CARE 23rd August 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (23-08-2024)

News at a Glance

International Relations:  Centre talks to States on new mechanism to gather crop data

India surpasses China to become Russia’s top oil buyer

Polity and Governance: FSSAI orders removal of A1, A2 milk claims from products

Science and Technology: What the first findings from Chandrayaan 3 mission tell us about the Moon?

Economy: RBI Governor ranked among top 3 global central bankers

Centre talks to States on new mechanism to gather crop data

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-talks-to-states-on-new-mechanism-to-gather-crop-data/article68555399.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Economy- Agriculture

Context: Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES)

Why in News 

• The Centre has convened a national conference with the States to discuss the improvement in crop production statistics in New Delhi

Overview

• The nationwide implementation of the Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) is a significant initiative by the Indian government aimed at improving the accuracy, reliability, and transparency of agricultural statistics. 
• This effort is crucial for informed policy formulation, trade decisions, and agricultural planning.

Key Aspects of the Initiative 

National Conference with States:

• The Centre, led by Union Agriculture Secretary Devesh Chaturvedi, convened a national conference with state governments on August 22, 2024. 
• The primary focus of this conference was on enhancing the accuracy of agricultural production estimates and integrating technology to improve data collection.
• The conference emphasized the need for continuous collaboration between the Union and State governments to achieve the shared goal of enhancing agricultural statistics.

Introduction of Digital Crop Surveys:

• Announced in the recent Budget, the Digital Crop Survey is designed to provide more accurate crop-area estimation. This survey will utilize advanced technologies like remote sensing, geospatial analysis, and artificial intelligence.
• The DGCES aims to calculate crop yield through scientifically designed crop-cutting experiments for all major crops across the country. This will enable more precise estimations of crop production.

Technological Integration:

• The updated version of the FASAL (Forecasting Agricultural output using Space, Agro-meteorology, and Land-based observations) system was also discussed. This system leverages remote sensing technology to generate accurate crop maps and area estimations for ten major crops.
• The integration of cutting-edge technologies in generating crop production statistics is expected to provide near real-time and reliable data directly from the field. This will reduce discrepancies in data collection and contribute to better policymaking in the agricultural sector.

Benefits of DGCES

• Enhanced Data Accuracy: The use of digital surveys and advanced technologies will lead to more accurate crop-area estimation and yield calculations.
• Improved Policy Formulation: Reliable and precise data will help the government in making informed decisions regarding agricultural policies, trade, and planning.
• Real-Time Data: The DGCES will provide near real-time data, which is crucial for timely interventions and adjustments in agricultural practices.
• Transparency and Reliability: The initiative will act as a single source of truth, providing geotagged plot-level data, thus ensuring transparency in agricultural statistics.
  

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q.  With reference to the Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) recently discussed in a national conference in New Delhi, consider the following statements: DGCES aims to provide near real-time and reliable crop production data directly from the field. The initiative integrates advanced technologies such as remote sensing, geospatial analysis, and artificial intelligence. DGCES will generate crop production estimates for all crops grown in India. The updated version of the FASAL system will leverage remote sensing technology to generate crop maps and area estimations for ten major crops. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2, and 4 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q. In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater implementation? (2014) There is no National Seeds Policy in place. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only None Answer c

 

Answer 1– B Explanation Statement 1 is correct: DGCES aims to provide near real-time and reliable data directly from the field. Statement 2 is correct: The initiative integrates technologies like remote sensing, geospatial analysis, and AI. Statement 3 is incorrect: DGCES will focus on major crops, not all crops grown in India. Statement 4 is correct: The FASAL system will generate crop maps and area estimations for ten major crops. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

FSSAI orders Removal of A1, A2 milk claims from products

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/fssai-orders-removal-of-a1-a2-milk-claims-from-products/article68555559.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: Understanding the A1 and A2 Milk Claims

Why in News 

• Food safety regulator FSSAI directed food businesses, including e-commerce players, to remove claims of ‘A1’ and ‘A2’ types of milk and milk products from packaging, calling such labelling misleading. 

