CARE 30th July 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (30-07-2024)

News at a Glance
Science and Technology: About Oropouche fever
First batch of medicine for treat amoebic meningoencephalitis received by Kerala govt
International Relations: India to lodge complaint against International Labour Organisation’s India Employment Report
Significance of Quad collaboration for free and open Indo-Pacific 
Defence: DAC approves amendment to MQ-9B UAV deal with U.S.
Environment and Ecology: Threats to Endemic Andaman species of Charles Darwin’s frog 

What is Oropouche fever?

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/brazil-oropouche-fever-symptoms-9483084/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Science and Technology

Context: Oropouche Fever 

Why in News 

  • Two people in the Brazilian state of Bahia were the first people to die from Oropouche fever, the country’s health ministry reported July 25, 2024. 

Overview of Oropouche Fever 

  • Oropouche fever, caused by the Oropouche virus, is an emerging infectious disease primarily transmitted by midges and mosquitoes. 
  • Although it has been known in Latin America and the Caribbean since its discovery in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955, recent developments indicate a troubling increase in cases and geographic spread.

First Fatal Cases in Brazil

  • On July 25, 2024, Brazil’s health ministry reported the first fatalities from Oropouche fever. 
  • Two women, both under 30 and without comorbidities, succumbed to the disease after experiencing symptoms similar to dengue fever. 
  • This marks a significant and concerning development, as the WHO previously indicated no known fatalities from the disease in scientific literature.

Spread and Case Statistics 

  • As of late July 2024, Brazil has documented 7,236 cases across 20 states, with the majority in Amazonas and Rondônia. 
  • This represents a substantial increase from 840 cases reported in 2023. 
  • Additionally, Cuba experienced its first outbreak in June 2024, marking the first detection of the disease in the country. 
  • In Europe, Italy reported its first-ever case of Oropouche fever in June 2024, linked to recent travel to the Caribbean.

Mode of Transmission 

  • Oropouche fever is transmitted through the bites of infected midges, specifically the Culicoides paraensis species, and mosquitoes. 
  • The disease does not spread through human-to-human contact.

Symptoms 

  • Symptoms typically appear four to eight days after an infected bite and include:
    • Fever
    • Headaches
    • Pain
    • Chills
    • Joint stiffness
    • Nausea and vomiting
  • Most patients recover within about seven days, though severe cases are rare. There is currently no specific vaccine or antiviral treatment available.

Factors Influencing Spread 

  • Climate and Geographic Expansion: Oropouche fever has been traditionally linked to tropical climates, but recent outbreaks in non-tropical areas and the rise in cases this year suggest other factors may be influencing its spread. The disease’s epidemic potential and its behavior outside of typical tropical conditions remain poorly understood due to limited research.
  • Unexplored Epidemic Potential: A May 2023 study highlighted the need for more research into Oropouche fever’s epidemic potential and likely spread. The lack of comprehensive data makes it challenging to predict future outbreaks or understand the full range of environmental and climatic factors affecting the disease’s spread.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Oropouche fever is primarily transmitted by the bite of the Aedes mosquito.

Statement 2: The Oropouche virus was first detected in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955.

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Both statements are correct.
  2. Both statements are incorrect.
  3. Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
  4. Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct.
Q. Consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2021)

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

 

Answer 1- C

Explanation:

    • Oropouche fever shares symptoms with dengue fever, such as fever and joint pain, which can lead to misdiagnosis.  So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • While severe cases of Oropouche fever can occur, they are relatively rare. Fatalities are uncommon, and most patients recover within about a week.  Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

India to lodge complaint against International Labour Organisation’s India Employment Report

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-likely-to-lodge-complaint-against-international-labour-organisations-india-employment-report/article68461476.ece  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: International Labour Organisation’s India Employment Report

Why in News 

  • India is likely to raise a complaint against the UN agency over its India Employment Report 2024. 

India and ILO 

  • India as a Founding Member: India has been a part of the ILO since its inception and has been actively engaged in its activities and reports.
  • India Employment Report 2024: Released in March 2024 by the ILO and the Institute of Human Development (IHD), it highlighted significant issues in the Indian employment scenario, particularly concerning youth unemployment.

