Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (25-10-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Science and Technology: Cabinet approves ₹1,000-crore venture capital fund for space tech firms |
| Military exercises with Singapore and Germany |
| Environment and Ecology: India’s emissions rose by 6.1% in 2023, but historical contribution stands at only 3%: UN study |
| Polity and Governance: Justice Sanjiv Khanna appointed next Chief Justice of India, will enter office Nov 11 |
| Art and Culture: ICCR organises conference on Pali as classical language in Colombo |
| International Relations: India, China begin disengagement at Depsang and Demchok |
Cabinet approves ₹1,000-crore venture capital fund for space tech firms
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Science and Technology
Context: Space Reforms
Why in News
- The Union Cabinet has approved a ₹1,000-crore venture capital fund to support firms in the space tech domain.
Overview
- The Union Cabinet’s recent approval of a ₹1,000-crore venture capital fund dedicated to supporting firms in India’s space technology sector reflects India’s ambition to strengthen its position in the global space economy. This fund, set to operate under the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe), aims to bolster domestic space tech firms through professional financial management and strategically targeted investments.
Key Objectives of the Fund
- Strengthening India’s Space Tech Industry: The fund seeks to support approximately 40 promising firms, chosen based on their potential for commercial success and contributions to national space capabilities. These companies, particularly startups and early-stage firms, are seen as crucial to driving innovation and expanding India’s technological capabilities in the space sector.
- Countering the Trend of Relocation Abroad: There has been a trend of Indian space tech companies establishing headquarters overseas to access better funding and favorable regulatory environments. This fund aims to counter this trend by providing much-needed risk capital within India, making it financially viable for these companies to remain domiciled in the country.
- Addressing Risk Capital Needs: Traditional lenders are generally reluctant to fund startups in high-tech fields due to the significant risks involved. This government-supported venture capital fund offers a solution by supplying risk capital that startups in space technology desperately need to grow and succeed.
Fund Structure and Management
- The fund will be professionally managed, deploying capital in stages to ensure sustained support for chosen firms over a period of five years. Here’s a breakdown of the fund deployment:
- 2025-26: ₹150 crore
- 2026-29: ₹250 crore per year for three years
- 2029-30: ₹100 crore
- This phased approach allows for continuous evaluation and realignment of investments based on company performance and changing industry dynamics.
Investment Criteria and Range
- The investment range will be between ₹10 crore and ₹60 crore, depending on the stage and growth potential of the companies. The fund targets both early-stage and late-stage companies, with the allocation criteria as follows:
- Early-Stage Companies: Investment range of ₹10 crore to ₹30 crore, as they often need capital to grow from initial development stages.
- Late-Stage Companies: Investment range of ₹30 crore to ₹60 crore, since these firms require larger sums to expand operations or scale technology.
- The government expects these initial investments to act as a springboard for companies to secure further private equity investments in later stages of their growth.
Boosting India’s Space Economy
- India’s current space economy is valued at around $8.4 billion, a modest figure compared to the projected potential. With the establishment of this fund and the overall expansion of space-related infrastructure and investment, India aims to grow this market to $44 billion by 2033.
- The fund is part of a broader strategy that involves policy support, regulatory reforms, and promotion of public-private partnerships to achieve this ambitious target.
Expected Impact
- The ₹1,000-crore venture capital fund is anticipated to have the following impacts:
- Fostering Innovation and Development: By supporting startups and scaling ventures, the fund aims to encourage the development of indigenous technology, increasing India’s capacity for innovation in areas like satellite technology, launch vehicles, space-based applications, and more.
- Building National Space Capabilities: The emphasis on commercialization and scalability suggests that the fund will look for companies that can contribute to India’s technological self-reliance in space exploration and services.
- Economic Growth and Job Creation: Expanding the space tech sector could generate significant economic activity, creating jobs and nurturing highly specialized skills within the country.
Conclusion
- The establishment of this venture capital fund signals a strategic shift in India’s approach to the space sector.
- With IN-SPACe’s support, this fund could attract both domestic and international stakeholders, solidifying India’s position in the global space industry.