Overview

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) recently issued a directive to food businesses, including e-commerce platforms, to remove claims related to ‘A1’ and ‘A2’ types of milk and milk products from their packaging. 
• This decision is based on the finding that such claims are misleading and do not conform to the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

Understanding the A1 and A2 Milk Claims

• A1 and A2 Milk: The differentiation between A1 and A2 milk is based on the structure of a protein called beta-casein found in milk. This structural variation is linked to the breed of the cow producing the milk. However, FSSAI has noted that its current regulations do not recognize or differentiate between these types of milk.

FSSAI’s Directive

• Removal of Claims: FSSAI has instructed food business operators (FBOs) to remove any claims about A1 or A2 milk from their product packaging and marketing materials.
• E-commerce Compliance: E-commerce platforms have also been directed to remove such claims from their products and websites immediately.
• Transition Period: Companies have been given six months to use up any pre-printed labels that mention A1 or A2 milk, after which no further extensions will be granted.

Industry Response

• Parag Milk Foods Chairman’s Statement: Devendra Shah, Chairman of Parag Milk Foods, welcomed the FSSAI’s order, describing the A1 and A2 milk differentiation as a “marketing gimmick.” He emphasized that these claims could mislead consumers and that the FSSAI’s directive is a step towards eliminating such misinformation.

Broader Implications 

• Regulatory Compliance: The directive emphasizes the importance of adhering to established food safety regulations and preventing misleading marketing practices.
• Consumer Protection: By removing unrecognized and potentially confusing labels, the FSSAI aims to protect consumers from being misled by unsubstantiated claims.
• Global Trend: The fading popularity of the A1 and A2 milk distinction globally further supports the FSSAI’s stance, reinforcing the need for clarity and accuracy in food labeling.

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) 

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is the apex regulatory body responsible for ensuring the safety and standards of food products in India. 
• It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India.

Key Functions and Responsibilities

1. Framing Food Safety Standards:
   • FSSAI is responsible for framing regulations and standards for food safety and quality. These standards are designed to ensure that food products are safe for consumption and free from contaminants.
2. Regulation and Licensing:
   • The authority regulates the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import of food to ensure that it is safe for consumption. It issues licenses and registrations to food business operators (FBOs) and ensures compliance with food safety regulations.
3. Surveillance and Monitoring:
   • FSSAI conducts regular surveillance and monitoring of food products available in the market. This includes sampling and testing to detect adulteration, contamination, and compliance with established standards.
4. Consumer Awareness:
   • FSSAI plays a crucial role in educating consumers about food safety. It runs campaigns and initiatives to raise awareness about food safety, hygiene, and nutrition.
5. Policy Formulation:
   • FSSAI advises the government on policy matters related to food safety and nutrition. It also collaborates with international bodies and stakeholders to harmonize food safety standards.
6. Research and Development:
   • The authority promotes research and development in food safety and standards. It collaborates with academic and research institutions to study emerging food safety issues and develop scientific solutions.
7. Enforcement:
   • FSSAI has the authority to enforce food safety laws and take action against non-compliant entities. This includes issuing fines, penalties, and even shutting down operations that violate food safety norms.
     

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q2. Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) issued a directive regarding the labelling of A1 and A2 types of milk. Consider the following statements: FSSAI has mandated that all food business operators must remove references to A1 and A2 milk from their product labels. The differentiation between A1 and A2 milk is recognized and regulated by the current FSSAI standards. E-commerce platforms are required to remove claims related to A1 and A2 milk from their websites immediately. Companies have been granted a one-year transition period to exhaust pre-printed labels mentioning A1 and A2 milk. Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 4 only C) 1, 3, and 4 only D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Q. Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c)

Answer 2– A Explanation –  Statement 1 is correct: Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has instructed food business operators to remove references to A1 and A2 milk from their product labels. Statement 2 is incorrect: FSSAI does not recognize the differentiation between A1 and A2 milk in its current regulations. Statement 3 is correct: E-commerce platforms are also required to remove claims related to A1 and A2 milk from their websites immediately. Statement 4 is incorrect: Companies have been given a six-month transition period, not one year, to exhaust pre-printed labels.  Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 What the first findings from Chandrayaan 3 mission tell us about the Moon?

