CARE 3rd July 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (03-07-2024)

News at a Glance
Social Issues: Arunachal, Assam districts marked best in preventing drug abuse among children
Economy: RBI moots rationalisation of norms for export, import transactions
Critical mineral recycling: Govt plans PLI scheme to boost circular economy
Social issues: Progress on ‘zero hunger’ now in reverse; 30% global population faces food insecurity, new review reveals
International Relations:  Government of India and ADB sign $170 million loan to strengthen pandemic preparedness and response
Science and Technology:  MoD inks MoU to set up testing facilities in Unmanned Aerial System, domains in TN Defence Industrial Corridor

Arunachal, Assam districts marked best in preventing drug abuse among children

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/arunachal-assam-districts-marked-best-in-preventing-drug-abuse-among-children/article68358689.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Social Justice

Context: Implementation of Joint Action Plan on Prevention of Drugs and Substance Abuse among Children and Illicit Trafficking’

Why in News 

  • Darrang District Administration has been recognised as the ‘Best Performing District on Implementation of Joint Action Plan on Prevention of Drugs and Substance Abuse among Children and Illicit Trafficking’.

Recognition of Districts for Implementing Joint Action Plan 

  • The joint action plan aims to prevent drugs and substance abuse among children and curb illicit trafficking. 
  • It was formulated by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and the Narcotics Control Bureau.

Recognized Districts:

  • Darrang, Assam:
    • District Commissioner: Munindra Nath Ngatey
    • Recognition: Received certificate of appreciation from Minister of State for Home, Nityananda Rai in New Delhi on June 30.
  • Dibang Valley, Arunachal Pradesh:
    • Additional Deputy Commissioner: Jalley Umpo
    • Recognition: Received certificate of appreciation for district’s efforts.

Implementation Strategy: 

  • The plan focuses on preventing drug sales near schools, educational institutions, and childcare centers.
  • Coordinated actions are carried out in a time-bound manner under the supervision of district magistrates or collectors, who serve as nodal persons for monitoring. 

Implementation of Joint Action Plan on Prevention of Drugs and Substance Abuse among Children and Illicit Trafficking’

  • The joint action plan was prepared by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). 
  • Its primary objectives are:
    • Prevention of Drug Abuse: To prevent children from falling victim to drugs and substance abuse.
    • Curbing Illicit Trafficking: To control and reduce the illegal trafficking of drugs and substances.
  • The plan focuses on areas near schools, educational institutions, and childcare centers where children are particularly vulnerable to drug abuse.
  • Various coordinated actions are implemented to achieve the goals of the plan. These actions may include awareness campaigns, enforcement drives, and educational programs.
  • Role of Nodal Officers: District magistrates or collectors are designated as nodal officers responsible for overseeing the implementation of the plan in their respective districts.
  • Time-bound Approach: The actions are executed in a time-bound manner to ensure timely and effective results.

Recognition of Best Performing Districts 

  • Districts are recognized based on their effectiveness in implementing the joint action plan. Criteria for recognition may include:
    • Reduction in drug-related incidents.
    • Implementation of preventive measures.
    • Collaborative efforts with stakeholders.
    • Impact on the local community, especially children.

Drug Abuse in India

  • India is facing a serious challenge of drug abuse and trafficking, which affects the health, well-being, and security of millions of people, especially the youth.
  • According to World Drug Report 2022, India has the 4th largest quantity of opium seized in 2020 at 5.2 tons, and the 3rd highest amount of morphine was also seized in the same year at 0.7 tons.
  • According to the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), India accounted for 7% of the global opium seizures and 2% of the global heroin seizures in 2019.
  • India is also situated between two major drug-producing regions, the Golden Crescent (Iran-Afghanistan-Pakistan) and the Golden Triangle (Thailand-Laos-Myanmar), which makes it vulnerable to illicit drug trafficking.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding the joint action plan on the “Prevention of Drugs and Substance Abuse among Children and Illicit Trafficking”:

  1. The plan was developed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MSJE) in collaboration with the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
  2. District magistrates or collectors serve as nodal officers responsible for monitoring the implementation of the plan in their respective districts.
  3. Darrang and Dibang Valley districts were recognized for their exemplary implementation of the plan in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, respectively.
  4. The joint action plan aims to prevent drug sales near schools, educational institutions, and childcare centers through coordinated actions.

