricing: Industry experts note that the platform will bring uniform data presentation and centralized validation of claims, leading to a more standardized approach to healthcare pricing.

How is the NHCX expected to work?

  • The NHCX will serve as a gateway for exchanging claims-related information among various stakeholders in the healthcare and health insurance ecosystem. 
  • The integration with NHCX is expected to enable seamless interoperability of health claims processing, enhancing efficiency and transparency in the insurance industry, benefiting policyholders and patients, said the Health Ministry. 
  • The insurance industry is poised to support the implementation of this system by facilitating streamlined interactions between hospitals and insurers, establishing a seamless, paperless, and secure contractual framework. 
  • Acting as a centralised hub for all health claims, the NHCX will significantly alleviate the administrative burden on hospitals, which currently contend with multiple portals for various insurers.
  • Twelve insurance companies and one TPA (Third Party Administrator) have completed the NHCX integration.

What about cashless claims? 

  • A timeline has been fixed for insurance claims of cashless claims. 
  • The insurance authority has said that all cashless claims have to be processed within three hours of the receipt of discharge authorisation from the hospital. 
  • The insurance regulator has set the insurance provider a deadline of July 31 to put systems and processes in place to ensure the smooth facilitation of this latest directive.
  • While the actual on-ground launch of both the NHCX and time-bound insurance clearance is expected to roll out soon, a senior Health Ministry official confirmed that over 30 insurance companies are already onboard the NHCX platform while effort and awareness drives are going on to bring in the hospitals.

What are some other incentives on offer? 

  • To encourage adoption of digital health transactions and digitisation of patient health records in the country, the National Health Authority had announced financial incentives under the Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS) from January 2023. 
  • Under the DHIS, there is a provision that for every insurance claim transaction through NHCX, financial incentives of ₹500 per claim or 10% of the claim amount, whichever is lower, would be given to hospitals, according to a Health Ministry note.

Why is NHCX being brought in?

  • A paper titled, ‘Health Insurance Coverage in India: Insights for National Health Protection Scheme’, noted that health insurance is an important policy strategy to provide health care services as well as reduce high out-of-pocket expenditure which burden individuals. 
  • It points out that for all India, the hospitalisation cases are highest when insured from private purchase. 
  • In urban areas, cases for inpatient care are observed to be highest for those covered by government-funded schemes.
  • On the contrary, in rural areas, in-patient cases are substantially higher for those purchasing private insurance.
  • Also, overall in-patient cases are higher for urban areas compared to rural areas.
  • Arguing for the NHCX, the Health Ministry states that the platform will help in standardisation and interoperability of health claims and will bring in seamless exchange of data, documents and images.
  • Additionally, it will enable transparent and efficient claims processing and reduce related operational costs. 
  • Industry experts also note that the platform, through uniform data presentation and centralised validation of claims data, could bring in a more standardised approach to healthcare pricing. 

Challenges

  • Health insurance contributes to approximately 29% of the total general insurance premium income in India. 
  • The primary hurdle in health insurance today lies in improving the relationship between hospitals and insurance companies. 
  • Issues such as discharge delays and miscommunication between hospitals and insurers further complicate matters. Building trust among policy holders hinges on delivering efficient services. 
  • The NHCX portal aims to streamline the claims process by bringing all stakeholders onto one platform, reducing claim times and standardising procedures.  
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Union Finance Ministry and IRDAI are launching the National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX).
  2. Health Claim Exchange Specification is designed to be interoperable, machine-readable, auditable, and verifiable, ensuring accurate and trustworthy information exchange.
  3. Health Claim Exchange Specification is an open standard-based communication protocol.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) None

Q. In India, which of the following reviews the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity etc.? (2019)

1.  Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament.