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/what-the-first-findings-from-chandrayaan-3-mission-tell-us-about-the-moon-9528323/  

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Science and Technology

Context: Moon mission of ISRO

Why in News 

• The findings released by Indian scientists nearly a year after Chandrayaan 3’s successful landing on the Moon represent a significant milestone in lunar research. 

Overview 

• The findings released by Indian scientists nearly a year after Chandrayaan 3’s successful landing on the Moon represent a significant milestone in lunar research. 
• These findings are derived from studies conducted by the Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) on the rover module and provide valuable insights into the composition of the lunar surface, particularly in the Moon’s southern latitudes.

Key Findings from Chandrayaan 3’s APXS 

• Uniform Terrain Around the Landing Site: The terrain around the Chandrayaan 3 landing site has been found to be fairly uniform. This is a novel discovery, as it contrasts with the diverse and uneven terrains found on Earth, shaped by tectonic plate movements.
• Support for the Lunar Magma Ocean (LMO) Hypothesis: The APXS findings reinforce the widely-accepted Lunar Magma Ocean hypothesis, which suggests that the Moon’s surface was initially covered by a sea of molten material after its formation. As this magma ocean cooled, it led to the formation of a layered lunar crust. The findings indicate that the crust was formed layer by layer, with heavier minerals like olivine and pyroxene sinking to lower layers and lighter minerals forming the upper crust.
• New Insights into Lunar Crust Mixing: The study suggests that there may have been “mixing” of the various layers of the lunar crust. This mixing is theorized to have been caused by the asteroid impact that created the South Pole Aitken (SPA) Basin, the largest and oldest basin on the Moon. The impact likely brought magnesium-rich material from deeper layers to the surface, especially around the area where Chandrayaan 3 landed.

Significance of the Findings 

• Novelty of South Pole Exploration: Chandrayaan 3 is the first mission to conduct in situ experiments near the Moon’s south pole, making its findings unique. Previous missions by other countries focused on the Moon’s equatorial and mid-latitude regions, leaving the polar regions largely unexplored.
• Implications for Future Missions: The uniformity of the lunar surface near the landing site suggests that this region could serve as a calibration point for remote sensing operations in future missions. Additionally, the APXS measurements provide the “first ground truth” for the south polar highlands, which could play a crucial role in understanding the Moon’s origin and evolution.
• Potential for Calibration and Further Research: The findings also imply that the region could be instrumental in calibrating instruments for future lunar missions. This uniform surface can help refine our understanding of lunar meteorites, which are rocks from the Moon that land on Earth after being ejected by impacts.

Chandrayaan-3 Programme

• Chandrayaan-3 is India’s third lunar mission and second attempt at achieving a soft landing on the moon’s surface.
• On July 14, 2023, Chandrayaan-3 took off from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. 
• The spacecraft seamlessly entered lunar orbit on August 5, 2023. 
• The historic moment unfolded when the lander made a successful touchdown near the Lunar south pole on Aug 23, 2023.

• Mission Objectives:
  • To demonstrate Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface
  • To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and
  • To conduct in-situ scientific experiments.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q3. The Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) on Chandrayaan 3’s rover module has provided significant insights into the lunar surface. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding these findings? The terrain around Chandrayaan 3’s landing site is highly diverse and uneven, similar to Earth’s surface. The findings support the Lunar Magma Ocean (LMO) hypothesis, suggesting that the Moon’s crust was formed layer by layer. The APXS data suggests a possible “mixing” of the lunar crust layers, potentially caused by an asteroid impact that formed the South Pole Aitken (SPA) Basin. Chandrayaan 3 is the first mission to conduct in situ experiments near the Moon’s equator. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only

