CARE 26th July 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (26-07-2024)

News at a Glance
Polity and Governance: Kerala HC stayed release of Hema Commission report
Is immunity for the President and Governors absolute?
Science and Technology: AI and environmental concerns
Awards: Nida Collado from Philippines awarded Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award
Economy: Govt Launches ‘Model Skill Loan Scheme’ To Provide Education and Upskilling Opportunities To 25,000 Youngsters

Hema Commission report- why has the Kerala HC stayed its release?

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/hema-commission-report-release-stayed-kerala-hc-explained-9475373/  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- Polity and governance, judiciary

Context: Hema Commission report

Why in News 

  • A single bench of the Kerala High Court stayed the release of the Justice Hema Commission report.

Background of the Incident 

  • On February 17, 2017, a prominent Malayalam film actress was abducted and sexually assaulted by a group of men while traveling from Thrissur to Kochi. 
  • The assault, which was filmed in an apparent attempt to blackmail the survivor, triggered widespread shock and outrage across Kerala. 
  • Six of the ten accused were arrested shortly after the incident, while popular actor Dileep was also named as an accused and remanded to judicial custody in July.
  • The case has been ongoing since 2020, with Dileep currently out on bail.

Formation of the Women in Cinema Collective 

  • In response to the assault and the subsequent revelations of gender discrimination within the Malayalam film industry, the Women in Cinema Collective (WCC) was formed. 
  • The WCC petitioned the Chief Minister, urging an investigation into the gender issues prevalent in the industry.

The Hema Commission 

  • In July 2017, the Kerala government established a three-member committee, the Hema Commission, led by retired Kerala High Court judge Justice K.Hema. 
  • The commission was tasked with investigating sexual harassment and gender inequality in the Malayalam film industry.

Findings and Recommendations 

  • The Hema Commission consulted with numerous women professionals in the industry, documenting their experiences of sexual harassment, wage disparities, and potential blacklisting. 
  • The report, which was completed in December 2019, included a 300-page document along with supporting evidence. 
  • It highlighted the prevalence of a casting couch and the use of alcohol and drugs on film sets. 
  • The commission recommended the establishment of a tribunal to further investigate the issues raised.

Delay and Controversy Surrounding the Report 

  • Despite the commission’s report being submitted in December 2019, the Kerala government did not act on its recommendations. 
  • The government argued that the commission was not appointed under the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952, which delayed the release and implementation of the report.
  • In January 2022, the government formed a panel to review and implement the report’s recommendations.
  • A draft of the recommendations was vaguely released in May 2022, which included proposals for mandatory job contracts, wage parity, banning drugs and alcohol on sets, and ensuring safe working conditions for women.
  • Dissatisfied with the slow progress, RTI activists and media persons petitioned the Kerala State Information Commission (KSIC) for action.

KSIC’s Decision and Court Intervention

  • On July 6, 2024, the KSIC ruled in favor of a controlled release of the report while preserving the privacy of those who had testified. 
  • The 233-page report was set to be released on July 24, 2024, but was stayed by the Kerala High Court. 
  • The stay was granted based on a petition from film producer Saji Parayil, who argued that the report’s release would compromise public interest and violate privacy rights, potentially leading to retaliation and harassment.

Key Points of Contention 

  • The core issue revolves around balancing the need for transparency and the protection of individual privacy. 
  • The concerns raised by Saji Parayil highlight the complexities of releasing sensitive information that could have repercussions for those involved in the report.

Implications for the Malayalam Film Industry

  • The report’s findings and the ongoing legal proceedings underscore the significant challenges in addressing gender inequality and sexual harassment within the industry. 
  • The case reflects broader issues of systemic discrimination and the difficulties in reforming established practices.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Hema Commission:

  1. The Justice Hema Commission was established by the Kerala government to address issues related to sexual harassment and gender inequality in the Malayalam film industry.
  2. The Hema Commission’s report was released publicly immediately after its submission to the Chief Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2
Which one among the following commission was set-up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? (2006)

(a) University Grants Commission

(b) National Human Rights Commission

(c) Election Commission

(d) Central Vigilance Commission

Ans. (c) 

Answer 1 A

Explanation

  • The Kerala government formed the Justice Hema Commission in July 2017 specifically to investigate issues related to sexual harassment and pervasive gender inequality within the Malayalam film industry. The commission was headed by retired Kerala High Court judge Justice K. Hema and was tasked with looking into these critical issues.  Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • Although the Justice Hema Commission submitted its report to the Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan in December 2019, the report was not released to the public immediately. There was a significant delay in its release due to various reasons, including the government’s stance that the commission was not constituted under the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952. 
  • The state government did not act on releasing the report for several years, and it was only in July 2024, following a ruling by the Kerala State Information Commission, that a controlled release was ordered, which was subsequently stayed by the Kerala High Court. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.   

