CARE 28th August 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (28-08-2024)

News at a Glance
Polity and Governance: Minimal Use of Plea Bargaining in India
Social Issues: Himachal Pradesh raises minimum age of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years
Ecology and Environment: Reintroduction of the Northern Bald Ibis in Europe
Science and Technology: Development of Needle-Free Intra-Nasal Booster Vaccine by Indian Immunologicals Ltd
Siemens Healthineers’ Approval to Manufacture Mpox Test Kits in India

Minimal Use of Plea Bargaining in India

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/report-reveals-minimal-use-of-plea-bargaining-in-india/article68569128.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 – Economy

Context: Plea bargaining, introduced in India in 2005 as a means to expedite the judicial process and reduce the backlog of criminal cases, remains largely underutilized. 

Why in news: 

  • A recent report by the Ministry of Law and Justice, titled ‘Access to Justice through Plea Bargaining as an Alternative Model to Traditional Criminal Trial in India: A Case Study of Select Indian States’, highlights the minimal use of plea bargaining in the Indian criminal justice system.

Key Findings of the Report:

  1. Low Utilization of Plea Bargaining:
    • According to the latest National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data, only 19,135 out of 1,70,52,367 cases (0.11%) were disposed of through plea bargaining in 2022. This reflects the limited adoption of this mechanism, which was intended to be a more efficient alternative to the lengthy traditional criminal trials.
    • The report, prepared by Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (GGSIPU), Delhi, indicates that plea bargaining has been the least preferred mode of dispute resolution compared to other mechanisms such as compounding, quashing of criminal proceedings, or the accused turning hostile.
  2. Legal Framework and Restrictions:
    • Plea bargaining was incorporated into Chapter XXIA of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in 2005, and it is applicable only to offenses punishable by up to seven years of imprisonment. It specifically excludes serious crimes, including those involving women, children, and socio-economic offenses.                        
    • Despite these legal provisions, there is confusion and inconsistency in the application of plea bargaining. The report notes that although plea bargaining should ideally occur before charges are framed or notices of accusation are served, it is often pursued after these stages, contradicting the intended process.
  3. Concerns Over Current Practices:
    • The report raises concerns over the current practices of plea bargaining, particularly regarding its inapplicability to certain offenses. While the law prohibits plea bargaining for crimes against women and children, the NCRB reported that in 2022, 119 cases involving crimes against women and 4 cases registered under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act were disposed of through plea bargaining, suggesting a lack of adherence to legal guidelines.
    • This inconsistency points to the need for clearer guidelines and enforcement to ensure that plea bargaining is used appropriately and effectively.
  4. Recommendations for Revitalization:
    • The report suggests several changes to rejuvenate the use of plea bargaining in India. One recommendation is to allow plea bargaining after an accused pleads guilty and provide both parties an opportunity to reach a mutually satisfactory disposition, potentially under the supervision of a mediation cell rather than the court itself. This could alleviate the burden on the judiciary while ensuring a fair process.
    • Another suggestion is for the court to consider conditional discharge for first-time offenders whose crimes are punishable with imprisonment of up to three years, which could encourage greater use of plea bargaining in less severe cases.

Implications for the Indian Judicial System:

  1. Reducing Judicial Backlog:
    • The minimal use of plea bargaining contributes to the continued backlog of cases in Indian courts. If effectively implemented, plea bargaining could play a significant role in reducing pendency by providing a quicker resolution to cases where the accused admits guilt and is willing to negotiate a lighter sentence.
  2. Need for Legal and Procedural Clarity:
    • The inconsistencies and confusion in the current application of plea bargaining highlight the need for clearer procedural guidelines and better enforcement. Ensuring that plea bargaining is conducted before charges are framed, as intended, could improve its efficiency and acceptance among legal practitioners and the accused.
  3. Balancing Justice and Efficiency:
    • While plea bargaining offers a potential solution to reduce court backlogs, it must be balanced with the need to deliver justice, particularly in cases involving serious crimes. The report’s findings suggest that current practices may sometimes contravene legal safeguards, risking the integrity of the justice system.
  4. Reforms for Greater Adoption:
    • For plea bargaining to become a more widely adopted mechanism, reforms are needed to address existing gaps and provide incentives for both the accused and prosecutors. Enhancing the role of mediation cells, offering conditional discharges for less severe offenses, and ensuring compliance with legal provisions could encourage more extensive use.

