CARE 25th July 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (25-07-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: About progress on UN Security Council expansion
Environment and Ecology: Next batch of African cheetahs in Kutch
Polity and Governance: Khelo India Rising Talent Identification for aspiring champions
Power of State Legislatures to levy tax on mines, quarries cannot be limited by Parliament says Supreme Court
Science and technology: Supreme Court couldn’t agree on environmental release of GM mustard

About progress on UN Security Council expansion

Source: The Hindu

https://thehindu.com/news/national/no-real-progress-on-un-security-council-expansion-say-former-ambassadors/article68441830.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 International Relations

Context: United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reform

Why in News 

  • Despite ongoing efforts by India and other countries, the push for United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reform and expansion has stalled. 

Key Highlights 

  • Former Indian Permanent Representative to the UN Ruchira Khamboj (2022-2024) noted that while there has been some movement in making the Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) process on UN reforms more transparent, there has been no real progress. 
  • The IGN process now features live broadcasts and a digital repository for proposals, but substantial advancements are absent.
  • Two former Indian Ambassadors to the UN stressed the importance of continuing to advocate for India’s inclusion in the global decision-making body.

Frustration Ahead of the Summit of the Future 

  • The upcoming Summit of the Future at the UN, scheduled for September 22-23, is expected to see over 150 world leaders discussing plans to “reboot” the UN. 
  • India, along with its G-4 partners (Brazil, Germany, and Japan), has expressed frustration over the lack of progress in UNSC reform and the diluted wording of the proposed “Pact of the Future”.

India’s Continued Advocacy 

  • India’s Acting Permanent Representative emphasized the failure of the current multilateral system, citing the outdated composition of the UNSC, which still reflects the “1945-vintage binary outlook.” 
  • A time-bound” negotiations to be included in the “Pact of the Future” to ensure meaningful progress in UNSC reform.

G-4’s Critique 

  • Brazil’s Permanent Representative Sérgio França Danese, speaking on behalf of the G-4, criticized the current language of the “Pact of the Future,” saying it had been significantly diluted due to pressure from opponents of reform, including the P-5 members and the Uniting for Consensus (UfC) group.

India’s Long-Term Goals 

  • Despite the challenges, diplomats and former representatives maintain that India must continue to pursue its goal of securing a permanent seat at the UNSC. 
  • India’s Permanent Representative from 2016 to 2020, emphasized that India, as an aspirational country, should persist in its efforts regardless of the timeline.

Strategic Considerations 

  • Officials have not yet confirmed India’s strategy for the upcoming UN General Assembly (UNGA) session, nor who will attend the Summit of the Future. 
  • An earlier plan for G-4 leaders to highlight their demand for permanent membership together may be affected by domestic political considerations, particularly for Japan.

Upcoming International Engagements 

  • India’s schedule includes international travel and domestic commitments, with possible appearances at the BIMSTEC Summit in Thailand, the ASEAN-India Summit in Laos in October, and the BRICS Summit in Russia, which will feature new members Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE.

What is the UN? 

  • The United Nations (UN) is an international organization founded in 1945. 
  • It is currently made up of 193 Member States.
  • Its mission and work guided by the purposes and principles contained in its founding Charter and implemented by its various organs and specialised agencies.
  • Its activities include maintaining international peace and security, protecting human rights, delivering humanitarian aid, promoting sustainable development and upholding international law.

What is the History of UN Foundation? 

  • In 1899, the International Peace Conference was held in The Hague to elaborate instruments for settling crises peacefully, preventing wars and codifying rules of warfare.
  • It adopted the Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes and established the Permanent Court of Arbitration, which began work in 1902. This court was the forerunner of UN International Court of Justice.
  • The forerunner of the United Nations was the League of Nations, an organization conceived in circumstances of the First World War, and established in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles “to promote international cooperation and to achieve peace and security.”
  • The International Labour Organization (ILO) was also created in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League.
  • The name “United Nations”, coined by United States President Franklin D. Roosevelt.  