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 , 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 5

Ans- a

 

Answer 3 B

Explanation

    • The Health Ministry and IRDAI are launching the National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX), a digital platform which will bring together insurance companies, healthcare sector service providers and government insurance scheme administrators. 
  • This is achieved through a standardized protocol designed to streamline communication and data sharing within the healthcare ecosystem. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Health Claim Exchange Specification (HCES) facilitate the seamless exchange of health claim information among payers, providers, beneficiaries, and other entities. HCES is indeed designed to be interoperable, machine-readable, auditable, and verifiable. 
  • These characteristics ensure that the exchanged health claim information is accurate, reliable, and can be easily processed by different systems and stakeholders while maintaining transparency and accountability. Hence statement 2 is correct 
  • HCES is an open standard-based communication protocol. This means that the specifications and protocols used are openly available and not proprietary, allowing for broader adoption, compatibility, and innovation within the healthcare industry. Hence statement 3 is correct 
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

RBI keeps repo rate unchanged to control inflation, ups this year’s GDP growth forecast to 7.2%

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/rbi-keeps-repo-rate-unchanged-at-65-percent/article68262056.ece 

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Banking sector, Economy

Context: Ludhiana’s Punjab Agricultural University has come up with biocontrol agent Trichoderma asperellum to combat ‘foot rot’ disease, prevalent in Basmati rice varieties.

Why in News 

  • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to keep the repo rate unchanged at 6.5%. 

Key Highlights

  • The MPC has revised its GDP growth forecast upwards from the earlier 7% estimate to 7.2% for the financial year 2024-2025. 
  • It has also decided to remain focused on withdrawal of accommodation to ensure that inflation does not accelerate, while supporting growth.
  • These decisions are in consonance with the objective of achieving the medium-term target for consumer price index (CPI) inflation of 4% within a band of +/- 2% while supporting growth. 
  • There were signs of a more divided policy committee, with one additional member voting for a softening in stance as well as policy direction. 
  • The majority retained their cautious stance to guide inflation towards the 4% target on a durable basis, despite recent signs of disinflation.

Higher growth forecast

  • According to the MPC, high frequency indicators of domestic activity are showing resilience in 2024-25. 
  • The south-west monsoon is expected to be above normal, which augurs well for agriculture and rural demand, but headwinds from geopolitical tensions, volatility in international commodity prices, and geoeconomic fragmentation pose risks to the outlook. 

Elevated food inflation

  • Emphasising that inflation has seen sequential moderation since February 2024, albeit in a narrow range from 5.1% in February to 4.8% in April 2024, the RBI Governor said that food inflation, however, remains elevated due to persistence of inflation pressures in vegetables, pulses, cereals, and spices. 
  • overlapping shocks engendered by rising incidence of adverse climate events impart considerable uncertainty to the food inflation trajectory. 
  • Taking various factors into account, CPI inflation for 2024-25 is projected at 4.5%, with Q1 at 4.9%; Q2 at 3.8%; Q3 at 4.6%; and Q4 at 4.5%. The risks are evenly balanced.
  • Inflation is expected to temporarily fall below the target during Q2:2024-25 due to favourable base effect, before reversing subsequently.
  • The MPC will remain resolute in its commitment to aligning inflation to the 4% target on a durable basis. 
  • The MPC reiterated the need to continue with the disinflationary stance, until a durable alignment of the headline CPI inflation with the target is achieved.

Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)

  • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body responsible for determining the monetary policy of India.
  • The MPC was constituted in India in 2016 following the recommendation of the Urjit Patel Committee. 
  • It was established by amending the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934.
  • The MPC consists of six members:
    • Three members from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), including the Governor, the Deputy Governor, and one officer of the RBI nominated by the central board.
    • Three external members appointed by the Government of India. These members are chosen from various fields, such as economics, banking, or finance, based on their expertise in monetary policy matters.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):

  1. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India.
  2. The MPC was constituted by amending the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  3. The MPC consists of 6 members, with equal representation from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Government of India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) Only statement 1 

b) Only statements 1 and 2 

c) Only statements 2 and 3 

d) All statements 

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (2017)

  1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
  2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
  3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (a)

Answer 4 D

Explanation

  • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is indeed responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India. The MPC decides on the repo rate, which is the rate at which the central bank (Reserve Bank of India) lends money to commercial banks, thereby influencing the overall interest rates in the economy. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The MPC was indeed constituted by amending the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The formation of the MPC was a significant change in India’s monetary policy framework, aimed at bringing more transparency and accountability to the process of determining monetary policy. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The MPC consists of 6 members, including three members from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), namely the Governor, Deputy Governor, and one officer of the RBI. Additionally, it includes three external members appointed by the Government of India. Therefore, while the MPC does consist of both RBI and government representation, it’s not necessarily equal, as the RBI members have official positions within the central bank, whereas the external members are appointed based on their expertise in economics or monetary policy. Hence statement 3 is correct
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.   