Conclusion: 

  • The report on the minimal use of plea bargaining in India underscores the need for reforms to revitalize this mechanism as a viable alternative to traditional criminal trials. By addressing inconsistencies in its application and providing clearer guidelines, plea bargaining could help reduce the judicial backlog while maintaining the integrity of the legal process. A balanced approach that safeguards justice, especially for vulnerable groups, and ensures efficiency is essential for plea bargaining to achieve its intended purpose in the Indian criminal justice system.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the use of plea bargaining in India:

  1. Plea bargaining is applicable for offenses punishable by up to seven years of imprisonment and excludes cases involving crimes against women, children, or socio-economic offenses.
  2. In 2022, the majority of criminal cases in India were resolved through plea bargaining, significantly reducing the backlog of cases in courts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Consider the following statements(2019)

  1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
  2. Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b) 

Answer1: A 

Explanation:

  1. Statement 1 is correct: Plea bargaining, as per Chapter XXIA of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in India, is applicable for offenses punishable by up to seven years of imprisonment. It specifically excludes serious crimes, including those involving women, children, and socio-economic offenses.
  2. Statement 2 is incorrect: In 2022, only 0.11% of criminal cases were resolved through plea bargaining in India, according to the report by the Ministry of Law and Justice. This indicates minimal use of plea bargaining, contrary to the statement that suggests it was the majority method used for resolving cases.
  • Thus, only statement 1 is correct, making option A the right answer.

Himachal Pradesh raises minimum age of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/himachal-pradesh/himachal-pradesh-raises-minimum-age-of-marriage-for-women-from-18-to-21-years/article68574251.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Polity and Governance, Welfare of vulnerable sections

Context: Significant step toward promoting gender equality and supporting women’s access to higher education

Why in news: 

  • The Himachal Pradesh State Assembly passed the Prohibition of Child Marriage (Himachal Pradesh Amendment) Bill, 2024, increasing the minimum age of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years.

Key Aspects of the Bill:

  1. Increase in Minimum Age: The Bill proposes to amend the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, raising the minimum age of marriage for women to 21 years. This change is aimed at addressing early marriage, which is seen as a barrier to women’s educational and career opportunities as well as their physical development.
  2. Justification: The government argues that in a rapidly progressing world, early marriages hinder women’s potential. The delay in marriage is seen as a means to ensure that women have equal opportunities to pursue higher education and careers, contributing to their empowerment.
  3. Political and Social Implications: Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu emphasized the pioneering nature of the legislation, positioning Himachal Pradesh as the first state in India to enact such a law. The move by the Congress government is framed as a commitment to women’s rights and welfare, potentially strengthening the party’s appeal among women voters.

Implications for Gender Equality and Education:

  • Gender Equality: The amendment is a progressive step toward achieving gender parity. By aligning the marriage age for women with that of men (already 21 years), the legislation challenges traditional gender norms that have historically prioritized early marriage for women.
  • Educational Impact: Raising the marriage age to 21 allows women additional years to complete their education and gain independence. This could lead to increased participation of women in the workforce, higher educational attainment, and better health outcomes.

Challenges and Criticisms:

  • Cultural Resistance: In a society where early marriage is culturally ingrained, enforcing this law may face resistance. Public awareness and sensitization campaigns will be necessary to ensure the law’s effective implementation.
  • Legal and Enforcement Issues: Merely increasing the age limit may not be sufficient unless accompanied by robust mechanisms for monitoring and enforcing the law. The effectiveness of this legislation will depend on the state’s ability to implement it at the grassroots level.

National and Global Relevance:

  • National Precedent: Himachal Pradesh’s legislation may set a precedent for other states in India, potentially leading to nationwide reforms. This move aligns with ongoing debates in the Supreme Court regarding marriage laws and the rights of minors.
  • Global Perspective: Internationally, child marriage has been condemned for violating the rights of girls and hindering their development. The amendment contributes to India’s efforts to comply with global standards, such as the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 5), which calls for gender equality and the elimination of harmful practices, including child marriage.