Which of the statements above are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2, 3, and 4

Q. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? (2017)

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – (c)    

Answer 1- D

Explanation

    • The joint action plan was not developed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MSJE); it was prepared by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB).  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
    • District magistrates or collectors indeed serve as nodal officers responsible for monitoring the implementation of the plan in their respective districts. Hence Statement 2 is correct
    • Darrang and Dibang Valley districts were recognized for their exemplary implementation of the plan in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, respectively. Hence Statement 3 is correct
  • The joint action plan aims to prevent drug sales near schools, educational institutions, and childcare centers through coordinated actions.  Hence Statement 4 is correct
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer. 

RBI moots rationalisation of norms for export, import transactions

Source: Business Standard

https://www.business-standard.com/amp/economy/news/rbi-moots-rationalisation-of-norms-for-export-import-transactions-124070201114_1.html   

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Banking sector, Economy

Context: RBI Draft Norms on Export and Import Transactions

Why in News 

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed rationalisation of norms governing export and import transactions to promote ease of doing business and empower banks to deliver quicker and more efficient services to foreign exchange customers.

RBI Draft Norms on Export and Import Transactions

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed draft norms under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) to streamline export and import transactions, aiming to enhance efficiency and compliance.
  1. Declaration of Export Value
  • Exporters are required to declare the full export value of goods or services in a specified format.
  1. Realisation and Repatriation Requirements
  • Exporters must ensure that the full export value is realised and repatriated to India within stipulated timelines:
    • Goods: Within nine months from the date of shipment.
    • Services: Within nine months from the date of invoice.
  1. Caution Listing for Non-Realisation
  • Exporters failing to repatriate within the specified timeline may be placed on a caution list by authorised dealers, impacting their ability to conduct future exports.
  1. Conditions for Advance Payments
  • Advance payments for exports must adhere to specific conditions, such as:
    • Full advance payment.
    • Irrevocable letter of credit (LC) satisfaction.
  1. Restrictions on Gold and Silver Imports
  • Advance remittance for the import of gold and silver is prohibited unless approved by the RBI.
  1. Interest Rate Ceiling on Export Advances
  • The rate of interest charged on advances for exports should not exceed the all-in-cost ceiling of trade credit.
  1. Refund of Advances for Unmet Export Obligations
  • Exporters unable to fulfill export obligations as per contract terms must promptly refund the advance received.
  1. Project Exports and Deferred Payment Terms
  • Exporters engaging in project exports on deferred payment terms must seek prior approval from authorised dealers.
  1. Implementation Policy by Banks
  • Banks are required to establish comprehensive policies, approved by their Board, within six months for handling export/import transactions.
  1. Non-Discriminatory Trade Procedures
  • Procedures applied by banks and authorised dealers should facilitate international trade without discrimination.

About Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

  • RBI is the central bank of India.
  • It was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • It was originally set up as a private entity in 1935, but it was nationalized in 1949.
  • Objectives: 
    • The Preamble of the RBI describes the basic functions of the Reserve Bank as:
    • To regulate the issue of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.
    • To have a modern monetary policy framework to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex economy,
    • To maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Which of the following statements regarding the RBI’s proposed draft norms on export and import transactions is correct?