RBI plans digital payments intelligence platform to curtail frauds

Source: The Hindu business line

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-plans-digital-payments-intelligence-platform-to-curtail-frauds/article68262191.ece  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3- banking sector, Economy

Context: India become world’s 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023

Why in news 

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is planning to set up a digital payments intelligence platform for sharing data on a real-time basis across digital payment eco-system to safeguard the interest of consumers. 

Key Highlights

    • Digital payment fraud has witnessed a sharp jump of more than fivefold to a record ₹1,457 crore in the fiscal year ended March 2024, according to the RBI annual report.
    • The alarming increase coincides with India’s rapid transformation into a digital payments powerhouse, fuelled by the widespread adoption of the unified payments interface (UPI) since its launch in 2016. 
    • UPI transactions have seen explosive growth, surging 137 per cent in the past two years to touch ₹200-lakh crore, as per RBI data.
    • The digital payment is boosted by affordable internet access and greater financial inclusion. However, this growth has attracted the attention of fraudsters, who conveniently target vulnerable section of the society.
    • In response, RBI has launched several high-profile awareness campaigns to educate consumers about financial fraud risks. 
  • However, digital payments, including card and internet transactions, accounted for 10 per cent of the total fraud amount in FY24, an increase from 1.1 per cent in the previous fiscal year.

Significance

  • The proposed network-level intelligence platform will boost consumer confidence.
  • The central bank has taken a number of measures over the years to deepen digital payments while ensuring their safety and security. 
  • Growing instances of digital payment frauds, however, highlight the need for a system-wide approach to prevent and mitigate such frauds.
  • It is, therefore, proposed to establish a digital payments intelligence platform for network-level intelligence and real-time data sharing across the digital payments’ ecosystem.
  • To take this initiative forward, the Reserve Bank has constituted a committee to examine various aspects of setting up the platform.

Related Initiatives

  • Raising bulk deposits limit:
      • For commercial banks (excluding RRBs) and small finance banks, the RBI has proposed to revise the definition of bulk deposits as single rupee term deposits of Rs 3 crore and above from the current limit of Rs 2 crore and above.
      • For local area banks, it has proposed to define the bulk deposit limitas single rupee term deposits of Rs 1 crore and above as applicable in the case of regional rural banks (RRBs).
      • Banks have discretion to offer differential rates of interest on the bulk deposits as per their requirements and Asset-Liability Management (ALM) projections.
  • Automatic e-mandate for recurring transactions:
      • The automatic replenishment will be triggered when the balance in Fastag or NCMC falls below a threshold amount set by the customer.
      • The current e-mandate framework requires a pre-debit notification at least 24-hours before the actual debit from the customer’s account.
      • The RBI has proposed to exempt this requirement for payments made from customer’s account for automatic replenishment of balances in Fastag or NCMC under the e-mandate framework.
  • UPI Lite within the ambit of the e-mandate framework:
      • By introducing an auto-replenishment facility for loading the UPI Lite wallet by the customer, if the balance goes below a threshold amount set by him/her.
      • The idea is to do away with the need for extra authentication or pre-debit notification because the money stays with the consumer (moving from his/her account to wallet).
      • The UPI Lite facility currently allows a customer to load his UPI Lite wallet up to Rs 2000 and make payments up to Rs 500 from the wallet.
  • Rationalising existing guidelines on export and import of goods and services:
    • This will be in line with the changing dynamics of cross-border trade transactions globally and aims at simplifying operational procedures.
    • This will promote ease of doing business for all the stakeholders.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Consider the following statements:

  • Digital payment fraud has witnessed a significant increase, reaching a record ₹1,457 crore in the fiscal year ended March 2024, according to the RBI annual report.
  1. The proposed digital payments intelligence platform aims to boost consumer confidence by sharing real-time data across the digital payment ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023)

  1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
  2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