- It aligns with India’s ambitions for economic growth, technological innovation, and the establishment of India as a prominent player in the future of space technology.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the ₹1,000-crore venture capital fund approved by the Union Cabinet to support India’s space tech sector:
1. The fund will be managed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). 2. The fund aims to support around 40 firms based on their commercialization potential. 3. It seeks to provide risk capital primarily for early-stage space tech companies. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 |
Q. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020)
a) Voyager-2 b) New Horizons c) LISA Pathfinder d) Evolved LISA Answer: d |
| Answer – 1-B
Explanation – · Statement 1 is incorrect. The fund will be set up under the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe), an autonomous body under the Department of Space, and not directly managed by ISRO. · Statement 2 is correct. The fund is planned to support approximately 40 firms that demonstrate strong potential for commercialization. · Statement 3 is correct. The fund’s primary focus is on early-stage space tech companies to help them secure risk capital, which is often difficult to obtain from traditional lenders.
|
Military exercises with Singapore and Germany
Source: PIB
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2067816
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Defence , Science and Technology
Context: SIMBEX and MPX
Why in News
- The 31st edition of the Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) is scheduled in the Eastern Naval Command at Visakhapatnam.
Overview
- The 31st edition of the Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) is set to take place from October 23 to 29, 2024, in the Eastern Naval Command at Visakhapatnam.
- This exercise marks a significant milestone in the ongoing maritime collaboration between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN), showcasing their commitment to enhancing naval cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
Background of SIMBEX
- Origins: SIMBEX began in 1994 as Exercise Lion King and has since transformed into a vital bilateral maritime exercise aimed at strengthening defense ties between India and Singapore.
- Significance: This exercise is one of the most important collaborations in the maritime domain for both nations, focusing on improving interoperability and enhancing maritime security cooperation.
Structure of SIMBEX 2024
The exercise is divided into two distinct phases:
- Harbour Phase (October 23-25):
- Activities: This phase will involve Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEEs), where personnel from both navies will share knowledge on various topics related to maritime operations.
- Cross-deck Visits: Personnel will have the opportunity to board each other’s ships, fostering camaraderie and better understanding of operational capabilities.
- Sports Fixtures: Engaging in friendly sports competitions to build relationships among crew members.
- Pre-sail Briefings: Conducting briefings to ensure smooth execution of activities in the following sea phase.
- Sea Phase (October 28-29):
- Advanced Naval Drills: This phase will include a series of complex exercises, such as:
- Live Weapon Firings: Testing the effectiveness of naval weaponry in real-time scenarios.
- Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) Training: Exercises designed to detect and neutralize submarine threats.
- Anti-Surface and Anti-Air Operations: Conducting operations to counter surface and aerial threats, enhancing readiness against potential adversaries.
- Seamanship Evolutions: Practicing essential naval skills necessary for effective maritime operations.
- Tactical Maneuvers: Engaging in coordinated maneuvers to improve operational effectiveness.
- Advanced Naval Drills: This phase will include a series of complex exercises, such as:
Opening Ceremony
- The opening ceremony for SIMBEX 2024 will be conducted on October 24, 2024, onboard INS Shivalik, which is a modern Indian Navy destroyer.
- This event will be attended by units from both the Eastern Fleet of the Indian Navy and the Singapore Navy, symbolizing the unity and collaboration between the two nations.
Involvement of Other Navies
In addition to the participation of the Indian Navy and the RSN, there are exercises involving the German Navy:
- INS Delhi: The lead ship of her class of guided missile destroyers, part of the Indian Navy’s Eastern Fleet, representing India’s maritime capabilities.
- Baden-Württemberg: The lead ship of the F125 class of frigates from the German Navy, indicating Germany’s growing interest in participating in maritime exercises in the Indian Ocean region.
- Frankfurt Am Main: A Berlin-class replenishment ship, showcasing logistical support capabilities.
Objectives of SIMBEX 2024
- Enhancing Interoperability: The exercises are designed to improve the ability of the Indian and Singaporean navies to operate together seamlessly.
- Maritime Domain Awareness: By conducting joint exercises, both navies aim to enhance their situational awareness in the maritime domain, vital for security and safety in the region.
- Addressing Common Maritime Challenges: The collaboration aims to tackle shared threats such as piracy, smuggling, and illegal fishing, reinforcing regional security.