Conclusion: 

  • The Himachal Pradesh Amendment to increase the minimum age of marriage for women to 21 years is a landmark decision with far-reaching implications for gender equality, women’s education, and societal norms. 
  • While the legislation is a bold step forward, its success will depend on effective implementation and societal acceptance. 
  • This move reinforces the state’s commitment to women’s empowerment and sets a new standard for the rest of the country to follow.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following pairs regarding recent legislative developments and their objectives:

State Legislation Objective
1. Himachal Pradesh Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2024 Increasing the minimum age of marriage for women to 21 years
2. Rajasthan Right to Health Act, 2023 Providing free healthcare services to all citizens
3. West Bengal Prevention of Organized Crime Act, 2023 Combating organized crime and terrorism

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. Which Part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State? (2020)

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Preamble

(d) Seventh Schedule

Answer- (a) 

Ans 2: A

Explanation:

  1. Himachal Pradesh – Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2024: This is correctly matched. The legislation aims to increase the minimum age of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years to promote gender equality and support higher education.
  2. Rajasthan – Right to Health Act, 2023: This is also correctly matched. Rajasthan introduced this act to ensure that all citizens have access to free healthcare services.
  3. West Bengal – Prevention of Organized Crime Act, 2023: This pair is incorrectly matched. There has been no recent legislation titled “Prevention of Organized Crime Act, 2023” passed by West Bengal. The act mentioned is a generic name, and no such specific legislation has been noted for this period.
  • Thus, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, making option A the correct answer.

Reintroduction of the Northern Bald Ibis in Europe

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/northern-bald-ibis-rewilding-conservation-human-led-migration-climate-change/article68571742.ece#:~:text=The%20distinctive%20northern%20bald%20ibis,over%20the%20last%20two%20decades.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 – Ecology and Environment

Context: The Northern Bald Ibis, also known as the Waldrapp, once a common bird species across North Africa, the Arabian Peninsula, and Europe, faced near extinction in Europe by the 17th century due to hunting and habitat loss. 

Why in news: 

  • Recent efforts led by scientists and conservationists, particularly the Waldrappteam based in Austria, have successfully revived Northern Bald Ibisspecies in Central Europe.

Key Aspects of the Revival Effort:

  1. Breeding and Rewilding Efforts:
    • Over the past two decades, conservationists have bred the Northern Bald Ibis in captivity, aiming to reintroduce the species into its former habitats. This effort has increased the population in Central Europe from zero to nearly 300 birds since the project began in 2002.
    • The success of this program has shifted the species’ status from “critically endangered” to “endangered,” marking a significant conservation achievement.
  2. Human-Assisted Migration:
    • One of the unique challenges faced in rewilding the Northern Bald Ibis is the loss of migratory knowledge. Without wild-born elders to guide them, the reintroduced birds lack the instinctive understanding of migration routes.
    • To address this, scientists and conservationists have adopted a hands-on approach, acting as “foster parents” and guiding the birds along their migration routes using microlight aircraft. This technique was inspired by earlier efforts with other bird species, notably by naturalist Bill Lishman.
  1. Climate Change Challenges:
    • The effects of climate change have added complexity to the migration efforts. Warmer temperatures have delayed the migration season, forcing the birds to cross the Alps later in the year when weather conditions are harsher, and thermals (warm air currents that aid in flight) are less available.
    • In response, the Waldrappteam has adapted by piloting new migration routes, including a recent path from Bavaria to Andalusia, Spain, which is longer but potentially safer for the birds under changing climate conditions.

Implications for Conservation:

  1. Innovative Conservation Techniques:
    • The success of the Northern Bald Ibis reintroduction demonstrates the potential of innovative conservation techniques, including human-led migration, to restore extinct or near-extinct species to their natural habitats.
    • This approach could serve as a model for other conservation efforts involving migratory species that have lost their instinctual routes due to population declines or habitat changes.
  2. Biodiversity and Ecosystem Impact:
    • Reintroducing the Northern Bald Ibis into its former European habitats contributes to restoring the region’s biodiversity. These birds play a role in their ecosystems as part of the food web and as seed dispersers.
    • The project also highlights the interconnectedness of species and ecosystems, illustrating how human actions can either contribute to extinction or aid in the recovery of endangered species.
  3. Challenges and Future Prospects:
    • While the project has seen significant success, challenges remain. The birds still rely on human guidance for migration, and the impacts of climate change continue to alter migration patterns and survival rates.
    • The long-term goal is to establish a self-sustaining population of Northern Bald Ibises in Central Europe, with birds capable of independent migration. This will require continued conservation efforts, monitoring, and potentially further adaptation to changing environmental conditions.