Q. Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO (2016) is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ans: c

Answer 3 B Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: The terrain around Chandrayaan 3’s landing site is fairly uniform, not highly diverse and uneven. Statement 2 is correct: The findings support the Lunar Magma Ocean hypothesis, indicating that the Moon’s crust was formed in layers. Statement 3 is correct: The APXS data suggests possible mixing of the lunar crust layers, likely due to an asteroid impact that formed the SPA Basin. Statement 4 is incorrect: Chandrayaan 3 is the first mission to conduct in situ experiments near the Moon’s south pole, not the equator. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

RBI Governor ranked among top 3 global central bankers

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/rbi-governor-shaktikanta-das-global-ranking-modi-9524964/  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Economy

Context: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor

Why in News 

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das has been ranked among the top three central bankers globally for the second consecutive year by the US-based magazine Global Finance.

Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 

• The Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards are an annual ranking that evaluates central bank governors from nearly 100 countries, territories, and districts. 
• These rankings have been published since 1994.

Criteria:

Central bankers are graded on an “A+” to “F” scale based on their success in areas like:

• Inflation control: How effectively they manage and control inflation within their countries.
• Economic growth goals: Their success in fostering economic growth.
• Currency stability: How well they maintain the stability of the national currency.
• Interest rate management: Their ability to manage interest rates effectively to balance economic stability and growth.

Shaktikanta Das’s Achievement 

• Ranking: In the 2024 report, Shaktikanta Das was ranked among the top three central bankers globally, securing the second spot.
• A+ Rating: Das received an “A+” rating, signifying exceptional performance in his role as RBI Governor. This is the highest grade awarded by Global Finance.
• Global Recognition: This is the second consecutive year that Das has been rated “A+” by Global Finance, underscoring his consistent leadership and successful management of India’s monetary policy.

Other Top Central Bankers

• Top Position: The top spot in the 2024 rankings was secured by Christian Kettel Thomsen, Governor of Denmark’s central bank.
• Third Position: Thomas Jordan, the Governor of Switzerland’s central bank, was placed third.

Significance of the Ranking 

• Recognition of Leadership: Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated Shaktikanta Das on this achievement, highlighting it as a recognition of his leadership at the RBI and his efforts in ensuring economic growth and stability in India.
• Context of the Ranking: The rankings come at a time when central banks globally have been dealing with high inflation by implementing higher interest rates. The report praises central bankers like Das for their originality, creativity, and tenacity in navigating these challenges.

Global Finance’s Perspective 

• Inflation Control: Joseph Giarraputo, the founder and editorial director of Global Finance, emphasized that central bankers have been combating inflation using higher interest rates. The drop in global inflation rates is seen as a result of these efforts.
• Annual Recognition: Global Finance’s Central Banker Report Cards are well-regarded in the financial community, providing an annual assessment of the effectiveness of central bankers worldwide.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

• RBI is the central bank of India.
• It was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• It was originally set up as a private entity in 1935, but it was nationalized in 1949.
• Objectives: The Preamble of the RBI describes the basic functions of the Reserve Bank as:
• To regulate the issue of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.
• To have a modern monetary policy framework to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex economy,
• To maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Structure of RBI:

• The Reserve Bank’s affairs are governed by a central board of directors.
• The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act.
• The directors are appointed/nominated for a period of four years.
  

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ranking of RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das in the Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024? Shaktikanta Das received an “A+” rating in the Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024, making it his first time receiving such a high grade. In the 2024 report, Das was ranked among the top three central bankers globally. The Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards evaluate central bank governors based on criteria including inflation control, economic growth goals, currency stability, and interest rate management. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 2 only

Q. Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: c

Answer 4 B Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: Shaktikanta Das received an “A+” rating for the second consecutive year, not for the first time. Statement 2 is correct: Das was indeed ranked among the top three central bankers globally in the 2024 report. Statement 3 is correct: The Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards assess central bankers based on their success in areas like inflation control, economic growth, currency stability, and interest rate management. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

India surpasses China to become Russia’s top oil buyer

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/india-surpasses-china-become-russias-top-oil-buyer-july-9527217/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2– International Relations, GS 3- External Trade

Context: China to become Russia’s top oil buyer

Why in news 

• India overtook China as the world’s biggest importer of Russian oil in July as Chinese refiners bought less because of lower profit margins from producing fuels, a comparison of import data showed. 