United Nations Conference on International Organization (1945)

  • Conference held in San Francisco (USA), was attended by representatives of 50 countries and signed the United Nations Charter.
  • The UN Charter of 1945 is the foundational treaty of the United Nations, as an inter-governmental organization.
  • Components of the UN: The main organs of the UN are
    • the General Assembly,
    • the Security Council,
    • the Economic and Social Council,
    • the Trusteeship Council,
    • the International Court of Justice,
    • and the UN Secretariat.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reforms:

  1. The Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) process has made significant concrete progress in UNSC reforms since 2023.
  2. The G-4 countries, including India, support the expansion of both permanent and non-permanent memberships in the UNSC.
  3. The P-5 members and the Uniting for Consensus (UfC) group have consistently opposed the expansion of permanent memberships in the UNSC.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
  2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year
  3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans: (a)

Answer 1- B

Explanation:

  • Although there have been efforts to make the IGN process more transparent, such as live broadcasts and a digital repository for proposals, there has not been significant concrete progress in terms of actual reforms being implemented. Former Indian Permanent Representative to the UN Ruchira Khamboj noted the lack of real progress in concrete terms. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • The G-4 countries (India, Brazil, Germany, and Japan) advocate for the expansion of both permanent and non-permanent seats in the UNSC to better reflect the current global realities and ensure more equitable representation. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The P-5 members (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) along with the Uniting for Consensus (UfC) group, which includes countries like Canada, Italy, and Pakistan, have consistently opposed the expansion of permanent memberships, favoring instead more non-permanent, rotational seats. Hence statement 3 is correct
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Next batch of African Cheetahs in Kutch

Source: The Hindu 

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/kutch-being-readied-for-next-batch-of-african-cheetahs/article68442300.ece#:~:text=told%20The%20Hindu.-,Banni%20is%20a%20vast%20grassland%20in%20the%20southern%20part%20of,to%20sustain%20a%20viable%20population.  

UPSC Relevance: GS3 – Environment and Ecology

Context: Banni grasslands

Why in News 

The next batch of cheetahs being brought from Africa may be sent to a new cheetah-breeding and conservation center being developed in the Banni grasslands of Gujarat. This is part of the next phase of Project Cheetah.

Key Highlights 

  • Gandhi Sagar sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh is the preferred site for the next set of wild cheetahs. 
  • However, Banni is also being prepared as a potential habitat for future cheetah populations.

Banni Grasslands: Characteristics and Preparation 

  • Location and Size: Banni is located in the northern part of Kutch, Gujarat, and covers nearly 3,500 square kilometers. This vast area provides ample space for cheetahs.
  • Infrastructure Development: The Gujarat government is working on setting up suitable enclosures in Banni for cheetah breeding. The goal is to have these facilities ready within the next six months.

Challenges in Banni 

  • Prey Base: Despite the large area, Banni currently lacks sufficient prey to sustain a viable cheetah population. Antelope species like chinkara and blackbuck are present, but their numbers are inadequate.
  • Long-Term Solution: To support a sustainable population, additional prey species such as chital will need to be introduced. This process will take years to develop a sufficient prey base.

Current Status of Cheetahs in India 

  • Kuno National Park: Of the 20 adult cheetahs brought to Kuno since September 2022, 13 have survived along with 13 cubs, totaling 26 cheetahs. However, Kuno’s maximum capacity is 21 adult cheetahs, and it faces challenges such as competition from leopards.
  • Import Requirements: India will need to import approximately 10-12 adult cheetahs annually for the next five years to build a sustainable breeding population.

Future Plans and Considerations 

  • Release of Cheetahs: All cheetahs currently at Kuno are expected to be released into the wild by October. These cheetahs have been housed in large enclosures called bomas to address acclimatization issues and health concerns.
  • Preparation for Future Batches: After the release, efforts will continue to prepare for the next batch of cheetahs, with sourcing expected to start again from South Africa and Namibia.

Key Advantages of Banni 

  • Absence of Leopards: Unlike Kuno and Gandhi Sagar, Banni does not have leopards, which could potentially help in sustaining a larger cheetah population if prey availability is increased over time.

Banni Grassland

  • Banni is the largest grassland of Asia situated near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
  • It is spread over 2,618 kilometres and accounts for almost 45% of the pastures in Gujarat.

Ecosystem and Vegetation

  • Two ecosystems, wetlands and grasslands, are mixed side by side in Banni.
  • Vegetation in Banni is sparse and highly dependent on rainfall.
  • Banni grasslands, traditionally, were managed following a system of rotational grazing.
  • Banni is dominated by low-growing plants, forbs and graminoids, many of which are halophiles (salt tolerant), as well as scattered tree cover and scrub.
  • The area is rich in flora and fauna, with 192 species of plants, 262 species of birds, several species of mammals, reptiles and amphibians.