Is immunity for the President and Governors absolute? 

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/is-immunity-for-the-president-and-governors-absolute-explained/article68442923.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: Blanket immunity under Article 361 for the President and Governors

Why in News 

  • A three-judge Bench led by Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud has involved the Union government and sought the Attorney General’s help to assess if the “blanket” immunity under Article 361 for the President and Governors from criminal proceedings undermines fairness, constitutional morality, and fundamental rights.

Background of the Case 

  • A contractual woman employee of Raj Bhavan has accused West Bengal Governor C.V. Ananda Bose of sexual harassment and molestation. 
  • She contends that the “absolute immunity” granted to the Governor, based on the outdated notion that “the King can do no wrong,” has led the police to handle her complaint dismissively. 
  • The employee, referred to as ‘XXX’ in Supreme Court records to protect her identity, argues that she must wait for the Governor to leave office before her complaint can be investigated. 
  • She fears that this delay could ultimately deny her justice and has urged the court to direct the West Bengal police to investigate. 
  • She also requests the court to set guidelines defining the extent of this immunity.

Legal Framework 

Article 361 (1):

  • The President and Governors are not answerable to any court for acts done in exercise and performance of their powers and duties.
  • Proviso 1: The President’s conduct can be reviewed by any court, tribunal, or body designated by either House of Parliament for an impeachment charge under Article 61.
  • Proviso 2: The immunity does not prevent someone from suing the Centre or State concerned.

Article 361 (2):

  • Prevents any criminal proceedings against the President or a Governor during their term of office.

The Supreme Court is interpreting clause (2) of Article 361 to determine when criminal proceedings can be initiated against a President or Governor, challenging the extent of this protective immunity.

Historical Context 

  • During the Constituent Assembly debates in September 1949, concerns were raised about the vague language in clause (2) of Article 361, specifically whether a President or Governor could maintain immunity by remaining in office despite committing a criminal act. This question was left unresolved.

Arguments Raised

  • Petitioner’s Argument: The immunity under Article 361(2) should not cover illegal acts or those infringing on fundamental rights, such as the right to life under Article 21. 
  • The immunity should not prevent the police from investigating or naming the perpetrator in the complaint/FIR. 
  • The petitioner argues that no part of the Governor’s powers includes the right to sexually abuse employees.
  • Legal Precedents:
    • In Rameshwar Prasad vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court interpreted that ‘civil immunity’ under Article 361(4) did not remove the power of citizens to challenge actions of the President or Governors on grounds of ‘malafides’. This reasoning could extend to criminal immunity.
    • The Madhya Pradesh High Court in Ram Naresh vs State of Madhya Pradesh held that the immunity does not impair the police’s power to investigate an offence, including recording the Governor’s statement.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Article 361 of the Indian Constitution:

  1. Article 361 provides absolute immunity to the President and Governors from any judicial proceedings.
  2. The conduct of the President can be reviewed by any court, tribunal, or body designated by either House of Parliament for the purpose of impeachment.
  3. Article 361(2) mandates that no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against the President or a Governor during their term of office.

Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2, and 3
Q. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014)

  1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
  2. Appointing the Ministers
  3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Answer 2- B

Explanation

    • Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governors from criminal proceedings while they are in office, but it does not grant absolute immunity from all judicial proceedings. For example, civil proceedings can be initiated under certain conditions, and the conduct of the President can be reviewed for impeachment purposes. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    • The first proviso to Article 361(1) allows the conduct of the President to be reviewed by any court, tribunal, or body designated by either House of Parliament for the investigation of a charge under Article 61 (impeachment for violation of the Constitution). So, Statement 2 is correct.
    • Article 361(2) specifically states that no criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or a Governor in any court during their term of office. So, Statement 3 is correct.
  •  Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

AI and environmental concerns

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/why-ais-present-and-future-bring-some-serious-environmental-concerns-9476135/ .