Conclusion
- The SIMBEX 2024 exercise exemplifies the deepening maritime ties between India and Singapore.
- By focusing on enhancing interoperability, improving tactical capabilities, and fostering cooperation, both nations are taking significant steps towards ensuring a secure and stable maritime environment in the Indo-Pacific region.
- The exercise not only reinforces bilateral ties but also contributes to broader security dynamics in the region, promoting peace and cooperation among nations.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the 31st edition of the Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX):
1. The exercise was held in the Eastern Naval Command at Visakhapatnam. 2. It includes participation from navies of India, Singapore, and Germany. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only |
Q. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2021)
a) Amphibious warfare ship Answer: C |
| Answer 2– C
Explanation – · Statement 1 is correct; the exercise will be held in the Eastern Naval Command at Visakhapatnam. · Statement 2 is correct; it includes participation from the navies of India, Singapore, and Germany. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |
India’s emissions rose by 6.1% in 2023, but historical contribution stands at only 3%: UN study
Source: Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/indias-emissions-rose-by-6-1-in-2023-9637311/
UPSC Relevance: GS3- Environment and Ecology
Context: Emissions Gap Report 2024
Why in News
- The Emissions Gap Report 2024 has been released by the UN Environment Programme.
Overview of India’s Greenhouse Gas Emissions
- India’s greenhouse gas emissions surged by 1% in 2023, contributing to 8% of the global total, according to the UN’s Emissions Gap Report 2024.
- While the country’s historical contribution to global CO2 emissions stands at only 3%, the report underscores the urgent need for global climate action to address the ongoing climate crisis.
Key Findings from the Emissions Gap Report 2024
- Current Emissions and Global Context
- India’s Emissions Growth: The 6.1% increase in emissions in 2023 reflects the country’s growing energy demands as the most populous nation.
- Per Capita Emissions: Despite this growth, India’s per capita emissions remain relatively low at 9 tons of CO2 equivalent (tCO2e) compared to the global average of 6.6 tCO2e.
- Global Emissions Disparity: G20 nations (excluding the African Union) account for 77% of global GHG emissions, emphasizing the stark inequalities in emissions contributions.
- Comparative Analysis
- Peak Emissions: Seven G20 countries, including India, have yet to peak their emissions, making rapid reductions essential to meet long-term climate goals.
- Historical Contributions: While India’s emissions are rising, its historical contribution to global CO2 emissions remains minimal compared to countries like the United States, which accounts for 20% of global emissions.
- Challenges and Inequities in Global Emissions
- Record High Global Emissions
- Global emissions reached a record high of 1 gigatons of CO2 equivalent (GtCO2e) in 2023, reflecting a 1.3% increase from the previous year.
- This growth surpasses the average annual increase of 8% seen in the decade before the COVID-19 pandemic.
- Sectoral Contributions to Emissions
- Power Sector: The largest contributor to emissions, accounting for 1 GtCO2e.
- Transportation Sector: Emitting 4 GtCO2e, with international aviation witnessing the most significant rise at 19.5% as travel rebounded post-pandemic.
- Agriculture and Industry: Each sector contributed 5 GtCO2e.
Climate Goals and Future Projections
- Urgent Action Needed
- The report warns that without immediate, dramatic action, the goals of limiting global warming to 5 degrees Celsius or 2 degrees Celsius will become unattainable.
- A reduction of 42% in emissions by 2030 (compared to 2019 levels) is needed to stay on track for the 5°C target, while a 28% reduction is necessary for the 2°C target.
- Global Warming Projections
- Current trajectories indicate a potential rise of 6 degrees Celsius by the end of the century, leading to disastrous consequences like extreme weather, ecosystem collapse, and widespread social and economic disruptions.
Opportunities for Climate Action
- Renewable Energy Potential
- By 2030, solar and wind energy could contribute 27% to total emissions reduction potential, increasing to 38% by 2035.
- Role of Forests in Emission Reduction
- Forests can provide 20% of emissions reduction potential through reforestation and carbon sequestration efforts.
- Investment and Financial Reforms
- The report calls for a six-fold increase in mitigation investments and reforms in the global financial system to support developing countries in their climate initiatives.