Conclusion: 

  • The reintroduction of the Northern Bald Ibis in Europe is a landmark achievement in conservation, showcasing the effectiveness of innovative techniques and the importance of addressing both ecological and climatic challenges. This effort not only helps restore a species that was once extinct in the region but also provides valuable insights for future conservation projects aimed at other threatened migratory species. As climate change continues to impact global ecosystems, such adaptive and hands-on conservation strategies will be increasingly important in preserving biodiversity.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the reintroduction of the Northern Bald Ibis in Europe:

  1. The Northern Bald Ibis, or Waldrapp, was hunted to extinction in Europe by the 17th century.
  2. The reintroduction efforts in Central Europe have been entirely successful, with the birds now capable of independent migration without human assistance.
  3. The reintroduction program used microlight aircraft to guide the birds along their migration routes.
  4. Climate change has forced the conservation team to modify the migration route, making it longer but potentially safer for the birds.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

  1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations
  2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization
  3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Answer 3: B. 

Explanation:

  1. Statement 1 is correct: The Northern Bald Ibis was indeed hunted to near extinction in Europe by the 17th century, largely due to human activities.
  2. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the reintroduction efforts have been successful in increasing the population, the birds are not yet capable of independent migration without human assistance. The conservation team still needs to guide the birds along their migration routes.
  3. Statement 3 is correct: The reintroduction program uses microlight aircraft to guide the Northern Bald Ibises along their migration routes, as the birds do not instinctively know the way without the guidance of wild-born elders.
  4. Statement 4 is correct: Climate change has indeed forced the conservation team to modify the migration route. The team has adapted by creating a new, longer migration path to Spain, which is safer for the birds under the current environmental conditions.

Thus, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct, making option B the right answer.

Development of Needle-Free Intra-Nasal Booster Vaccine by Indian Immunologicals Ltd

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/indian-immunologicals-ltd-develops-needle-free-covid-19-intranasal-booster-vaccine-in-collaboration-with-australian-university/article68572222.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Science and Technology

Context: ‘Codon de-optimisation’ technology

Why in news: 

  • Indian Immunologicals Ltd (IIL), a Hyderabad-based vaccine manufacturer, in collaboration with Griffith University, Australia, has developed a needle-free intra-nasal booster vaccine against SARS-CoV-2. 

Key Aspects of the Development:

  1. Codon De-Optimisation Technology:
    • The vaccine is based on live-attenuated virus technology, enhanced by codon de-optimisation. This involves modifying the virus’s genetic code by decreasing the frequency of underrepresented codon pairs without altering the amino acid sequences. This technology allows for the controlled attenuation of the virus, making it a safer and quicker method compared to traditional virus attenuation techniques, which can take years.
    • The use of this technology represents a novel approach in vaccine development, offering a promising strategy for creating effective and safe vaccines quickly.
  2. Needle-Free Intra-Nasal Delivery:
    • The intra-nasal delivery method offers a non-invasive alternative to traditional intramuscular injections. This can increase vaccine uptake, particularly among populations with needle aversion, and can be easier to administer in mass vaccination drives.
    • Intra-nasal vaccines also have the advantage of inducing both systemic and mucosal immunity, which could potentially offer better protection at the entry points of the virus (i.e., the respiratory tract).
  3. Global and National Significance:
    • The development of this vaccine is a significant milestone for India’s biotech industry, showcasing the country’s growing capabilities in advanced biotechnology and vaccine development.
    • It adds to the global arsenal against COVID-19, providing an innovative solution that could be especially useful in countries with low vaccination rates or where booster coverage is low. As of December 2023, only about 10% of the total COVID-19 vaccine doses administered in India have been booster doses, indicating the need for increased booster coverage.