Key Findings of the Report

  • Youth Unemployment: The report states that youth (aged 15-29) account for nearly 83% of the unemployed workforce in India.
  • Educational Disparity: The share of unemployed youth with secondary or higher education has almost doubled from 35.2% in 2000 to 65.7% in 2022, indicating a mismatch between education and job opportunities.

Concerns Raised by India

  • Different Data Sources: The Indian government argues that the data used by the ILO differs from that used domestically, suggesting that the ILO’s model may not accurately reflect the employment situation in India.
  • Private vs. Public Data: The government has previously expressed doubts about data from private agencies like the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), favoring data from Periodic Labour Force Surveys, which it considers more reliable.
  • Entrepreneurship and Formal Employment: The government highlights a shift in employment trends, with more people becoming entrepreneurs and an increase in formal employment, evidenced by rising subscriptions to the Employees Provident Fund Organisation and Employees State Insurance Corporation.

Government Response

  • Employment Generation Initiatives: Minister of State for Labour, Shobha Karandlaje, emphasized the government’s efforts to generate employment and improve employability, suggesting that the unemployment rate among youth is on a declining trend.
  • Comprehensive Data Model: The Union Labour Ministry plans to establish a new data model to create a holistic picture of employment, integrating various data sources.

Implications and Next Steps

  • Formal Complaint: India is likely to raise a formal complaint against the ILO regarding the employment report, questioning the suitability of the model used by the ILO.
  • General Election: The timing of the report and the upcoming general election add a political dimension to the issue, with the government keen to present a positive employment scenario.

International Labour Organization (ILO)

  • International Labour Organization (ILO) is the only tripartite U.N. agency, since 1919. 
  • It brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 member States, to set labour standards, develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men. 
  • Established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations.
  • Became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
  • Founding Mission: social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace.
  • Promotes internationally recognized human and labour rights.
  • Received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.
       

Future Actions

  • The Union Labour Ministry’s plan to create a comprehensive data system aims to provide a more accurate and integrated picture of employment and unemployment in India.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Which organization released the India Employment Report 2024?

A. World Bank

B. International Labour Organization (ILO)

C. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Q. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018)

(a) Child Labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace

Ans: (a)

Answer 2 – B

Explanation:

  • The India Employment Report 2024 was released by the International Labour Organization (ILO) in collaboration with the Institute of Human Development (IHD). 
  • The ILO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that deals with labor issues, particularly international labor standards, social protection, and work opportunities for all. 
  • The report highlighted key issues in the employment scenario in India, particularly focusing on youth unemployment and the educational background of the unemployed workforce.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Significance of Quad collaboration for free and open Indo-Pacific

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/quad-collaboration-can-ensure-free-and-open-indo-pacific-eam-jaishankar/article68459251.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 International Relations

Context: Quad collaboration

Why in News 

  • The recent statements made by India’s External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar at the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) foreign ministerial conclave highlight several important aspects related to international relations, security, and economic cooperation. 

Recent Statements by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar 

  • External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar emphasized the Quad’s additional responsibilities in upholding a rules-based international order during a foreign ministerial conclave. 
  • His remarks underscored the necessity of collaboration among Quad members to ensure the Indo-Pacific remains stable and prosperous.

Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue): Ensuring a Free and Secure Indo-Pacific 

  • The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, commonly known as the Quad, is a strategic forum comprising four key democracies: the United States, India, Japan, and Australia. 
  • The primary objective of the Quad is to promote a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific region. 
  • This aim has become increasingly pertinent amid rising geopolitical tensions and China’s assertive behavior in the region.