2024 Emissions Gap Report
- The 2024 Emissions Gap Report, published by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), emphasizes the urgent need for countries to increase their climate ambitions to avoid catastrophic temperature rises.
- The report warns that without immediate and significant reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, the global temperature could rise by 2.6°C to 3.1°C this century, resulting in devastating consequences for humanity, ecosystems, and economies.
- To meet the 1.5°C target established by the Paris Agreement, nations must reduce emissions by 42% by 2030 and 57% by 2035.
- The report highlights the potential for rapid emissions reductions through renewable energy sources like solar and wind, but it stresses that these measures must be accompanied by strong national commitments, enhanced international cooperation, and substantial increases in climate finance—at least sixfold investments are necessary for effective climate action
Conclusion
- The Emissions Gap Report 2024 highlights both the challenges and the potential pathways toward achieving significant emissions reductions.
- It emphasizes the need for urgent global action to bridge the gap between climate commitments and actual results.
- As India navigates its energy demands and climate responsibilities, the emphasis must be on collaborative international efforts to ensure a sustainable future.
- Delaying action could necessitate even steeper emissions cuts post-2030, further stressing the importance of immediate and coordinated climate action.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements regarding India’s greenhouse gas emissions as per the UN Emissions Gap Report 2024:
1. India’s greenhouse gas emissions surged by 6.1% in 2023, contributing to 8% of the global total. 2. India’s historical contribution to global CO2 emissions stands at 20%. 3. The power sector is the largest contributor to India’s emissions, followed by the transportation sector. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only |
Q. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021)
(a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Ans: (a)
|
| Answer 3 – B
Explanation · Statement 1: Correct. India’s greenhouse gas emissions did surge by 6.1% in 2023, contributing to 8% of the global total. · Statement 2: Incorrect. India’s historical contribution to global CO2 emissions stands at only 3%. · Statement 3: Correct. The power sector is the largest contributor to India’s emissions, followed by the transportation sector. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
Justice Sanjiv Khanna appointed next Chief Justice of India, will enter office Nov 11
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- Judiciary, Polity and Governance
Context: Appointment of Chief Justice of India
Why in News
- President Droupadi Murmu appointed Justice Sanjiv Khanna as the 51st Chief Justice of India.
Overview
- Justice Sanjiv Khanna has been appointed as the 51st Chief Justice of India by President Droupadi Murmu.
- This appointment is significant not only because of the high-profile nature of the position but also due to Justice Khanna’s extensive background and contributions to the Indian legal system.
- Supreme Court Appointment: Justice Khanna was elevated to the Supreme Court in January 2019. His rise to this position was notable as he was appointed despite not having served as Chief Justice of a High Court. He was chosen over other senior judges, which indicates the Supreme Court Collegium’s confidence in his capabilities.
Key Contributions and Rulings
Throughout his judicial career, Justice Khanna has been involved in several landmark rulings, including:
- Electoral Bond Scheme: In February 2024, he was part of a five-judge Constitution Bench that declared the Electoral Bond Scheme unconstitutional. This ruling had significant implications for electoral transparency and campaign financing in India.
- Abrogation of Article 370: Justice Khanna also participated in the bench that upheld the abrogation of Article 370 in 2023, which was a pivotal moment in Indian constitutional law, impacting the special status of Jammu and Kashmir.
- Divorce Under Article 142: In a significant ruling in 2023, Justice Khanna authored a judgment stating that the Supreme Court has the authority to grant divorce directly under Article 142 on the grounds of “irretrievable breakdown of marriage.” This ruling emphasized the court’s role in addressing personal law matters and providing relief to individuals facing marital difficulties.
What are the Notable Judgments of Justice Sanjiv Khanna?
- Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (2024)
- This was a 5-judge bench judgment delivered by Justice Dr. DY Chandrachud, Justice Pardiwala, Justice BR Gavai, Justice Manoj Misra and Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
- The Court in this case decided the constitutional validity of the anonymous electoral bonds scheme.
- The Court in this case unanimously struck down the scheme of electoral bonds on the ground that it violates the right enshrined under Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution of India, 1950 (COI).
- Interplay Between Arbitration Agreements under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 (2023)
- This judgement was delivered by a 7 judge bench and is of utmost importance.