Reserve Forest

  • In 1955, the court notified that the grassland will be a reserve forest (the most restricted forests classified according to Indian Forest Act 1927).
  • In 2019, the tribunal ordered to demarcate the boundaries of the Banni grassland and restricted non-forest activities.
  • Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has identified this grassland reserve as one of the last remaining habitats of the cheetah in India and a possible reintroduction site for the species.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements about Banni grasslands:

  1. Banni grasslands are located in Gujarat and are part of the Rann of Kutch.
  2. Antelope species such as chinkara and blackbuck are the primary prey for cheetahs in Banni.
  3. Banni has an abundant prey base to sustain a viable cheetah population.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following statements: (2019)

  1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
  2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
  3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Answer 2– B

Explanation – 

  • Banni grasslands are indeed located in Gujarat and are part of the Rann of Kutch. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • Antelope species like chinkara and blackbuck are present in Banni and are potential prey for cheetahs. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • Despite the large area of Banni, it currently does not have an abundant enough prey base to sustain a viable cheetah population. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Khelo India Rising Talent Identification for aspiring champions

Source: PIB

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013801#:~:text=KIRTI%20aims%20to%20conduct%2020,through%20notified%20Talent%20Assessment%20Centres.  

UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme 

Why in News

Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports inaugurated the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme, aiming to hunt talent and curb addiction among school children. 

Background 

  • The Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports inaugurated the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme at the Sector 7 sports complex in Chandigarh. 
  • The launch of KIRTI was met with much enthusiasm, aiming to identify and nurture young sports talent across India.

Objectives of KIRTI 

KIRTI has two primary objectives:

  • Talent Identification: The programme aims to scout for sports talent in school children aged between nine and 18 years from all over the country. By identifying promising athletes early, the programme hopes to build a robust pipeline of sports talent.
  • Curbing Addictions: KIRTI seeks to use sports as a tool to steer children away from drug addiction and distractions from gadgets. By engaging children in sports, the programme aims to promote a healthy and active lifestyle.

Prime Minister’s Vision 

  • The KIRTI programme is part of the Prime Minister’s vision to foster a culture of sports in India and create a talent pool capable of winning medals at international competitions like the Olympics and Asian Games. 
  • The initiative is seen as a crucial step towards making India a sports powerhouse.

About KIRTI Programme

  • KIRTI Programme is aimed at school children between nine and 18 years age group.
  • The nation-wide scheme will have two main objectives:
    • To hunt talent from every nook and corner of the country and
    • To use sports as a tool to curb addiction towards drugs and other gadgetry distractions.
  • KIRTI aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country throughout the year to identify talent through notified Talent Assessment Centres.
  • It wants to reach out to every block in the country and connect with those kids who want to play a sport but don’t know how.
  • KIRTI made a solid launch across 50 centres in India. Fifty thousand applicants are being assessed in the first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, wrestling, hockey, football and wrestling.
  • KIRTI’s athlete-centric programme is conspicuous by its transparent selection methodology based on Information Technology.
  • Data analytics based on Artificial Intelligence is being used to predict the sporting acumen in an aspiring athlete.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3.   Consider the following statements about the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme:

  1. The KIRTI programme aims to identify talent in school children between the ages of nine and 18.
  2. The programme will conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country to identify talent in 10 sports.
  3. The KIRTI programme utilizes Artificial Intelligence for predicting the sporting acumen of aspiring athletes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award       🡪 For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years

2. Arjuna Award 🡪       For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson

3. Dronacharya Award 🡪 To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams

4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar  🡪 To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

[A] Only one 

[B] Only two 

[C] Only three

[D] All four

 Ans: B

Answer 3 D

Explanation

  • The KIRTI programme indeed aims to identify and nurture sporting talent in school children between the ages of nine and 18 years. This age range is targeted to catch potential athletes early and guide their development. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The programme is designed to conduct 20 lakh (2 million) assessments across the country throughout the year. This large-scale effort is intended to identify talent in 10 different sports, highlighting the extensive scope and reach of the programme. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The KIRTI programme incorporates advanced technologies, including Artificial Intelligence (AI), to predict the sporting potential of aspiring athletes. AI and data analytics are used to evaluate and forecast the performance and potential of young athletes. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Power of State Legislatures to levy tax on mines, quarries cannot be limited by Parliament, says Supreme Court

Source: The   Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/power-of-state-legislatures-to-levy-tax-on-mineral-rights-not-limited-by-parliaments-mmdr-act-supreme-court/article68444320.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957 (MMDR Act)

Why in News 

A significant judgment delivered in a 8:1 ratio by a nine-judge Constitution Bench headed by Chief Justice of India (CJI) D.Y. Chandrachud held that the power of State Legislatures to tax mining lands and quarries is not limited by the Parliament’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957. 

Key Highlights

  • A nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court delivered a significant judgment regarding the taxation powers of State Legislatures over mining lands and quarries. 
  • The judgment was delivered in an 8:1 ratio and emphasized that State Legislatures have the authority to tax mining lands without being restricted by the Central Government’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957 (MMDR Act).