With of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Answer 5 C

Explanation

  • Digital payment fraud indeed saw a significant increase, reaching a record ₹1,457 crore in the fiscal year ended March 2024, according to the RBI annual report. 
  • There is the growing concern regarding digital payment frauds and the need for enhanced measures to address them. So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The proposed digital payments intelligence platform is aimed at boosting consumer confidence by sharing real-time data across the digital payment ecosystem. 
  • This platform is intended to provide network-level intelligence and facilitate real-time data sharing to prevent and mitigate digital payment frauds. 
  • By enhancing transparency and facilitating proactive measures against fraud, the platform aims to increase consumer trust in digital payments. 
  • So, Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

Catla, one of India’s 3 major carps, among top 10 species of aquatic animals harvested in 2022: FAO

Source: Down To Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/catla-one-of-india-s-3-major-carps-among-top-10-species-of-aquatic-animals-harvested-in-2022-fao-96596

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Environment

Context: About Catla (Labeo catla) and UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Why in News 

  • Catla (Labeo catla) was one of the top 10 species of aquatic animals harvested by humans in 2022, according to a new report released by the United Nations on June 7, 2024.

Key Highlights

  • With over four million tonnes harvested in 2022, catla is eighth on the list of ‘Top ten species items’, The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture 2024 noted.

About Catla

  • The Catla species is “endemic to the riverine system in northern India, Indus plain and adjoining hills of Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Myanmar, and has been introduced later into almost all riverine systems, reservoirs and tanks all over India”, according to the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), which has brought out the report.
  • Catla used to be traditionally farmed in the ponds of eastern Indian states from where it spread across the country during the second half of the 20th century.
  • Catla as well as two other important Indian carps – Rohu (Labeo rohita), and Mrigal (Cirrhinus mrigala) – are three of the most farmed fish in India’s inland fisheries.

‘Top ten species items’ 

    • White leg shrimp (Penaeus vannamei), with 6.8 million tonnes, was the top aquatic animal species produced in 2022.
  • It was followed by:
  • Cupped oysters nei (Crassostrea spp., 6.2 million tonnes);
  • Grass carp (also known white amur; Ctenopharyngodon idellus, 6.2 million tonnes);
  • Nile tilapia (Oreochromis niloticus, 5.3 million tonnes);
  • Silver carp (Hypophthalmichthys molitrix, 5.1 million tonnes)
  • Anchoveta (also known as Peruvian anchovy; Engraulis ringens, 4.9 million tonnes). 

Other Important Findings

  • The report noted that the number of species harvested has varied greatly over the years, with major differences from region to region.
  • Until the late 1970s, finfish or true fishes (different from other aquatic animals such as molluscs or crustaceans) represented about 90 per cent of the total production of aquatic animals, compared with 75 per cent in 2022.
  • The decline has been attributed to the rise in aquaculture. 
  • Indeed, humans now farm more aquatic life than capture them from the wild, according to the report.
  • The increase in aquaculture production has caused a rise in the shares of molluscs and crustaceans.
  • Half of the 75 per cent finfish harvested in 2022 were marine species while 44 per cent were freshwater ones. Marine finfish also constituted 38 per cent of the total aquatic animals produced and were followed by freshwater fishes at 33 per cent.
  • It is worthy of note that aquaculture was the main source of production of the top five species and of eight of the top ten species of aquatic animals in 2022.

The Food and Agriculture Organization

  • The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. 
  • Its Latin motto, fiat panis, translates to “let there be bread”. 
  • It was founded on 16 October 1945.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q6.  Consider the following statements:

  1. The Catla species is not endemic to South Asia.
  2. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) was founded before India’s independence. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None

Q. Consider the following statements (2019)

  1. Some species of turtles are herbivores
  2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
  3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores
  4. Some species of snakes are viviparous

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

Answer 6- B

Explanation

    • The Catla species is indeed endemic to the riverine system in northern India, the Indus plain, and adjoining hills of Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, and Myanmar. This indicates the natural habitat range of the Catla fish. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    • The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. 
    • Its Latin motto, fiat panis, translates to “let there be bread”. 
  • It was founded on 16 October 1945. 
    • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

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