UPSC Relevance: GS3- Science and Technology

Context: Google’s Emissions Report and AI Impact

Why in News

  • In its latest environment report, Google reported a 13% rise in its emissions footprint for 2023 compared to the previous year.

Google’s Emissions Increase 

  • In its latest environment report, Google reported a 13% rise in its emissions footprint for 2023 compared to the previous year.
  • This increase is primarily due to a significant rise in electricity consumption by its data centres, which increased by 17% in 2023.
  • The trend of increasing emissions is expected to continue due to the growing deployment and use of artificial intelligence (AI) tools, which demand more computational resources and, consequently, more energy.

AI’s Heavy Emissions Footprint

  • AI Technology: AI has a substantial emissions footprint, which is becoming more apparent as its use expands.
  • Energy Consumption: Studies indicate that a single AI query (such as those made to OpenAI’s ChatGPT) can use between 10 and 33 times more energy than a standard Google search. This is even more pronounced for image-based AI searches.
  • Reason: The computational complexity of AI models requires more energy for processing data compared to traditional searches.

Reasons for Increased Emissions  

  • Processing Power: AI models are designed to analyze and process large volumes of data to generate responses. This intense computational work demands significantly more electricity.
  • Data Handling: The handling, processing, and storing of large datasets require more electrical signals, which contributes to higher energy consumption.
  • Heat Production: The extensive processing power used by AI generates more heat.
  • Cooling Needs: This heat necessitates the use of powerful cooling systems in data centres, such as air conditioning, which further increases energy use.

Projected Impact on Global Energy Consumption

  • Global Share: Data centres currently account for between 1% and 1.3% of the world’s electricity consumption.
  • Future Projections: The International Energy Agency (IEA) projects that this share could double, reaching between 1.5% and 3% by 2026 due to increasing use of AI and other technologies.
  • Electric Vehicles (EVs): Despite the increase in EVs, they account for only about 0.5% of global electricity consumption, which is significantly lower compared to data centres.

Regional Impact 

  • Ireland 🡪 High Consumption: In Ireland, data centres consume 18% of the country’s electricity. This is largely due to the country’s tax incentives and favorable policies for data centre operations. 
  • United States: 🡪 Consumption Range: In the U.S., data centres’ electricity use ranges between 1.3% and 4.5% of national demand, reflecting the large number of data centres and their significant energy requirements. 
  • India 🡪 Unavailable Data: Specific statistics for India’s data centre electricity consumption are not provided. However, as the deployment of AI and data centres is expected to grow rapidly, the environmental impact is anticipated to become more pronounced.

Scenario in India 

  • The environmental impact of AI and data centres in India will likely become evident soon. 
  • The increased demand on water resources for cooling data centres is also a concern.
  • For instance, a data centre serving OpenAI’s GPT-4 model in Iowa consumed 6% of the district’s water supply in July 2022.
  • As AI technology expands in India, it is crucial to plan its growth in a way that minimizes environmental impacts. 
  • This includes ensuring that data centres adopt more efficient practices to reduce their emissions.

Alternative View on AI’s Potential Benefits

  • Boston Consulting Group Study: A study by the Boston Consulting Group suggests that the widespread use of AI could lead to a 5-10% reduction in global emissions by 2030. This reduction is attributed to AI’s potential to optimize industrial and corporate processes.
  • Economic Value: The same study estimates that AI could create $1.3 trillion to $2.6 trillion in value through increased revenues or cost savings, highlighting the dual potential of AI to both drive economic benefits and contribute to environmental improvements.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. In the context of the environmental impact of artificial intelligence (AI) and data centres, consider the following statements:

  1. Google reported a 13% increase in its emissions footprint in 2023, primarily due to higher electricity consumption in its data centres and supply chains.
  2. Studies indicate that a single AI query uses between 10 and 33 times more energy than a standard Google search.
  3. The International Energy Agency (IEA) projects that by 2026, data centres will account for between 1.5% and 3% of global electricity consumption.
  4. The Boston Consulting Group estimates that large-scale deployment of AI could result in a 5-10% reduction in global emissions by 2030.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2, and 3 only
  2. 1, 3, and 4 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022)