Key Findings

  • State Taxation Powers: The majority judgment clarified that State Legislatures derive their power to tax mines and quarries under Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, in conjunction with Entry 49 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule. This entry pertains to “tax on lands and buildings,” which includes mineral-bearing lands.
  • Federalism and Constitutional Provisions: The Court underscored that the power to tax mineral rights is a matter reserved for the State Legislatures. The MMDR Act, which pertains to mineral development and regulation, does not have the authority to limit or override the States’ power to impose taxes on mining lands.
  • Distinction Between Royalty and Tax: The judgment differentiated between “royalty” and “tax.” Royalty is considered a contractual payment made by mining lessees to the government for the enjoyment of mineral rights and is not classified as a tax. Consequently, State Governments can impose taxes on mining lands independently of the royalty obligations.
  • Limitations and Jurisdiction: The Central Government had argued that the MMDR Act imposed restrictions on State tax powers. However, the Court held that Entries 49 and 50 in the State List operate in distinct domains and that the MMDR Act does not limit State taxation powers. Entry 50 of the State List, which relates to “taxes on mineral rights,” does not permit the Parliament to impose limitations on State taxation beyond those specified by the Constitution.

Historical Context 

  • Previous Dispute: The judgment is rooted in a long-standing dispute involving a mining company and the Tamil Nadu Government. The company challenged the imposition of a cess on royalty, arguing it constituted a tax that exceeded the State’s legislative power.
  • Past Precedent: A seven-judge Bench had previously ruled that the Central Government held primary authority under the MMDR Act for regulating mining and mineral development. The recent nine-judge Bench re-examined this to determine if royalty constituted a tax and whether the earlier decision needed revision.

Implications 

  • Strengthening Federalism: The judgment reinforces the federalist principles of governance by affirming the autonomy of State Legislatures in matters related to taxation of mining lands.
  • Policy and Legal Impact: States have clearer jurisdictional authority to levy taxes on mineral-bearing lands, potentially influencing future policies on mineral resources and revenue collection.
  • Legal Precedent: The judgment provides a definitive interpretation of the relationship between State taxation powers and Central regulatory laws, guiding future legal and administrative actions related to mineral resources.

MMDR Act, 1957 

  • The MMDR Act, 1957 was amended in 2015 to introduce auction-based mineral concession allocation for transparency, create District Mineral Foundation (DMF) for the welfare of affected communities, establish National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) to promote exploration, and impose stricter penalties for illegal mining. 
  • The Act was further amended in 2016 and 2020 to address specific emergent issues and was last amended in 2021 to bring further reforms in the sector, such as, removing the distinction between captive and merchant mines, etc. 
  • However, the mineral sector required more reforms particularly for increasing exploration and mining of Critical Minerals that are essential for economic development and national security in the country. 
  • The lack of availability of the critical minerals or concentration of their extraction or processing in a few geographical locations may lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and even disruption of supplies. 
  • Critical minerals have gained significance in view of India’s commitment towards energy transition and achieving Net-Zero emission by 2070. 
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4.  Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court’s judgment on the taxation of mining lands:

  1. The State Legislatures have the power to tax mining lands and quarries, and this power is not restricted by the Central Government’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957 (MMDR Act).
  2. The Court distinguished between “royalty” and “tax,” ruling that royalty payments are considered taxes and therefore subject to Central Government regulation.
  3. The Central Government’s MMDR Act does not limit State taxation powers over mineral-bearing lands, as the Act and the State List entries operate in distinct domains.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following minerals: (2020)

  1. Bentonite
  2. Chromite
  3. Kyanite
  4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (d)

Answer 4 C

Explanation

  • The Supreme Court held that State Legislatures have the authority to tax mining lands and quarries, and this power is not constrained by the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957 (MMDR Act).  Statement 1 is Correct
  • The Court clarified that “royalty” is not classified as a tax. Instead, it is a contractual payment that mining lessees make to the government for the right to exploit mineral resources. The ruling stated that the nature of royalty is different from taxes and that it does not fall under the purview of state taxation. Therefore, royalty payments are not subject to the same limitations as taxes imposed by states. Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Supreme Court’s judgment emphasized that the MMDR Act and State List entries on taxation are distinct and operate in separate domains. The Court ruled that the Central Government’s MMDR Act does not encroach upon the states’ power to tax mineral-bearing lands. This distinction means that the MMDR Act does not impose limitations on the states’ authority to levy taxes on mining activities.  Statement 3 is Correct
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.   