Key points 

  1. Commitment to a Rules-Based Order: Jaishankar highlighted the importance of maintaining a rules-based international order, which is essential for the stability and security of the Indo-Pacific region. This involves adherence to international laws and norms, particularly in the maritime domain.
  2. Political, Economic, and Technological Collaboration: He called for strengthening political understanding, expanding economic partnerships, and enhancing technological collaborations among the Quad nations. These efforts are aimed at fostering a resilient and prosperous region.
  3. People-to-People Relations: Emphasizing the importance of cultural and social ties, Jaishankar suggested that deeper people-to-people connections would further solidify the Quad’s partnership.
  4. Global Good and Economic Resilience: The minister stressed the Quad’s role in contributing to global economic growth and ensuring supply chain resilience. He noted the significance of trusted and transparent digital partnerships in this context.
  5. Technological Advancements and Re-Globalization: Jaishankar acknowledged the rapid pace of technological advancements, which are reshaping global interactions and economies. He highlighted the Quad’s collective responsibility in safeguarding the international system against disruptions.

Remarks by Australian Foreign Minister Penny Wong 

Australian Foreign Minister Penny Wong echoed similar sentiments, underscoring the need to respect sovereignty and manage competition responsibly without directly naming China. Key points from her comments include:

  1. Respect for Sovereignty: Wong emphasized the importance of respecting each nation’s sovereignty and ensuring that no country dominates or is dominated.
  2. Regional Aspirations: She highlighted the Quad’s commitment to a vision where all countries have the freedom to pursue their aspirations without external pressures or dominance.

Broader Geopolitical Context 

The Quad foreign ministerial meeting occurred against the backdrop of significant global geopolitical turmoil, including the Russia-Ukraine conflict and Hamas-Israel hostilities. Discussions likely included:

  1. Geopolitical Turmoil: Addressing the implications of ongoing conflicts and the broader impact on global stability.
  2. Supply Chain Resilience: Strategies to enhance supply chain resilience to mitigate disruptions caused by geopolitical and natural events.
  3. Economic De-Risking: Efforts to ensure global economic growth while minimizing risks associated with political and economic instability.

The Role and Future of the Quad 

  • The statements and discussions at the Quad meeting reinforce the forum’s evolving role in ensuring regional stability and addressing global challenges. 
  • The Quad’s commitment to upholding a rules-based order, enhancing economic and technological partnerships, and fostering a free and open Indo-Pacific indicates its significant strategic importance.
  • This collaborative effort among the Quad nations is pivotal in countering aggressive postures and ensuring a secure and prosperous Indo-Pacific region. 
  • The emphasis on political, economic, and technological collaboration highlights a multifaceted approach to regional security and global economic resilience.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements about the Quad:

  1. The Quad comprises the United States, India, Japan, and Australia.
  2. The primary objective of the Quad is to establish a common currency among its member nations.
  3. The Quad seeks to promote a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements: (2016)

  1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
  2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
  3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B

Answer 3 B

Explanation

  • The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, known as the Quad, consists of these four countries: the United States, India, Japan, and Australia. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Quad’s primary objective is not to establish a common currency. Instead, its main goals include ensuring a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific region, promoting a rules-based international order, and fostering economic and technological collaboration among its members.  Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • One of the core objectives of the Quad is to promote a free, open, and secure Indo-Pacific region, which is crucial for regional stability and prosperity. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

DAC approves amendment to MQ-9B UAV deal with U.S.

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dac-approves-procurement-of-advanced-land-navigation-system-for-army-22-interceptor-boats-for-coast-guard/article68460075.ece  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- International Relations

Context: Amendments to the MQ-9B UAV Deal

Why in News 

  • The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, reviewed and approved significant amendments to several defence procurement deals. 

Approval of Amendments to the MQ-9B UAV Deal 

  • MQ-9B High Altitude Long Endurance (HALE) Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs): India is seeking to procure 31 MQ-9B UAVs from General Atomics of the United States. This includes 15 Sea Guardians for the Indian Navy and 16 Sky Guardians, divided equally between the Indian Army and Air Force.

Details of the Amendment:

  • Scope of Amendments: The approved amendments pertain to the indigenous content and related aspects of the deal. This involves ensuring that certain components or services associated with the UAVs are sourced or produced within India, thereby contributing to local industry and technology.
  • Cost and Offset Obligations: The total estimated cost for this deal is approximately $3.99 billion. As part of the agreement, General Atomics is required to establish a Global Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) facility in India, which will fulfill offset obligations and support the UAVs’ lifecycle management.