  1. Database created by coalition of research organisations
  2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
  3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
  4. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank 

Answer. A

Answer 3 D

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. Google did report a 13% increase in its emissions footprint in 2023 due to higher electricity consumption in its data centres and supply chains. 
    • Statement 2 is correct. AI queries, such as those made to OpenAI’s ChatGPT, consume between 10 and 33 times more energy than a standard Google search.
    • Statement 3 is correct. The IEA projects that data centres will account for between 1.5% and 3% of global electricity consumption by 2026.
    • Statement 4 is correct. According to a study by the Boston Consulting Group, AI could lead to a 5-10% reduction in global emissions by 2030.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Nida Collado awarded Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award

Source: Down To Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/community-leader-from-philippines-awarded-wangari-maathai-forest-champions-award  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  Awards

Context: Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award 2024

Why in news 

  • Nida Collado has been honored with the Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award 2024 for her outstanding efforts in forest conservation and community empowerment in the Philippines. 

Award Recognition 

  • Nida Collado has been honored with the Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award 2024 for her outstanding efforts in forest conservation and community empowerment in the Philippines. 
  • The award was presented to her by CPF at a ceremony during the 27th Session of the Committee on Forestry in Rome, Italy, which took place from July 22 to July 26, 2024.

Contributions and Leadership

  • Role and Impact: Collado is the president of the Macatumbalen Community-Based Forest and Coastal Management Association (MBFCMA), an organization focused on community-centered conservation. Under her leadership, the MBFCMA has implemented various successful initiatives, including reforesting 1,450 hectares of degraded land and protecting 400 hectares of standing forests. These efforts have played a crucial role in biodiversity restoration and improved local livelihoods.
  • Innovative Approaches: Collado’s work includes integrating traditional wisdom with modern conservation techniques, particularly in restoring fragmented mangroves. By creating interconnected mangrove pockets managed by local communities, she has enhanced the ecological integrity of these ecosystems while supporting local fisheries.

Challenges and Responses 

  • Deforestation Context: The Philippines has faced severe deforestation, losing approximately 10 million hectares of forest cover during the 20th century. Commercial logging and destructive farming practices, exacerbated by events like Typhoon Rai in December 2021, have further threatened the forest environment.
  • Community Efforts: Despite challenges such as low seedling survival rates, poaching, and illegal wildlife trafficking, Collado and the MBFCMA have made significant strides. They signed a 25-year conservation agreement in 2002 to protect and sustainably use 1,850 hectares of forest and continue to tackle these issues through education and community organization.

Previous Award Recipients

  • Cécile Ndjebet (2022): The award was previously given to Cécile Ndjebet from Cameroon for her efforts in conserving forests and advocating for women’s rights to land and forest resources.

Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award

  • The Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award is an annual recognition bestowed by the Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF)
  • Established in 2012, this award honors individuals who have made exemplary contributions to forest conservation and community management. 
  • The award is named in memory of Wangari Maathai, a Kenyan environmentalist and Nobel Peace Prize laureate renowned for her pioneering work in sustainable development and women’s empowerment.

Purpose

The primary aim of the award is to:

  • Recognize Excellence: Acknowledge outstanding achievements in forest conservation and community management.
  • Promote Best Practices: Encourage innovative approaches and strategies that contribute to sustainable forest management.
  • Inspire Others: Serve as an inspiration for others to engage in and support forest conservation efforts.

Award Details

  • Prize Money: The award includes a cash prize of $20,000.
  • Eligibility: The award is open to individuals who have demonstrated exceptional leadership and commitment in the field of forest management and conservation. This includes work in community forest management, protection of forests, restoration of degraded lands, and promotion of sustainable practices.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4.  Consider the following statements regarding the Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award:

  1. The award was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in memory of Wangari Maathai.
  2. It is given annually to individuals who have made significant contributions to forest conservation and community management.
  3. The award includes a cash prize of $10,000.
  4. The Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF) is responsible for presenting the award.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021)

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Answer 4 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Wangari Maathai Forest Champions Award was established by the Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF), not the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • Statement 2 is correct. The award is given annually to individuals who have made significant contributions to forest conservation and community management.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The award includes a cash prize of $20,000, not $10,000.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The CPF is responsible for presenting the award.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Govt Launches ‘Model Skill Loan Scheme’ To Provide Education And Upskilling Opportunities To 25,000 Youngsters

Source: Down To Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/community-leader-from-philippines-awarded-wangari-maathai-forest-champions-award  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: Soc-economic scheme

Context: Addressing the skill gap in the country and enhancing employability among the youth

Why in news 

  • The Government of India recently launched the ‘Model Skill Loan Scheme,’ aiming to provide education and upskilling opportunities to 25,000 youngsters annually. 