A. Exporters must realise and repatriate the full export value within six months from the date of shipment.

B. Advance payments for the import of gold and silver can be remitted without specific approval from the RBI.

C. Non-compliance with repatriation timelines may result in exporters being placed on a caution list.

D. The rate of interest charged on advances for exports can exceed the all-in-cost ceiling of trade credit.

Q. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do? (2020)

  1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
  3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B 

Answer 2 – C

Explanation – 

    • Exporters are required to realise and repatriate the full export value within nine months from the date of shipment for goods and from the date of invoice for services. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
    • Advance payments for the import of gold and silver cannot be remitted without specific approval from the RBI. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
    • Non-compliance with repatriation timelines may lead to exporters being placed on a caution list by authorised dealers. Hence, statement C is correct.
    • The rate of interest charged on advances for exports must not exceed the all-in-cost ceiling of trade credit as per the proposed norms. Hence, statement D is correct.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

Critical mineral recycling: Govt plans PLI scheme to boost circular economy

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/critical-mineral-recycling-govt-plans-pli-scheme-to-boost-circular-economy-9429216/lite/

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- PLI, Economy

Context: Critical Minerals and PLI Scheme

Why in News

  • The Ministry of Mines is in the initial stages of designing a Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme to boost the recycling of critical minerals in India. 

Introduction of Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme 

  • The Ministry of Mines is in the preliminary stages of designing a PLI scheme aimed at boosting the recycling of critical minerals in India. 
  • This initiative comes in response to the lacklustre response to recent auctions of critical mineral blocks and aims to foster a circular economy while strengthening domestic supply chains.

Objectives and Scope of the PLI Scheme

  • The primary objective of the PLI scheme is to incentivize the recycling of critical minerals, such as lithium, copper, cobalt, graphite, chromium, and silicon, through e-waste recycling (referred to as “urban mining”). 
  • These minerals are crucial for various clean energy technologies, including solar PV modules, wind turbines, energy storage systems, electric vehicles (EVs), and consumer electronics.

Stakeholder Consultation and Feedback

  • In May 2024, the Mines Ministry circulated a concept note on the PLI scheme to key government stakeholders, including the Department of Science & Technology, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), and the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI), for comments and feedback. 
  • The scheme is yet to receive responses from MNRE and MHI.

Target Minerals and Technologies

  • The PLI scheme targets the recovery and recycling of critical minerals from e-waste, focusing on enhancing capabilities in advanced recycling technologies and infrastructure.
  •  It aims to promote the production of recycled critical minerals suitable for secondary use in various industries.

Importance of Critical Minerals in Clean Energy Technologies

  • Critical minerals play a vital role in advancing clean energy technologies essential for achieving India’s renewable energy and EV adoption goals. 
  • The scheme aims to reduce dependence on virgin ores and new mines by promoting the reuse of recovered minerals.

Industry Perspective on the PLI Scheme

  • Industry sources suggest that the PLI scheme will follow a model similar to other PLI initiatives, offering incentives based on the type and value of minerals recycled. 
  • There is ongoing discussion among stakeholders regarding whether incentives should be focused on high-purity critical minerals or include broader categories like black mass, which contains minerals suitable for reuse but requires advanced processing capabilities.

E-Waste Generation and Recycling Projections

  • India’s e-waste generation is projected to increase significantly due to rapid growth in solar and wind energy infrastructure and EV adoption. 
  • For instance, solar PV module waste is expected to increase from 100 kilotonnes (kt) in FY23 to 340 kt by 2030, while substantial amounts of EV batteries will also enter the recycling stream in the coming years.

Policy Recommendations by NITI Aayog

  • NITI Aayog has recommended a PLI scheme for critical mineral recycling, emphasizing the need for non-fiscal incentives and production-linked incentives to support domestic recyclers and align with policies promoting green growth.

Challenges in Domestic Mining of Critical Minerals

  • The introduction of the PLI scheme follows challenges faced in domestic mining, where critical mineral blocks offered by the Mines Ministry failed to attract sufficient investor interest. 
  • This highlights the need for alternative strategies to secure critical mineral supply chains.

Integration with Battery Waste Management Rules (BWMR)

  • The PLI scheme aligns with the Battery Waste Management Rules (BWMR), 2022, which mandate the phased recycling of lithium-ion batteries from 2026 onwards. 
  • These rules ensure environmentally sound management of battery waste through Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), holding producers accountable for managing the waste generated by their products.