Details of the Amendment:

  • Current Status: The deal has received the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) and the US has completed its part of the process by delivering the letter of offer and acceptance to India.
  • Next Steps: India must finalize the procurement process, which includes approval by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) before the deal can be signed. With the Quad leaders’ summit scheduled for December, the completion of this deal, along with the GE-414 jet engine deal, is anticipated during the visit of the U.S. President to India.

Approval for Scheduled Refit of INS Vikramaditya 

  • INS Vikramaditya: The DAC has approved the scheduled refit of the aircraft carrier INS Vikramaditya. This refit is necessary to maintain the carrier’s operational readiness and extend its service life. 
  • The specifics of the refit, such as scope and timelines, were not detailed but will involve significant upgrades and maintenance work.

Procurement of Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS) for Armoured Fighting Vehicles (AFVs)

  • System Specifications: The ALNS Mk-II is designed for Armoured Fighting Vehicles (AFVs) and is compatible with Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS, NavIC), as well as Global Positioning System (GPS) and Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS). The system is spoof-proof and features high levels of encryption, ensuring secure and accurate navigation.
  • Procurement: The ALNS Mk-II will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) in Chennai under the Buy [Indian-Indigenously Designed, Developed, and Manufactured (IDDM)] category. This category emphasizes the procurement of domestically designed and developed equipment.

Procurement of 22 Interceptor Boats for the Coast Guard 

  • Capabilities: The 22 Interceptor Boats will be equipped with state-of-the-art systems capable of quick interception and operation in shallow waters. These boats are intended for coastal surveillance, patrolling, search and rescue operations, and medical evacuation.
  • Purpose: The procurement aims to enhance the Coast Guard’s capabilities in safeguarding India’s territorial waters and improving maritime security.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Match the following items with their descriptions:

Items Descriptions
1. MQ-9B UAVs A. Scheduled for refit to extend operational life.
2. INS Vikramaditya B. Designed for coastal surveillance and search & rescue operations.
3. Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS) Mk-II C. Procured for enhanced aerial surveillance and reconnaissance, with an MRO facility in India.
4. Interceptor Boats D. Compatible with IRNSS, GPS, and GLONASS for high accuracy in navigation.

Options:

A) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B

B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A

C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

D) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – C

Q. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014)

  1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
  2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
  3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads abod 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

Answer 4 A

Explanation

  • 1 – C: MQ-9B UAVs are procured for enhanced aerial surveillance and reconnaissance, with an MRO facility in India.
  • 2 – A: INS Vikramaditya is scheduled for refit to extend operational life.
  • 3 – D: Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS) Mk-II is compatible with IRNSS, GPS, and GLONASS for high accuracy in navigation.
  • 4 – B: Interceptor Boats are designed for coastal surveillance and search & rescue operations.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.   

Threats to Endemic Andaman species of Charles Darwin’s frog

Source: Down-to-earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/charles-darwins-frog-endemic-andaman-species-breeding-in-unnatural-sites-due-to-habitat-loss-competition-for-limited-resources

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context:  Charles Darwin’s frog species

Why in News 

  • According to researchers from India and the United States, the Charles Darwin frog species, native to the Andaman Islands, is exhibiting unusual mating and egg-laying behaviors. 
  • This is raising concerns due to the potential impact of climate change.

Overview 

  • Recent research conducted by teams from Harvard University, the University of Delhi, the Zoological Survey of India, and the University of Minnesota, published in the Harvard Museum of Comparative Zoology’s journal Breviora, has revealed significant changes in the mating and egg-laying behaviors of the Charles Darwin frog (Minervarya charlesdarwini), an endemic species to the Andaman Islands. 
  • The study highlights the impact of climate change and habitat disruption on this vulnerable species.