Key Objectives and Features of the Scheme 

  • Inclusivity in Education and Skill Development:
  • The scheme targets a broad spectrum of students, including those from economically weaker sections, ensuring that financial constraints do not hinder their educational and skill development pursuits.
  • It covers a wide range of courses, including Industrial Training Institutes (ITI), polytechnics, and other skill development institutions recognized by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
  • Financial Support:
  • Loans ranging from ₹5,000 to ₹1.5 lakh will be provided to eligible students.
  • The interest rate on these loans is kept minimal to make it accessible for a larger number of beneficiaries.
  • Repayment terms are designed to be student-friendly, with a moratorium period during the course duration and an additional six months post-completion to allow students time to find suitable employment. 
  • Collaborative Efforts:
  • The scheme is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and various financial institutions, ensuring a robust framework for implementation.
  • Banks and financial institutions participating in this scheme are expected to adopt a proactive approach to disbursing loans and providing guidance to students.
  • Implementation and Monitoring:
  • A dedicated portal has been set up for the application and monitoring of the scheme, ensuring transparency and efficiency.
  • Regular audits and reviews will be conducted to ensure the scheme’s objectives are being met and to address any operational challenges.
  • Promotion of Digital Literacy and Advanced Skills:
  • The scheme places a significant emphasis on digital literacy and advanced technological skills, aligning with the government’s vision of a ‘Digital India.’
  • Courses in emerging fields such as artificial intelligence, data science, and cybersecurity are encouraged under this scheme, preparing the youth for the future job market.

Impact and Future Prospects:

  • The ‘Model Skill Loan Scheme’ is expected to have a transformative impact on the education and skill development landscape in India. By providing financial support for skill acquisition, the scheme aims to enhance the employability of young individuals, thereby contributing to the country’s economic growth.

Economic Empowerment:

  • With a better-skilled workforce, industries are likely to witness increased productivity and innovation.
  • The scheme will help in reducing unemployment rates by equipping students with skills that are in demand in the job market.

Social Upliftment:

  • By focusing on inclusivity, the scheme addresses social disparities, ensuring that students from all backgrounds have equal opportunities to succeed.
  • It also promotes a culture of continuous learning and skill development, essential for adapting to the rapidly changing job market.

Alignment with National Goals:

  • This initiative aligns with several national objectives, including the ‘Skill India Mission’ and the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ campaign, which emphasize self-reliance and skill development.

Conclusion

  • In conclusion, the ‘Model Skill Loan Scheme’ represents a forward-thinking approach to education and skill development. 
  • By removing financial barriers and promoting a wide array of courses, the scheme not only empowers the youth but also strengthens the nation’s human capital. 
  • As the scheme unfolds, its success will depend on effective implementation, continuous monitoring, and adaptive measures to address emerging challenges and opportunities.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Model Skill Loan Scheme’ launched by the Government of India:

  1. The scheme aims to provide education and upskilling opportunities to 25,000 youngsters annually.
  2. It offers loans ranging from ₹5,000 to ₹1.5 lakh to eligible students.
  3. Only students from economically weaker sections are eligible for this scheme.
  4. The scheme emphasizes courses in emerging fields such as artificial intelligence, data science, and cybersecurity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2, and 4 only
  3. 1, 3, and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q. Consider the following statement: (2023)

Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.

Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  4. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: (d)

Answer 5 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The scheme is designed to provide education and upskilling opportunities to 25,000 youngsters annually.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The scheme offers loans ranging from ₹5,000 to ₹1.5 lakh to eligible students to cover the cost of education and skill development programs.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme targets a broad spectrum of students, not just those from economically weaker sections. It aims to be inclusive and accessible to all eligible students regardless of their economic background.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The scheme emphasizes courses in emerging fields such as artificial intelligence, data science, and cybersecurity, aligning with the government’s vision of promoting digital literacy and advanced technological skills.

 

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