Record Imports of Russian Oil by India

• Volume: India imported a record 2.07 million barrels per day (bpd) of Russian crude oil in July 2024. This volume represents a 4.2% increase from June 2024 and a 12% increase from July 2023.
• Percentage of Total Imports: Russian oil constituted 44% of India’s total oil imports in July 2024.

China’s Declining Imports:

• Volume: China’s imports of Russian oil in July 2024 were 1.76 million bpd, which is less than India’s imports. This drop was attributed to lower profit margins for Chinese refiners due to reduced profitability from producing fuels.
• Impact on ESPO Blend: China has traditionally been a major buyer of Russian ESPO (Eastern Siberia-Pacific Ocean) Blend crude oil. However, demand has decreased, leading to a shift in this crude’s flow from China to South Asia.

Indian Refiners’ Strategy

• Discounted Oil: Indian refiners have been acquiring Russian oil at discounted prices, a consequence of Western sanctions on Russia following its invasion of Ukraine. This strategy has enabled India to increase its Russian oil imports.
• Future Trends: There is an expectation that India’s demand for Russian oil may continue to rise, provided that sanctions do not become more stringent.

Broader Trade Dynamics

• Overall Imports: India’s overall trade with Russia has grown since Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, largely driven by increased imports of oil and fertilizers. 

• This trade expansion has helped manage global oil prices and mitigate inflationary pressures.
• Changes in Oil Flow: The shift of Russian ESPO Blend crude from China to India has altered traditional supply routes. For example, ESPO imports to India surged to 188,000 bpd in July 2024, with larger Suezmax vessels being utilized for transportation.

Middle Eastern Oil Suppliers:

• Top Suppliers: Iraq remains the second-largest oil supplier to India, followed by Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates.
• Middle Eastern Share: Crude oil imports from the Middle East rose by 4% in July 2024, increasing the region’s share in India’s overall oil imports to 40%, up from 38% in June 2024.

Significance

• Geopolitical Implications: India’s rise as the top importer of Russian oil reflects its strategic approach to managing energy resources amidst global geopolitical tensions.
• Economic Impact: The increase in Russian oil imports has implications for global oil markets, potentially influencing oil prices and trade dynamics in the region.
• Energy Security: By diversifying its sources of oil and capitalizing on discounted Russian crude, India is bolstering its energy security and managing costs in the face of global economic uncertainties.
  

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q5.  In July 2024, India surpassed China to become the world’s largest importer of Russian oil. Which of the following statements about this development is/are correct? India imported 2.07 million barrels per day (bpd) of Russian crude oil in July 2024, marking a 12% increase from the previous year. China’s imports of Russian oil in July 2024 were 1.76 million bpd, indicating a decrease due to lower profit margins in fuel production. The shift of Russian ESPO Blend crude from China to India is a result of increased demand in China. Iraq continued to be the largest oil supplier to India in July 2024, followed by Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, and 4 only

Q. With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.  India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below : a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Ans – d

Answer 5- A Explanation Statement 1 is correct: India imported 2.07 million bpd of Russian crude oil in July 2024, a 12% increase from July 2023. Statement 2 is correct: China’s imports were 1.76 million bpd in July 2024, reflecting a decrease due to lower profit margins in fuel production. Statement 3 is incorrect: The shift of ESPO Blend crude from China to India is due to decreased demand in China, not increased demand. Statement 4 is incorrect: Iraq is not the largest oil supplier to India; it is the second-largest. Saudi Arabia and the UAE are also major suppliers, but Iraq is not the largest.  Therefore, option A is the correct answer.