- A 7-judge Bench in this case laid down the law on the enforceability of an unstamped arbitration agreement.
- The issue was whether the arbitration agreement would be unenforceable and invalid if the underlying contract is not stamped.
- The Court held that Section 35 of the Stamp Act is unambiguous, and it renders the unstamped instrument inadmissible and not void.
- The nonpayment of stamp duty is characterized as a curable defect.
- The Court held the following
- Agreements which are not stamped or are inadequately stamped are inadmissible in evidence under Section 35 of the Stamp Act. Such agreements are not rendered void or void ab initio or unenforceable.
- Non-stamping or inadequate stamping is a curable defect.
- An objection as to stamping does not fall for determination under Sections 8 or 11 of the Arbitration Act. The Court concerned must examine whether the arbitration agreement prima facie exists.
- Any objections in relation to the stamping of the agreement fall within the ambit of the arbitral tribunal.
- The decisions in NN Global Mercantile (P) Ltd v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. (2021) and SMS Tea Estates (P) Ltd. v. Chandmari Tea Co. (P) Ltd., (2011), were overruled. Further, Paragraphs 22 and 29 of Garware Wall Ropes Ltd. v. Coastal Marine Constructions & Engg. Ltd., (2019) were overruled to that extent.
- Shilpa Shailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan (2023)
- This is a landmark judgment delivered by a 5-judge Constitution Bench.
- The Supreme Court held that a marriage can be dissolved on “irretrievable breakdown” by invoking powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, 1950 (COI).
- The Court held in this case that grant of divorce on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage is valid ground when there is no scope of reconciliation.
- While determining if the marriage has been irretrievably broken down the following factors shall be determined:
- the period the parties had cohabited after marriage.
- when the parties had last cohabited.
- the nature of allegations made by the parties against each other and their family members.
- The orders passed in the legal proceedings sometimes have a cumulative impact on the personal relationship.
- whether, and how many attempts were made to settle the disputes by intervention of the court or through mediation, and when the last attempt was made, etc.
- The period of separation should be sufficiently long, and anything above six years or more will be a relevant factor.
- Central Public Information Officer v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019)
- This judgment was delivered by a 5-judge Constitution Bench.
- In this judgment the Supreme Court upheld the judgment of Delhi High Court bringing the office of Chief Justice of India under Right to Information.
- Majority judgment penned by Justice Sanjiv Khanna stated that “Judicial independence and accountability go hand in hand as accountability ensures, and is a facet of judicial independence.”
- The Court held in this case that independence of judiciary cannot be achieved only by denial of access to information. Information in a given case may well demand openness and transparency by furnishing the information.
- Anna Mathews v. Supreme Court of India (2023)
- This judgment was delivered by a division bench consisting of Justice Sanjiv Khanna and Justice BR Gavai.
- The question posed before the Court in this case was whether the appointment of judges of High Court would fall within the scope of judicial review.
- The Court in this case drew a distinction between eligibility and suitability.
- The Court observed that eligibility is an objective factor which is determined by applying the qualifications mentioned under Article 217 of Constitution of India, 1950 (COI).
- However, the question of suitability stands outside the purview of judicial review.
- ONGC v. Afcons Gunanusa JV (2022)
- This is a 3-judge bench judgment that lays down principles regarding fixation of fee of arbitrators.
- The Court in this case held a very important point that the arbitrators do not have the power to unilaterally issue enforceable orders determining their own fees.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief Justice of India:
Statement 1: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of the Prime Minister. Statement 2: The Chief Justice of India must be the most senior judge in the Supreme Court at the time of appointment. Statement 3: The tenure of the Chief Justice of India is fixed at 5 years from the date of appointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) Only Statement 1 is correct. B) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. C) Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct. D) All of the statements are correct
|
With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (2021)
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 Ans: (c) |
| Answer 4-B
Explanation · Statement 1 is correct. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India, but this appointment is primarily based on the recommendations made by the Chief Justice of India and the Collegium system, which typically includes senior judges. While the Prime Minister’s advice plays a role, the actual recommendation is rooted in seniority among judges. · Statement 2 is Correct. The convention in India is that the Chief Justice is appointed from among the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. This practice ensures that the appointment is based on merit and experience. · Statement 3 is incorrect. The Chief Justice of India does not have a fixed term of 5 years; instead, they serve until the age of retirement, which is 65 years. There is no fixed term, although they can resign before reaching retirement age. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
ICCR organises conference on Pali as classical language in Colombo
Source: Times of India
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS1- Art and Culture
Context: Pali as classical language
Why in news
- The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) held a conference of Buddhist monks and scholars in Colombo on bequeathing Pali the status of a classical language by the Indian government.