Supreme Court couldn’t agree on environmental release of GM mustard

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/why-sc-couldnt-agree-on-environmental-release-of-gm-mustard-9474010/  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3- Science and Technology

Context: SC judgment on GM Mustard

Why in news 

  • A two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court delivered a split verdict on whether to allow the “environmental release” of Genetically Modified (GM) mustard. 

Background 

  • Genetically Modified (GM) Mustard: The case concerned the approval for the environmental release of a GM mustard, DMH-11, developed by the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP) at Delhi University. 
  • This GM mustard was engineered to be high-yield by incorporating two alien genes: ‘barnase’ for male sterility and ‘barstar’ to counteract this sterility.
  • Regulatory Body: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is responsible for approving proposals related to genetically engineered organisms in India.
  • Historical Context: GM mustard’s approval process began in 2015 with GEAC’s initial recommendation for environmental release in 2017. The proposal faced delays and additional scrutiny before being accepted by the Centre in October 2022.

Supreme Court Case: 

  • Dispute: Environmentalists challenged the approval, arguing that the process violated the precautionary principle and did not adequately consider potential long-term environmental and health impacts. 

Judgment Breakdown: 

  • Criticism of GEAC’s Process: Justice Nagarathna criticized GEAC for not conducting field tests as initially committed. The change in GEAC’s stance, without providing adequate reasoning, was seen as a failure to adhere to public trust and the precautionary principle.
  • Precautionary Principle Violation: She held that the GEAC’s approval did not align with the precautionary principle, which requires thorough assessment before environmental release to avoid harm.
  • Long-Term Effects: The lack of long-term studies on GM mustard’s effects was deemed a violation of environmental safety standards.
  • Support for Field Trials: Justice Karol argued that environmental release and subsequent field trials were essential to understand the GM mustard’s impact on health and biodiversity. He supported the need for field trials as necessary to study the crop’s performance and environmental safety.
  • Adherence to Precautionary Principle: Justice Karol believed that field trials, even though conducted in an open environment, complied with the precautionary principle by enabling a scientific assessment of the GM crop’s impact.

Judgment Outcome:

  • Split Verdict: The bench delivered a split decision, meaning there was no unanimous agreement on whether to approve the environmental release. The case was referred to a larger Bench for further review.
  • Directions for National Policy: Both judges agreed on the need for the Union of India to develop a National Policy on GM crops. This policy should include consultations with experts, farmer representatives, and state governments.

Key Points 

  • Legal Framework: Understanding the role of GEAC in regulating GM organisms and the application of precautionary principles in environmental law.
  • Judicial Reasoning: Analyzing the divergent views of the judges on regulatory compliance, public trust, and the necessity of field trials for GM crops.
  • Policy Implications: Recognizing the broader implications for national policy development and stakeholder consultation in the context of GM crop regulation.

What are Genetically Modified (GM) Crops?

  • GM crops are derived from plants whose genes are artificially modified, usually by inserting genetic material from another organism, in order to give it new properties, such as increased yield, tolerance to a herbicide, resistance to disease or drought, or improved nutritional value.
  • Earlier, India approved the commercial cultivation of only one GM crop, Bt cotton, but Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) has recommended GM Mustard for commercial use.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.   In the Supreme Court’s recent split verdict on the approval process for genetically modified (GM) mustard, which regulatory principle was identified as potentially breached by the GEAC’s approval for its environmental release?

A. Principle of Federalism

B. Precautionary Principle

C. Principle of Natural Justice

D. Principle of Sustainable Development

Q. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? (2012)

  1. To enable them to withstand drought
  2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
  3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
  4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Answer 5 B

Explanation

  • Precautionary Principle: The Precautionary Principle is a fundamental regulatory approach in environmental law that mandates caution and preventive action in the face of scientific uncertainty, especially when there are potential risks to human health or the environment. It requires that if an action or policy has the potential to cause harm to the public or to the environment, in the absence of scientific consensus, the burden of proof falls on those advocating for the action. The invocation of this principle reflects the necessity of thorough and cautious evaluation before approving genetically modified organisms for environmental release
  • Principle of Federalism: This principle involves the distribution of powers between central and state governments. The split verdict did not specifically address federalism issues but focused on procedural aspects of the approval process.
  • Principle of Natural Justice: This principle ensures fair procedures and transparency in decision-making. While relevant to regulatory processes, the specific issue in this case was more about the adequacy of risk assessments rather than procedural fairness.
  • Principle of Sustainable Development: This principle focuses on meeting current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. The concern in the verdict was about immediate environmental and health risks rather than long-term sustainability per se.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

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