Implications for Public Health:

  1. Enhanced Vaccine Accessibility:
    • The needle-free approach could improve vaccine accessibility and acceptance, particularly in rural and hard-to-reach areas, where healthcare infrastructure might be limited.
    • Intra-nasal vaccines could be easier to store and distribute, especially in resource-limited settings, reducing the logistical challenges associated with mass vaccination campaigns.
  2. Response to Emerging Strains:
    • The development comes at a critical time when new COVID-19 strains, KP.1 and KP.2, have emerged from the JN1 Omicron variant, leading to a surge in cases in India. While these strains are highly transmissible, they have not yet resulted in increased hospitalizations. The new booster vaccine could play a crucial role in controlling the spread of these variants.
  3. India’s Position in Global Health:
    • The successful development and potential deployment of this vaccine reinforce India’s role as a global leader in vaccine production and innovation. It positions India strategically in global health diplomacy, as the country can potentially supply these vaccines to other nations, particularly in the Global South.

Challenges and Considerations:

  1. Regulatory Approvals and Production Scale-Up:
    • The vaccine will require regulatory approvals before it can be widely distributed. Ensuring that the production can be scaled up to meet both domestic and international demand will be crucial.
  2. Public Awareness and Acceptance:
    • Public education campaigns will be necessary to inform people about the benefits and safety of the new intra-nasal vaccine, particularly in overcoming hesitancy related to the new delivery method and technology.

Conclusion: 

  • The development of the needle-free intra-nasal booster vaccine by Indian Immunologicals Ltd represents a significant technological and public health advancement. 
  • Leveraging codon de-optimisation technology for rapid and safe vaccine development could reshape the landscape of COVID-19 vaccination efforts, both in India and globally. 
  • The vaccine’s success will depend on regulatory approval, public acceptance, and effective distribution strategies, all of which will be critical in combating emerging COVID-19 strains and preventing future outbreaks.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Assertion (A): The needle-free intra-nasal booster vaccine developed by Indian Immunologicals Ltd uses codon de-optimisation technology.

Reason (R): Codon de-optimisation involves decreasing the frequency of underrepresented codon pairs without changing the amino acid sequences, which allows for efficient virus attenuation and quicker vaccine development.

Codes:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.

Q. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022)
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3 COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Answer 4: A. 

Explanation:

  • Assertion (A) is true: The needle-free intra-nasal booster vaccine developed by Indian Immunologicals Ltd indeed uses codon de-optimisation technology.
  • Reason (R) is also true: Codon de-optimisation is a method that decreases the frequency of underrepresented codon pairs, which effectively attenuates the virus and allows for quicker and safer vaccine development.
  • R is the correct explanation of A because the assertion mentions the use of codon de-optimisation technology, and the reason explains how this technology works, which justifies its application in the vaccine development mentioned in the assertion.

Siemens Healthineers’ Approval to Manufacture Mpox Test Kits in India

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/india-develops-indigenous-mpox-detection-rt-pcr-kit/article68572439.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Science and technology

Context: Recent outbreak of Mpox, which the World Health Organization (WHO) has classified as a global health emergency.

Why in news: 

  • Siemens Healthineers has received approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) to manufacture RT-PCR test kits for the detection of Mpox (formerly known as Monkeypox) in India. 

Key Aspects of the Development:

  1. Manufacturing Approval and Capacity:
    • Siemens Healthineers will manufacture the Mpox RT-PCR test kits at their molecular diagnostics unit in Vadodara, India. The facility has a production capacity of one million tests per annum, indicating the potential for significant domestic supply.
  • The approval by CDSCO represents an important step in bolstering India’s diagnostic capabilities in response to the Mpox outbreak, particularly as the country is considered at moderate risk for sustained transmission of the virus.
  1. Technological Advancements in Testing:
    • The RT-PCR kits developed by Siemens Healthineers offer a quicker turnaround time, with test results available in 40 minutes. This is a significant improvement over traditional methods that take one to two hours, allowing for faster diagnosis and response.
    • The IMDX Monkeypox Detection RT-PCR Assay targets two distinct regions in the Mpox viral genome, covering both clade I and clade II variants. This ensures comprehensive detection across various viral strains, which is crucial for effective monitoring and containment of the outbreak.
    • The assay is platform-agnostic, meaning it can be integrated into existing lab workflows without the need for additional equipment. This capability enhances the efficiency of existing COVID-19 testing infrastructure, allowing laboratories to adapt quickly to the new testing requirements for Mpox.
  2. Clinical Validation and Global Standards:
    • The RT-PCR kits have been clinically validated by the Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Virology (ICMR-NIV), Pune. The validation confirmed 100% sensitivity and specificity, indicating that the test is highly accurate in detecting Mpox.
    • The kits adhere to Indian statutory guidelines and comply with the highest global standards, ensuring that they meet both domestic and international requirements for diagnostic accuracy and reliability.
  3. Global and National Implications:
    • The approval and subsequent manufacturing of these kits in India contribute to the country’s preparedness in managing the Mpox outbreak. With 32 laboratories equipped for testing, India is enhancing its diagnostic infrastructure to better detect and respond to potential cases.
    • On a global scale, the WHO’s classification of the Mpox outbreak as a global health emergency underscores the urgency of coordinated international efforts. The WHO has outlined a Strategic Preparedness and Response Plan (SPRP) and is seeking $87.4 million to fund critical activities aimed at containing the outbreak.

Challenges and Considerations:

  1. Risk of Sustained Transmission:
    • While India is currently at moderate risk, the potential for sustained transmission of Mpox remains a concern. Continuous surveillance and rapid diagnostic capabilities are essential to prevent widespread outbreaks.
    • The effectiveness of the diagnostic response will depend on the timely availability of testing kits and the ability to scale up testing capacity as needed.
  2. Global Coordination and Funding:
    • The WHO’s call for $87.4 million in funding highlights the need for global cooperation in managing the Mpox outbreak. Ensuring equitable access to medical countermeasures, including diagnostics and vaccines, is critical to the global response.
    • India’s role in manufacturing and potentially exporting Mpox test kits could position the country as a key player in the global health response, similar to its role during the COVID-19 pandemic.
  3. Public Awareness and Health Infrastructure:
    • Public awareness campaigns and robust health infrastructure are necessary to support early detection and treatment of Mpox. Educating the public about the symptoms and transmission of Mpox can help reduce the spread of the virus.
    • Strengthening the healthcare system to manage potential cases and ensuring that laboratories are equipped and staffed to handle increased testing demands will be crucial.

Conclusion: 

  • The approval granted to Siemens Healthineers for the manufacture of Mpox RT-PCR test kits in India represents a proactive step in the country’s preparedness for a potential Mpox outbreak. 
  • The rapid turnaround time of the tests, coupled with their high accuracy, will enhance India’s diagnostic capabilities. 
  • As the global community continues to grapple with the Mpox outbreak, India’s role in producing these critical diagnostic tools underscores its importance in the global health landscape. 
  • Effective implementation, global coordination, and sustained vigilance will be essential to contain the spread of Mpox and prevent a larger outbreak.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the approval of Mpox RT-PCR test kits by Siemens Healthineers in India:

  1. Siemens Healthineers’ Mpox RT-PCR test kits have been clinically validated by the Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Virology (ICMR-NIV), Pune, with 100% sensitivity and specificity.
  2. The Mpox RT-PCR test kits can produce results in 40 minutes, which is faster than traditional methods that take one to two hours.
  3. The kits require specialized new instruments that are not part of the existing COVID-19 testing infrastructure.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021)

(a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants

(b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system

(c) radio collar for wildlife tracking

(d) spread of viral diseases

Ans: (d)

Answer 5: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Siemens Healthineers’ Mpox RT-PCR test kits have indeed been clinically validated by the Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Virology (ICMR-NIV), Pune, and they have shown 100% sensitivity and specificity, indicating high accuracy.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The test kits can produce results in 40 minutes, which is significantly faster than traditional RT-PCR methods that typically take one to two hours.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Mpox RT-PCR test kits are platform-agnostic and do not require new specialized instruments. They can be used with existing PCR setups, including those used for COVID-19 testing, making them compatible with current laboratory infrastructure.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option A the right answer.

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