Key Findings 

  • Upside-Down Mating: The Charles Darwin frog exhibits a unique behavior of mating and laying eggs while being upside down. This means that both male and female frogs adopt an inverted position on the walls of tree cavities, keeping their bodies above the water. This behavior is quite distinct, as no other frog species is known to lay eggs inside tree holes while maintaining this position.
  • Egg Development: The eggs laid in this inverted position hatch into tadpoles that then descend into the water below. This adaptation is seen as a response to environmental changes affecting their natural habitats.

Adaptation to Environmental Changes

  • Breeding in Artificial Sites: The study observed that Charles Darwin frogs are increasingly using artificial objects for breeding. These include plastic sapling bags and various forms of human waste such as discarded plastic, glass, and metal containers. This shift likely results from the loss and fragmentation of their natural forest habitats.
  • Implications of Habitat Loss: The adaptation to breeding in human-made debris highlights a significant environmental shift. The frogs’ natural habitats are being replaced by disturbed and fragmented areas, forcing them to use available, albeit unnatural, breeding sites.

Behavioral Observations

  • Mating Calls and Aggression: The researchers documented three types of complex mating calls used by males to attract females. Aggressive encounters among males were also noted, where they engage in physical confrontations to assert dominance. These fights sometimes involve severe actions like biting off body parts or even the head.
  • Fight Outcomes: Despite the aggression, these confrontations rarely result in fatalities. This aggressive behavior is unusual and reflects the high competition for mating opportunities.

Conservation Implications 

  • Vulnerability and Habitat Fragmentation: The Charles Darwin frog is listed as ‘vulnerable’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. The species faces threats from habitat fragmentation and environmental changes. The observed behavior of breeding in human-made debris underscores the pressing need for conservation efforts.
  • Need for Protection: The research calls for increased conservation measures to protect the frog’s natural breeding sites and address the impacts of habitat loss. Ensuring the preservation of these critical habitats is essential for the species’ survival.

Broader Significance 

  • Scientific Discovery: The study underscores the remarkable diversity of amphibian species and their reproductive behaviors. It highlights how species adapt to changing environments and the potential impact of human activities on these adaptations.
  • Future Research Needs: Further research is necessary to understand the long-term consequences of these behavioral changes and to develop strategies for protecting natural habitats and breeding sites.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Which of the following statements correctely describes the recent findings regarding the Charles Darwin frog (Minervarya charlesdarwini)?

  1. The Charles Darwin frog exhibits unusual mating and egg-laying behaviors.
  2. This frog species has been observed to use human waste as breeding grounds.
  3. The study indicates that the frog’s mating calls are highly complex and varied.
  4. The Charles Darwin frog is not listed on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

Options: 

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Consider the following: (2024)

  1. Butterflies
  2. Fish
  3. Frogs

     How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

      (a)   Only one

      (b)   Only two

      (c)   All three

      (d)   None

Ans: c

Answer 5 A

Explanation

  • The study found that this frog species engages in unique mating and egg-laying behaviors, including spawning while being upside down on the walls of tree cavities. Hence is Statement 1 correct.
  • The study observed that Charles Darwin frogs increasingly use artificial objects such as plastic sapling bags and human waste (including discarded plastic, glass, and metal containers) for breeding, due to the loss and fragmentation of their natural habitats. Hence is Statement 2 correct.
  • The study did find that the Charles Darwin frogs produce complex mating calls, but these calls are relatively simple compared to other species. The focus was more on the unusual mating behavior rather than the complexity of calls. Hence is Statement 3 incorrect.
  • The Charles Darwin frog is listed as ‘vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss and fragmentation. Hence is Statement 4 incorrect.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

First batch of medicine for treat amoebic meningoencephalitis received by Kerala govt

Source: Deccan Herald

https://www.deccanherald.com/india/kerala/first-batch-of-medicine-for-treat-amoebic-meningoencephalitis-received-by-kerala-govt-3127578

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Science and Technology

Context: Medicine for treat amoebic meningoencephalitis 

Why in News 

  • The Kerala government received the first batch of a medicine, donated by a UAE-based entrepreneur.