Why Confer Classical Language Status on Pali?
Buddhist scholars argue that Pali’s classical language status affirms its importance as an ancient and respected medium for religious knowledge, enabling more resources and institutional support for study and preservation. This move is seen as:
- Preservation of Cultural Heritage: The recognition supports the conservation and revitalization of Pali, ensuring that its rich philosophical texts remain accessible to future generations.
- Educational and Academic Incentives: With classical status, there may be increased funding for Pali studies, scholarships, research grants, and greater academic infrastructure to support language learning and scripture study.
- Encouragement of Research and Translation: It encourages linguistic research and translation of Pali texts, which are vital for deeper insights into Buddhist teachings and ancient knowledge systems.
- Promotion of Buddhist Heritage: This status honors the significant influence of Buddhism on India and surrounding countries and reinforces India’s ties with Buddhist nations and communities globally.
Response from the Global Buddhist Community
- During the conference, participants praised the government’s decision, noting that it reflects India’s role as a custodian of Buddhist heritage.
- Prime Minister expressed his gratitude to the attendees, emphasizing the joy and pride this decision has instilled in Buddhist communities.
Broader Implications of Classical Language Status
In general, the granting of classical status aids in the revival and maintenance of languages that are integral to understanding and preserving cultural identities. Classical status in India allows languages to receive targeted benefits, such as:
- Special Recognition in Educational Institutions: Academic departments and courses focused on classical languages receive support, and students may receive scholarships to study them.
- State Support for Language Resources: Classical status helps secure funds for the creation of resources like dictionaries, linguistic research centers, and literary repositories.
- Strengthening Cultural Diplomacy: Recognizing languages like Pali as classical strengthens India’s diplomatic and cultural ties with countries that share a Buddhist heritage, such as Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, and Nepal.
The Importance of Pali for India and Southeast Asia
- Pali is studied widely in Southeast Asia for its cultural and spiritual value.
- The language not only helps preserve Buddhist heritage but also reinforces India’s historic cultural and spiritual connections with countries in the region.
- This recognition by India is seen as a gesture of respect and goodwill, furthering India’s role as a pivotal center of Buddhist history and scholarship.
Pali Language
- Pali is an ancient Indo-Aryan language primarily associated with Theravāda Buddhism.
- It is the language of the Pali Canon, also known as the Tipiṭaka, one of the earliest collections of Buddhist scriptures that document the teachings of the Buddha.
- Although Pali is no longer a spoken language, it holds immense cultural and religious significance as it preserves and conveys the philosophical doctrines, ethical teachings, and ritual practices of Buddhism. Pali is widely studied by scholars and monastics in countries with a strong Theravāda tradition, including Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, and Cambodia. Its texts are often chanted during rituals, as these recitations are believed to bring spiritual merit.
- Pali continues to be a bridge to the ancient teachings of Buddhism, connecting practitioners and scholars with the Dhamma and fostering continuity of Buddhist heritage.
Conclusion
- The Indian government’s conferment of classical language status on Pali reflects a commitment to the preservation of ancient religious and philosophical traditions.
- This move strengthens India’s role in promoting Buddhist studies and heritage, enriching cultural diplomacy, and providing Buddhist scholars and monastics the support needed to sustain the Dhamma for generations to come.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5 Which of the following statements is true regarding Pali?
A) Pali is primarily a modern language spoken in Sri Lanka. B) Pali is considered a classical language of India, primarily associated with Theravada Buddhism. C) Pali is a direct descendant of Sanskrit and is often used in Hindu scriptures. D) Pali is an ancient Dravidian language used in South India.