About Critical Minerals: 

  • Critical minerals are those minerals that are essential for economic development and national security, the lack of availability of these minerals or concentration of extraction or processing in a few geographical locations may lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and even disruption of supplies.
  • The ‘criticality’ of minerals changes with time as supply and society’s needs shift.
  • Examples: antimony, beryllium, bismuth, cobalt, copper, gallium, germanium, lithium, vanadium, etc.
  • Top Producers: Chile, Indonesia, Congo, China, Australia, and South Africa.

Declaration of Critical Minerals 

  • It is a dynamic process, and it can evolve over time as new technologies, market dynamics, and geopolitical considerations emerge.
  • Different countries may have their own unique lists of critical minerals based on their specific circumstances and priorities.
  • The US has declared 50 minerals critical in light of their role in national security or economic development.
  • Japan has identified a set of 31 minerals as critical for their economy.
  • The UK considers 18 minerals critical, EU (34) and Canada (31).

Applications

  • They are used to manufacture advanced technologies, including mobile phones, computers, fibre-optic cables, semiconductors, banknotes, and defence, aerospace and medical applications.
  • Many are used in low-emission technologies, such as electric vehicles, wind turbines, solar panels, and rechargeable batteries.
  • Some are also crucial for common products, such as stainless steel and electronics.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. What is the primary objective of the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme proposed by the Ministry of Mines for the recycling of critical minerals?

  1. To promote exports of raw critical minerals
  2. To incentivize the domestic mining of critical minerals
  3. To boost the recycling of critical minerals from e-waste
  4. To support the development of new mines for critical minerals

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. Only 3
  4. All of the above
Q. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why? (2012)

  1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
  2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
  3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Answer 3 C

Explanation

  • The PLI scheme aims to boost recycling within India, not necessarily to promote exports. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The scheme is focused on recycling existing resources rather than developing new mines. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The primary objective of the PLI scheme is to incentivize the recycling of critical minerals from e-waste, fostering a circular economy. Hence Statement 3 is correct
  • The scheme is aimed at recycling existing minerals rather than supporting new mine developments. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

India and ADB sign $170 million loan to strengthen pandemic preparedness and response

Source: PIB

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2030329  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- International Relations

Context: India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) policy-based agreement

Why in News 

  • The Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a $170 million policy-based loan aimed at consolidating and strengthening India’s health system preparedness and response capacity to future pandemics.

Objectives of the Strengthened and Measurable Actions Programme

  • The primary objective of the ‘Strengthened and Measurable Actions for Resilient and Transformative Health Systems Programme (Subprogramme 1)’ is to enhance India’s capability to respond effectively to future pandemics. 
  • The programme aims to strengthen disease surveillance, ensure sufficiency and quality of health professionals, and promote climate-resilient public health infrastructure and service delivery.

Government of India’s Commitment and Initiatives 

  • During the COVID-19 pandemic, the Government of India implemented various measures to strengthen pandemic preparedness and response. 
  • The ADB programme complements these efforts by further enhancing disease surveillance, improving healthcare workforce capacity, and developing climate-resilient health infrastructure.

ADB’s Role and Contribution to Health System Strengthening 

  • The Country Director of ADB’s India Resident Mission emphasized that the programme builds on ADB’s partnership with the Government of India. 
  • ADB’s role includes filling gaps in policy, legislative, and institutional governance structures related to health systems. 
  • The loan supports India’s goal of providing universal access to quality and affordable healthcare services.

Targeted Reform Areas under the Programme

  • The programme aligns with major government initiatives such as the National Health Policy 2017, Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), National One Health Mission, and efforts to strengthen human resources for health (HRH). 
  • Specific reform areas include:
    • Strengthened disease surveillance and multisectoral response.
    • Enhanced human resources for health.
    • Expanded climate-resilient public health infrastructure and innovative service delivery.

Strengthening Disease Surveillance and Multisectoral Response 

  • The programme focuses on setting up laboratory networks for infectious disease surveillance at state, union, and metropolitan levels. 
  • It aims to establish robust data systems to monitor and coordinate national health programmes targeting vulnerable groups such as the poor and women.

Enhancing Human Resources for Health (HRH)

  • ADB will support policy reforms to ensure an adequate and competent healthcare workforce in India. 
  • This includes legislation to regulate and maintain standards of education, services, and professional conduct for nurses, midwives, allied workers, and doctors.

Climate-Resilient Public Health Infrastructure and Service Delivery 

  • The programme includes initiatives to manage integrated public health laboratories in five states and district critical care hospital blocks. 
  • It will also assist in establishing green and climate-resilient healthcare facilities, emphasizing innovative solutions for service delivery.

Implementation and Governance Enhancements

  • Implementation of the programme will involve strengthening governance structures for India’s One Health approach and enhancing multisectoral responses to emerging infectious diseases. 
  • It will support the establishment of inter-sectoral governing bodies and multi-sector task forces to oversee programme execution.

Expected Impact and Benefits

  • The programme is expected to significantly enhance India’s health system resilience against future pandemics by improving disease surveillance, healthcare workforce capacity, and public health infrastructure. 
  • It will contribute to achieving universal access to quality and affordable healthcare services, aligning with India’s national health policy goals and international best practices. 

What is the Asian Development Bank?

  • Established in 1966, ADB is a regional development bank that envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty in the region.
  • ADB supports its members and partners through the provision of loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments aimed at advancing social and economic development.
  • Headquarters: Manila, Philippines
  • Members: It currently has 68 members of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
  • ADB and India: India is a founding member of ADB and the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder.
  • ADB supports India’s priorities for robust, climate resilient, and inclusive growth, aligned with ADB’s Strategy 2030 and the country partnership strategy, 2023–2027.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. 

Assertion (A): The Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a $170 million policy-based loan aimed at consolidating and strengthening India’s health system preparedness and response capacity to future pandemics.

Reason (R): Strengthening health system preparedness involves improving infrastructure, enhancing workforce capacity, and ensuring adequate supply of medical resources.

  1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. A is true, but R is false.
  4. A is false, but R is true.
Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)

  1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
  2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
  3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Answer 4 A

Explanation

  • Assertion (A): The Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a $170 million policy-based loan aimed at consolidating and strengthening India’s health system preparedness and response capacity to future pandemics.
  • This statement is true. The loan agreement between the Government of India and ADB is aimed at enhancing the country’s ability to manage and respond to future pandemics by improving the health system’s overall preparedness.
  • Reason (R): Strengthening health system preparedness involves improving infrastructure, enhancing workforce capacity, and ensuring adequate supply of medical resources.
  • This statement is also true. Strengthening health system preparedness typically involves multiple facets, including upgrading health infrastructure, training and enhancing the capacity of healthcare workers, and ensuring that there is a sufficient supply of medical equipment and resources to handle potential health crises.
  • The reason provided (R) correctly explains why the policy-based loan (A) is necessary, as improving infrastructure, workforce capacity, and medical resources are integral to strengthening health system preparedness. Therefore, the correct answer is a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

MoD inks MoU to set up testing facilities in Unmanned Aerial System domains in TN Defence Industrial Corridor

Source: PIB

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2030282

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS3- Science and Technology

Context: Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor  

Why in news 

  • Ministry of Defence (MoD) has signed an MoU to establish three state-of-the-art testing facilities in Chennai under the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor – one each in Unmanned Aerial System (UAS), Electronic Warfare (EW) and Electro Optics (EO) domains.

 MoD Signs MoU for State-of-the-Art Defence Testing Facilities in Chennai 

  • In a significant move towards bolstering indigenous defence capabilities, the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish cutting-edge testing facilities in Chennai. 
  • This initiative, under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS), aims to foster innovation and self-reliance in defence production.

Key Highlights:

  • Testing Facilities: Three state-of-the-art facilities will be set up in Chennai focusing on Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS), Electronic Warfare (EW), and Electro Optics (EO).
  • Collaborative Effort: The MoU was exchanged between senior MoD officials and Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation Limited, highlighting collaboration between government bodies and private industry.
  • Financial Outlay: With an investment of Rs 400 crore, these facilities will receive up to 75% funding as ‘Grant-in-Aid’ from the government, with the remaining 25% contributed by Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) comprising private entities and government bodies.
  • Strategic Locations: These facilities are part of the Defence Industrial Corridors initiative, strategically boosting defence and aerospace sectors in Tamil Nadu.

Industry Partnerships:

  • UAS Facility: Led by Keltron, with participation from private sector consortium members.
  • EW Facility: Spearheaded by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), ensuring advanced electronic warfare capabilities.
  • EO Facility: Managed by India Optel Limited (IOL), focusing on cutting-edge electro optics technologies.

 Vision and Impact:

  • Promoting Indigenous Production: The DTIS initiative aims to reduce dependency on imports and enhance indigenous defence manufacturing capabilities.
  • Boosting Aatmanirbharta: These facilities will provide crucial testing infrastructure to support both government and private sector innovation in defence technologies.

About Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor?

  • The Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor is part of the broader ‘Make in India’ initiative, which seeks to bolster indigenous manufacturing across various sectors, including defence. 
  • The corridor aims to create a conducive ecosystem for defence manufacturing and attract investments in the defence and aerospace sectors in Tamil Nadu.
  • Location and Strategic Importance
    • The corridor spans across several key districts in Tamil Nadu, strategically chosen to leverage the existing industrial infrastructure and skilled workforce in the region. 
    • Key locations include Chennai, Coimbatore, Hosur, Salem, and Tiruchirappalli, among others. These areas are known for their industrial prowess and are well-connected via road, rail, and air networks.
  • Key Features and Infrastructure Development
    • Industrial Infrastructure: The corridor focuses on developing state-of-the-art industrial infrastructure, including industrial parks, special economic zones (SEZs), and clusters dedicated to defence manufacturing.
    • Skill Development: Initiatives are underway to enhance the skill sets of the local workforce to meet the specific demands of the defence and aerospace industries. This includes vocational training programs and collaboration with educational institutions.
    • Research and Development (R&D): Efforts are being made to promote R&D activities in defence technologies, fostering innovation and indigenous development of defence equipment and systems.
  • Government Support and Policy Initiatives
    • The Government of India provides policy support, incentives, and facilitation measures to encourage investments in the defence sector through initiatives like liberalized FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) norms, tax incentives, and simplified regulatory frameworks.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Match the following testing facilities with their respective domains established under the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor in Chennai:

Testing Facility Domain
1. Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) A. Surveillance and Reconnaissance
2. Electronic Warfare (EW) B. Countermeasure Technologies
3. Electro Optics (EO) C. Imaging and Targeting Systems

Select the correct matching pairs:

a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B

Q. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (2014)

                     Spacecraft                 Purpose

  1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
  2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating the Mercury
  3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Answer  5 A

Explanation

  • 1. Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) – A. Surveillance and Reconnaissance:
  • Unmanned Aerial Systems are typically used for surveillance, reconnaissance, and intelligence gathering missions. They play a crucial role in monitoring and providing real-time data from the battlefield.
  • 2. Electronic Warfare (EW) – B. Countermeasure Technologies:
  • Electronic Warfare involves using the electromagnetic spectrum to detect, intercept, and disrupt enemy signals and systems. Countermeasure technologies are essential for jamming and deceiving enemy radar and communication systems.
  • 3. Electro Optics (EO) – C. Imaging and Targeting Systems:
  • Electro-optics involve the use of electronic devices to detect and process optical (light) signals. They are widely used in imaging, targeting, and tracking systems to enhance precision and effectiveness in various military applications.
  • These pairings highlight the specific focus areas of the state-of-the-art testing facilities being established under the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor in Chennai, reflecting their roles in modern defense technology and capabilities.

Progress on ‘zero hunger’ now in reverse; 30% global population faces food insecurity, new review reveals

Source: Down To Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/agriculture/progress-on-zero-hunger-now-in-reverse-30-global-population-faces-food-insecurity-new-review-reveals

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- Social issue, GS 3 Economy- Agriculture

Context: Recent reviews reveal that approximately 30% of the global population now faces food insecurity.  

Why in news 

  • The goal of achieving ‘zero hunger’ by 2030, as part of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), is facing significant setbacks. 

Global Food Insecurity 

  • Current Status: Nearly 30% of the world’s population faces food insecurity.
  • Affordability Issue: 42% unable to afford a healthy diet.

Key Findings from the Report 

  • Zero Hunger Goal: Projected challenges with around 600 million people facing hunger by 2030.
  • Impact of Global Events: Buffeting of the food system by the pandemic, Russia-Ukraine war, and climate crisis.

Insights from IPES-Food Report 

  • Thinktank Perspective: Analysis by The International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food).
  • Resilience Deficiency: Fundamental shortcomings in the global food system’s resilience.

Contributing Factors to Food Insecurity 

  • Pandemic Impact: Disruptions and economic strains exacerbating food insecurity.
  • Conflict Effects: Impacts from regional conflicts such as the Russia-Ukraine war.
  • Climate Crisis: Escalating climate change affecting food production and distribution.

Challenges to Achieving ‘Zero Hunger’ 

  • Future Projections: Concerns about the attainment of global ‘zero hunger’ goals.
  • Barriers to Progress: Systemic issues hindering efforts to eradicate hunger. 

 Progress on Global Hunger and Food Insecurity 

  • Overview of Current Challenges: The global food system has seen setbacks, with nearly 30% of the world’s population facing food insecurity and a significant portion unable to afford a healthy diet, as reported on July 2, 2024.
  • Impact of Recent Global Events: The pandemic, the Russia-Ukraine war, and climate crises have exacerbated food insecurity worldwide, highlighting the system’s lack of resilience.

Sustainable Development Goal 2 Review 

  • Stalling progress towards SDG 2 (end hunger, achieve food security, improve nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture) will be reviewed at the UN’s High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development (HLPF) from July 8 to July 17, 2024.

Localised Food Supply Chains: A Resilient Alternative

  • Role and Benefits of Local Food Systems: Local food systems, including public markets, cooperatives, and urban agriculture, have demonstrated resilience and equity, offering diverse, nutritious foods and adapting well to global shocks.
  • Resilience of Territorial Markets: Territorial markets have proven more adaptive to disruptions, supporting small-scale producers, promoting biodiversity, and sustaining food cultures while using fewer resources.

Challenges and Needs 

  • Despite their benefits, territorial markets face challenges such as inadequate infrastructure and policy barriers, including trade policies and subsidies that favor large-scale corporate supply chains.

Recommendations for Policy Action

  • Urgent Policy Shifts: Governments are urged to redirect public procurement to support small-scale producers, shift subsidies to bolster territorial market infrastructure, protect local markets from corporate dominance, and promote sustainable farming practices and diverse diets.
  • Call to Action: IPES-Food calls for decisive government action to strengthen local food systems, enhance resilience against hunger, and ensure sustainable food security amidst global uncertainties.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding global food insecurity as per the July 2024 report by IPES-Food:

  1. Approximately 30% of the world’s population currently faces food insecurity.
  2. The report attributes setbacks in achieving ‘zero hunger’ goals to the pandemic, regional conflicts like the Russia-Ukraine war, and the escalating climate crisis.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? (2016)

1. Undernourishment

2. Child stunting

3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (c)

Answer 6 – C

Explanation 

  • The report by IPES-Food highlights that nearly 30% of the world’s population is currently facing food insecurity. 
  • This includes situations where people do not have reliable access to sufficient, affordable, and nutritious food. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The IPES-Food report identifies several factors contributing to setbacks in achieving global ‘zero hunger’ goals. 
    • These include the disruptive impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic on food supply chains and economies, regional conflicts such as the Russia-Ukraine war which disrupt food production and distribution, and the worsening effects of climate change which affect agricultural productivity and food security worldwide.  
    • Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, correct answer is option C

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