Overview 

  • On July 30, 2024, it was reported that the Kerala government received its first batch of Miltefosine, a crucial medicine donated by UAE-based entrepreneur Dr. Shamsheer Vayalil. 
  • This medicine is intended to treat amoebic meningoencephalitis (AME), a rare and highly lethal infection with a 97% mortality rate. 
  • This development comes in response to a recent outbreak in Kerala where six cases of AME were detected, resulting in three fatalities.

Background of Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (AME)

  • Cause: AME is caused by free-living amoebae, primarily found in freshwater sources like lakes, rivers, and streams.
  • Mortality Rate: The disease is extremely deadly with a mortality rate of approximately 97%.
  • Global Recovery Rate: Only 11 people worldwide have reportedly recovered from AME.

Recent Outbreak in Kerala

  • Cases: Kerala has recently reported six cases of AME. Among them, two boys, aged 14 and 12, have recovered from the infection, while two others are currently receiving treatment in Kozhikode. Unfortunately, three children have died in the past two months due to the disease.
  • First Recovery: The recovery of the 14-year-old boy marked the first documented recovery in the state, as noted by Kerala Health Minister Veena George.

Role of Miltefosine 

  • Donor: The medicine, Miltefosine, was donated by Dr. Shamsheer Vayalil, founder of VPS Healthcare, and imported from Germany.
  • Importance: Miltefosine is a critical drug for treating AME due to its ability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier and concentrate in brain tissue. Its effectiveness against AME was identified after consultations with the central government.
  • Availability: Miltefosine is limited in availability in India, which prompted the donation. The first batch received contained 56 units valued at ₹3.19 lakh, and a second batch is expected soon.

Development of Treatment Protocol 

  • Meeting and Guidelines: Following the detection of the disease, a special meeting chaired by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan on July 5 led to the establishment of molecular testing facilities for early diagnosis. On May 28, a meeting was convened to develop treatment guidelines, culminating in the release of a comprehensive treatment protocol on July 20.
  • Historical Context: The disease was previously reported in Kerala’s coastal Alappuzha district in 2023 and 2017.

Miltefosine’s Background and Mechanism 

  • Historical Use: Initially developed in the 1980s as an anti-cancer agent, Miltefosine has since become the only recognized oral treatment for leishmaniasis and has shown promise in treating rare amoebic infections like AME and granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE).
  • Mechanism: Although the exact mechanism of Miltefosine’s effectiveness against AME is not fully understood, it is known to effectively penetrate the blood-brain barrier, making it beneficial in treating brain infections.

Public Health Response

  • Preparedness: The Kerala government’s swift action in receiving and distributing Miltefosine highlights the proactive measures taken to address the outbreak and manage the treatment effectively.
  • Protocols: The development of a comprehensive treatment protocol represents a significant advancement in managing such rare and deadly diseases.

International Cooperation and Philanthropy

  • Support: The donation by Dr. Shamsheer Vayalil and VPS Healthcare exemplifies international support and collaboration in addressing global health challenges.
  • Impact: The availability of Miltefosine could significantly improve treatment outcomes for AME patients and may offer insights into managing similar infections in the future.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q6.  Which of the following statements about the recent treatment developments for amoebic meningoencephalitis (AME) in Kerala is correct?

  1. The treatment for AME in Kerala is funded by the central government.
  2. Miltefosine, the drug used for treating AME, was donated by Dr. Shamsheer Vayalil.
  3. The drug Miltefosine is available in large quantities in India.
  4. AME is primarily contracted from saltwater sources.

Options: 

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Q.  In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : (2022)

  1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
  2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
  3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Answer 6 B

Explanation

  • The treatment was provided through a donation from Dr. Shamsheer Vayalil, not funded by the central government. Hence is Statement 1 incorrect.
  • Dr. Shamsheer Vayalil, a UAE-based entrepreneur, donated Miltefosine to Kerala for treating AME. Hence is Statement 2 correct.
  • Miltefosine is noted to be limited in availability in India, which prompted the donation.  Hence is Statement 3 incorrect.
  • AME is caused by free-living amoebae typically found in freshwater sources like lakes, rivers, and streams, not saltwater sources.  Hence is Statement 4 incorrect.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

 

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