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Q. Consider the following languages: (2014)
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (c)
|
| Answer 5 – B
Explanation · Pali is indeed recognized as a classical language of India. It is primarily associated with Theravada Buddhism and is the language in which many of the earliest Buddhist scriptures, including the Pali Canon (Tipitaka), were written. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
India, China begins disengagement at Depsang and Demchok
Source: Times of India
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- International Relations
Context: India, China disengagement
Why in news
- The recent disengagement was seen between India and China at Depsang and Demchok.
Overview
- The recent disengagement between India and China at Depsang and Demchok marks a significant development in the context of the ongoing tensions along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh, stemming from the standoff that began in 2020.
- This response elaborates on the key points regarding this disengagement process, its implications, and the broader geopolitical context.
Background of the Disengagement
- Historical Context:
- The India-China standoff in eastern Ladakh began in 2020, characterized by military build-ups and confrontations along the LAC. The situation led to significant tensions between the two countries, affecting diplomatic and military relations.
- Remaining Friction Points:
- As of October 2024, Depsang and Demchok were identified as the last two friction points where disengagement had not yet occurred. Other areas had previously established buffer zones, but tensions remained in these specific locations.
Recent Developments
- Disengagement Process:
- The disengagement began on October 22, 2024, and involves the removal of military structures and tents erected during the standoff. Official sources indicated that the process would take several days, aiming to restore the landforms to their pre-standoff state.
- Patrolling Resumption:
- Once the disengagement is completed, normal patrolling in these areas will resume, as per prior arrangements before the tensions escalated in 2020.
- Government Statements:
- Defence Minister Rajnath Singh announced that both nations had reached a consensus on restoring the “ground situation” based on mutual security principles, emphasizing dialogue’s role in resolving differences. He indicated that this agreement includes resuming patrolling and grazing in traditional areas.
Geopolitical Implications
- Power of Dialogue:
- Singh highlighted the importance of continuous dialogue between India and China in resolving their differences. The recent talks at both diplomatic and military levels led to a broad consensus, although some outstanding issues remain.
- Current Status of Agreements:
- Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri clarified that the recent agreement focused solely on outstanding issues without reopening previous agreements concerning disengagement in other areas. This suggests a strategic approach to resolving the most pressing concerns.
- Pending Areas:
- The agreement reaffirms that in Depsang and Demchok, Indian patrols had been blocked and traditional grazing areas disturbed. The goal is to restore activities to their 2020 status, underlining the importance of these regions for local communities.
Broader Strategic Concerns
- Self-Reliance vs. Isolation:
- Rajnath Singh emphasized that India’s policy of self-reliance should not be misinterpreted as a move towards isolation. Instead, it reflects a commitment to engage with the global community while developing its defense capabilities. This approach aims to empower India to contribute more effectively to international security and collaborative efforts.
- Linking Defence and Development:
- Singh discussed the necessity of integrating defense considerations into development strategies. He noted that historical dependence on imports has hindered the growth of India’s defense sector. A coordinated approach could foster a robust domestic defense industry, enhancing national security and economic independence.
- Addressing Dependency:
- The Minister pointed out that the disconnect between defense and development has resulted in significant portions of the defense budget flowing into foreign economies, limiting India’s capabilities. Addressing this issue is vital for strengthening domestic defense capabilities.
Conclusion
- The disengagement at Depsang and Demchok represents a critical step in managing the ongoing tensions between India and China along the LAC. The focus on dialogue and mutual security principles underscores a desire for stability in bilateral relations.
- Moreover, India’s commitment to self-reliance in defense while engaging globally reflects a strategic approach to enhance its capabilities and ensure national security.
- The successful resolution of these friction points could pave the way for improved relations and regional stability in the future.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements
Statement 1: India and China have begun disengaging from Depsang and Demchok, the last two friction points of the 2020 standoff along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
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Q. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: 2022
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 3 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only Ans: A |
| Answer 6-C
Explanation · Statement 1 is correct. Reports confirm that India and China have initiated the disengagement process from Depsang and Demchok, which were identified as the last remaining friction points in the ongoing border tensions stemming from the 2020 standoff. · Statement 2 is Correct. The news indicates that the disengagement began on October 22, 2024, and the process is anticipated to take several days (or a few weeks) to fully complete, including the removal of structures erected during the standoff. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |