CARE 8th October 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (08-10-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: Significance of Maldives President visit to India and signing of Currency Swap Agreement
Polity and Governance: India slipped on academic freedom index over the past decade: report
Issue of Supreme Court striking down ‘casteist’ provisions in India’s prison manuals
Economy: France to help set up an aeronautical campus and industry cluster in India
India, UAE investment promotion, protection treaty comes into effect from August 31
Awards and Honours:  2024 Nobel Prize in Medicine awarded to Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun

Significance of Maldives President visit to India and signing of Currency Swap Agreement

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-modi-meets-maldives-president-muizzu/article68727512.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2- International Relations

Context: India-Maldives Currency Swap Agreement

Why in News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) entered into a Currency Swap Agreement with the Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) under the SAARC Currency Swap Framework 2024-27.

Currency Swap Agreement

  • India signed a $750 million currency swap arrangement with the Maldives.
  • This is divided into two parts: $400 million and an additional ₹3,000 crore ($357 million), signed between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Maldives Monetary Authority under the SAARC Currency Swap Framework.
  • This arrangement will be available until 2027.
  • The currency swap is designed to help the Maldives manage its foreign currency crisis and enables payments between the two countries to be made in different currencies.
  • This provides financial stability to the Maldives and enhances bilateral trade using their national currencies.

RuPay Card Launch

  • India will launch its RuPay card in the Maldives, increasing the ease of transactions for Indian tourists and businesses, strengthening economic ties and promoting tourism.

Housing Assistance

  • India handed over 700 houses built with its assistance to the Maldives, further supporting the country’s infrastructure and housing needs.

Cooperation in Various Fields

  • Several agreements were signed to enhance cooperation, including:
    • Anti-Corruption: A memorandum of understanding (MoU) was inked between the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) of India and the Anti-Corruption Commission of the Maldives.
    • Judicial and Policing Training: Further agreements were made between the policing and judicial training institutes of both countries to improve legal frameworks.
    • Sports and Youth Affairs: MoUs were signed to enhance collaboration in sports and youth development, strengthening people-to-people ties.

Tourism

  • Tourism Appeal: President Muizzu expressed concern about the decline in Indian tourists visiting the Maldives due to political tensions, but hoped the relationship would normalize, bringing back Indian tourists, who are a major source of revenue for the Maldives.

Economic Cooperation and Free Trade

  • Both countries agreed to deepen economic ties, focusing on trade in national currencies.
  • They also began discussions for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), which, if materialized, could significantly boost bilateral trade.

Maritime and Security Cooperation

  • India and the Maldives released a vision statement for a “comprehensive economic and maritime security partnership.” This includes the following:
    • International Airport Runway: A jointly constructed runway for an international airport at Hanimadhoo island was inaugurated.
    • Coast Guard Support: India will help refit a Maldivian Coast Guard ship (Huravee), a key asset for the nation’s maritime security, at an Indian facility.

Resolution of Military Personnel Issue

  • Tensions regarding the presence of Indian military personnel in the Maldives were resolved last year when India agreed to withdraw them and replace them with technical staff.
  • The issue did not require further discussion in this meeting.

India’s Role as a First Responder

  • Prime Minister Modi highlighted India’s historic support for the Maldives in times of crisis, such as during the 1988 coup, the 2004 tsunami, and the COVID-19 pandemic.

 China-Maldives Relations

  • Though the Maldives has recently strengthened ties with China, including currency swaps and defense agreements, President Muizzu’s visit focused on reinforcing the Maldives’ relationship with India.
  • Indian officials emphasized bilateral cooperation rather than delving into regional competition with China.

About the SAARC Currency Swap Framework:

  • The SAARC Currency Swap Framework was launched on November 15, 2012, to provide a backstop line of funding for short-term foreign exchange liquidity requirements or balance of payments stress faced by SAARC member countries.
  • This arrangement offers immediate financial relief while longer-term measures are put into place.

Significance of the Visit

  • This visit and the agreements signed reaffirm India’s role as a key partner for the Maldives, particularly in addressing its economic challenges.
  • The currency swap deal, discussions on trade in national currencies, and potential Free Trade Agreement all point to a deepening economic and strategic partnership between the two countries.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. What is a significant benefit of the Currency Swap Agreement for the Maldives?

1.  It allows for trade in Indian Rupees without any restrictions.

2.  It helps stabilize the Maldives’ foreign exchange reserves.

3.  It guarantees investment from India in Maldivian infrastructure projects.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

 

Q. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? (2019)

1.       The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector

2.       Increasing the government expenditure

3.       Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

 

Answer 1– B

Explanation –

·       Hence Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Currency Swap Agreement facilitates transactions between the RBI and MMA using Indian Rupees, the statement about “no restrictions” can be misleading. Currency swap agreements typically have conditions and limits related to how and when the currencies can be exchanged.

·       Hence Statement 2 is correct: The Currency Swap Agreement provides the Maldives with access to a substantial amount of foreign exchange liquidity—$400 million and ₹30 billion. This liquidity can be crucial for addressing immediate foreign currency shortages, particularly during economic crises or periods of low reserves.

·       Hence Statement 3 is incorrect: Currency swap agreements primarily focus on providing liquidity and facilitating currency exchanges; they do not inherently guarantee investments in infrastructure projects. Such investments may arise from broader bilateral agreements or economic cooperation, but they are not a direct benefit of the currency swap arrangement.

·       Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 India slipped on academic freedom index over the past decade

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bjp-major-factor-in-marked-degradation-of-indias-academic-freedom-report/article68729477.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: “Free to Think 2024” report Analysis

Why in News

  • The “Free to Think 2024” report by the Scholars at Risk (SAR) Academic Freedom Monitoring Project highlights a significant decline in academic freedom in India over the past decade.

Decline in Academic Freedom Index

  • Index Performance: India’s academic freedom score has drastically decreased from 0.6 points in 2013 to 0.2 points in 2023, indicating a severe restriction on academic freedom. This score reflects the extent to which academic communities can operate free from political or governmental interference.
  • Current Ranking: India now ranks as “completely restricted,” marking its lowest score since the mid-1940s, which suggests a systemic clampdown on the freedoms traditionally enjoyed by academic institutions.

Factors Contributing to the Decline

  • Political Control: The report attributes the decline to the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)’s efforts to impose a Hindu nationalist agenda within educational institutions. This includes the exertion of political control over universities and restrictive policies limiting student protests and expression.
  • Policy Changes: Institutions like Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) and South Asian University (SAU) have introduced policies that severely limit student expression, including bans on protests near academic buildings or entirely on campus.

Government Conflicts Over Education Control

  • State vs. Central Government: There are ongoing conflicts between the BJP-led central government and various state governments over control of higher education. A notable case involved Kerala’s Governor Arif Mohammed Khan, who clashed with the state government over amendments that would replace him as Chancellor of state universities.
  • Legal Disputes: Kerala’s government appealed to the Supreme Court after President Droupadi Murmu withheld assent for a proposed amendment that would alter the Chancellor’s role, highlighting tensions between state and central authority over educational governance.

Instances of Academic Pressure

  • Resignations and Attacks: The report details how external pressures influenced academic staff, particularly the resignation of Sabyasachi Das, an economics professor at Ashoka University. His research paper on political manipulation during the 2019 Lok Sabha elections attracted backlash from BJP leaders, leading to public attacks on his work.
  • Travel Restrictions: The report mentions instances where academic freedom was curtailed through travel restrictions, such as the denial of entry to Professor Natasha Kaul for her critical remarks about the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).

Student Activism and Repression

  • Protests and Detentions: The report highlights instances where students faced detentions for protests. For example, over 200 students from JNU, Jamia Millia University, and Delhi University were detained while protesting outside the Israeli Embassy in solidarity with Palestinians, illustrating a crackdown on student activism.
  • Heckling and Cancellations: Notable incidents include Nivedita Menon, a professor at JNU, being heckled by students affiliated with the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), and a talk by Achin Vanaik at the Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay, being cancelled, further demonstrating the hostile environment for dissenting voices in academia.

Conclusion

  • The “Free to Think 2024” report provides a sobering analysis of the state of academic freedom in India, highlighting a troubling trend of increasing governmental control, restrictions on free expression, and diminishing protections for scholars and students.
  • The findings underscore a significant shift in the educational landscape, marked by the tensions between political agendas and academic autonomy, raising concerns about the future of higher education in the country.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the academic freedom situation in India as reported by the Scholars at Risk (SAR) Academic Freedom Monitoring Project:

1.  India’s academic freedom score has declined from 0.6 points in 2013 to 0.2 points in 2023.

2.  As of 2023, India is classified as having “completely restricted” academic freedom, marking its lowest level since the mid-1940s.

3.  The Scholars at Risk (SAR) network consists of 665 universities worldwide.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 

 

 17. Consider the following statements: (2023)

Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’ India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

 

 

Answer 2 – D

Explanation –

·       Statement 1 is correct: The report clearly indicates that India’s academic freedom score has indeed decreased significantly over the decade, reflecting growing restrictions on academic institutions.

·       Statement 2 is correct: The report classifies India as being at its lowest level of academic freedom since the mid-1940s, indicating a serious clampdown on academic expression and institutional autonomy.

·       Statement 3 is correct: The Scholars at Risk network is a global coalition of universities dedicated to protecting scholars and promoting academic freedom, and it indeed comprises 665 universities.

·       Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 Issue of Supreme Court striking down ‘casteist’ provisions in India’s prison manuals

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-verdict-casteist-provisions-indias-prison-manuals-explained/article68704711.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: Caste-based discrimination within India’s prison system.

Why in News

  • The Supreme Court’s recent ruling marked a major step towards addressing caste-based discrimination within India’s prison system.

Background of the Case:

  • The case arose from a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) filed by journalist Sukanya Shantha.
  • The petition highlighted provisions in prison manuals from states like Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Odisha, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala that institutionalized caste-based labor practices.
  • For example:
    • In Palayamkottai Central Jail (Tamil Nadu), prisoners were separated based on caste, with different sections for Thevars, Nadars, and Pallars.
    • Rajasthan Prison Rules (1951) assigned latrine duties to the “Mehtar” caste (a Scheduled Caste community), while Brahmins or prisoners from “sufficiently high castes” were allocated kitchen duties.

Colonial Legacy and Prison Manuals:

  • These practices were challenged for perpetuating caste-based divisions within prisons, reinforcing social inequalities and violating prisoners’ fundamental rights.
  • The ruling also addressed the persistence of colonial-era stereotypes within prison rules.
  • The now-repealed Criminal Tribes Act (1871) allowed the British to label marginalized communities as “criminal tribes,” presuming them to be inherently criminal.
  • Even after this law was revoked, these communities, now called denotified tribes, continued to face discrimination.
  • Prison manuals classified them as “habitual offenders” even without any conviction.
  • For example:
    • The West Bengal Jail Code barred members of “wandering tribes” from becoming night guards, citing their “natural tendency” to escape.
    • In Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, individuals from these tribes were described as habitual criminals based on assumptions, not on legal convictions.
  • The court criticized these provisions for perpetuating stereotypes and worsening the social and economic marginalization of these communities.

Fundamental Rights Violations:

The Supreme Court noted that caste-based segregation and labor divisions in prisons violated several fundamental rights under the Constitution:

  • Article 14 (Right to Equality): Caste-based segregation, especially for labor, reinforced the very caste differences that should be dismantled, violating the principle of substantive equality.
  • Article 15(1) (Non-Discrimination): Assigning menial tasks like cleaning to marginalized castes while reserving higher-status tasks like cooking for upper castes amounted to direct discrimination.
  • Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability): Practices like requiring food to be cooked by members of a “suitable caste” or assigning cleaning duties to marginalized groups were akin to untouchability, which is explicitly banned.
  • Article 21 (Right to Life and Dignity): Caste-based discrimination in prison labor deprived marginalized prisoners of dignity and hindered their reformation and reintegration into society.

Court’s Directions:

The court issued several important directives to eliminate caste-based discrimination in prisons:

  1. Amendment of Prison Manuals: All States and Union Territories were directed to amend their prison manuals within three months to remove discriminatory provisions.
  2. Abolishment of Caste References: The court mandated the removal of the “caste column” from the registers of undertrials and convicts in prisons.
  3. Reform of Model Prison Manual (2016): The Model Prison Manual (2016) was criticized for offering a vague definition of “habitual offenders” and perpetuating stereotypes against denotified tribes. The court ordered its reform along with amendments to the Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act (2023).
  4. Monitoring and Compliance: District legal services authorities and boards of visitors were instructed to conduct regular prison inspections to ensure compliance with these reforms.
  5. Protection of Denotified Tribes: Police authorities were warned against arbitrarily arresting members of denotified tribes without adhering to established guidelines from previous Supreme Court rulings.

Important Fundamental Rights

Article 14 (Right to Equality):

  • Article 14 ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to every individual in India.
  • The Supreme Court ruled that caste-based segregation in prisons violates the right to equality. By segregating prisoners based on caste and assigning specific duties (like cleaning to marginalized castes and cooking to higher castes), prison manuals were reinforcing caste differences, which should be eliminated.
  • This violates the principle of substantive equality, as the prison system was treating prisoners unequally based on caste.

Article 15(1) (Prohibition of Discrimination):

  • Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination by the state against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • The Supreme Court highlighted that the prison manuals directly discriminated against marginalized castes by assigning them menial tasks like cleaning and sweeping, while higher castes were allowed to cook.
  • This constitutes direct caste-based discrimination and violates Article 15(1).

Article 21 (Right to Life and Dignity):

  • Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to live with dignity.
  • Caste-based labor in prisons violated the dignity of marginalized caste prisoners by assigning them menial work, preventing them from engaging in more dignified labor or intellectual tasks.
  • The court ruled that this practice deprived these prisoners of the opportunity for reformation and violated their right to dignity under Article 21.

Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability):

  • Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • Assigning specific tasks (such as cleaning latrines) to marginalized castes, as dictated by caste-based stereotypes in prison manuals, was likened to practicing untouchability.
  • The court ruled that such practices in prisons amounted to untouchability and were thus in direct violation of Article 17.

Conclusion:

  • The ruling is a landmark decision in the fight against caste-based discrimination in India’s prison system.
  • By striking down provisions that entrenched caste hierarchies in labor, the Supreme Court emphasized the need to protect the dignity, equality, and fundamental rights of prisoners, particularly those from marginalized communities.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. The Supreme Court of India recently declared caste-based division of labour in prisons as “unconstitutional.” Which of the following fundamental rights were highlighted in the judgment as being violated by caste-based discrimination in prisons?

1.  Article 14 (Right to Equality)

2.  Article 19 (Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression)

3.  Article 15(1) (Prohibition of Discrimination)

4.  Article 21 (Right to Life and Dignity)

5.  Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 3, 4, and 5
C) 1, 2, 4, and 5
D) 2, 3, 4, and 5

 

Q.  Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/ reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020)

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

 

Answer 3– B

Explanation –

·       Statement 1 is correct: Article 14 ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to every individual in India.  The Supreme Court ruled that caste-based segregation in prisons violates the right to equality.

·       Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 19 guarantees certain freedoms, including freedom of speech, expression, assembly, and movement. While Article 19 protects important rights, it is not directly related to the issues of caste-based discrimination in prisons. The case focused on equality, dignity, and the abolition of untouchability, not on the freedoms guaranteed by Article 19.

·       Statement 3 is correct: Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination by the state against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. The Supreme Court highlighted that the prison manuals directly discriminated against marginalized castes by assigning them menial tasks like cleaning and sweeping, while higher castes were allowed to cook. This constitutes direct caste-based discrimination and violates Article 15(1).

·       Statement 4 is correct: Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to live with dignity. The court ruled that this practice deprived these prisoners of the opportunity for reformation and violated their right to dignity under Article 21.

·       Statement 5 is correct: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Assigning specific tasks (such as cleaning latrines) to marginalized castes, as dictated by caste-based stereotypes in prison manuals, was likened to practicing untouchability.

  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

France to help set up an aeronautical campus and industry cluster in India

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/france-to-help-set-up-an-aeronautical-campus-and-industry-cluster-in-india/article68729667.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS3- Economy

Context: Overview of the Franco-Indian Aerospace Initiative

Why in News

France will be setting up a Franco-Indian campus on aviation and space apart from an aeronautical cluster in India.

Establishment of a Franco-Indian Campus

  • Purpose: France plans to set up a dedicated campus in India for professional training in aeronautics and space. This initiative aims to foster collaboration between the two nations and enhance the skill set of Indian professionals in the aerospace industry.
  • Training Framework: The campus will serve as a framework for cooperation, likely involving joint educational programs, workshops, and research initiatives. It is expected to cater to the increasing demand for skilled personnel in the growing aerospace sector in India.
  • Existing Collaborations: Many Indian professionals already participate in training programs at France’s National School of Aviation in Toulouse, indicating an established relationship in educational exchanges. The renewal of an existing Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) underscores the commitment to deepening this partnership.

Formation of an Aeronautical Cluster

  • Aerospace Cluster: Alongside the training campus, the French government will establish an aeronautical cluster in India. This cluster is intended to bring together various stakeholders, including manufacturers, suppliers, educational institutions, and research organizations, to collaborate and innovate in the aerospace field.
  • Economic Impact: Such clusters can stimulate local economies by attracting investments, creating jobs, and fostering innovation. They also help in building a robust ecosystem that can support both domestic and international aerospace initiatives.

High-Level French Delegation

  • Composition: The French delegation, consisting of around 100 representatives from over 60 companies, includes seven prime contractors, 20 equipment manufacturers, 29 micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs), and four start-ups. This diverse representation indicates a broad interest in expanding operations in India.
  • Objectives: The delegation aims to explore new market opportunities, identify potential partnerships, and enhance cooperation in the aerospace sector. This visit reflects France’s strategic interest in strengthening its aerospace ties with India.

Economic Relationship and Exports

  • Significant Trade: Ambassador Mathou emphasized that 55% of French exports to India are in the aeronautical sector, amounting to €2.7 billion for the first part of 2024. This statistic highlights the strength and significance of the economic relationship between the two countries in the aerospace domain.
  • Global Supply Chain Integration: The presence of French defense companies in India is helping to integrate Indian companies into the global supply chain. This integration is crucial for enhancing India’s capabilities in aerospace and defense and for creating a more self-reliant ecosystem.

Employment and Local Industry Development

  • Employment Creation: According to Mathou, GIFAS companies employ approximately 17,000 people in India and maintain a network of 230 suppliers. This demonstrates the tangible impact of French aerospace companies on job creation in India, contributing to the local economy and skills development.
  • Growing Local Capacity: The collaboration aims to enhance the capacity of Indian suppliers, allowing them to move beyond traditional roles (like providing engineering services) to manufacturing hardware components. This shift signifies a maturation of the Indian aerospace industry, fostering innovation and technological advancement.

Increased Sourcing from India

  • Sourcing Growth: Airbus has doubled its procurement from Indian suppliers, increasing from €500 million in 2019 to €1 billion in 2023. This upward trend in sourcing reflects the growing capabilities of Indian manufacturers and their ability to meet global quality standards.
  • Future Prospects: The forecasted continuous increase in sourcing suggests that Airbus sees a sustainable future in collaborating with Indian suppliers, which may lead to further investments and capacity-building initiatives in India.

Final Assembly Line (FAL) Considerations

  • Response to Government Demand: The Indian government has expressed interest in establishing a Final Assembly Line (FAL) for commercial aircraft in India to cater to the growing domestic market. Guillaume Faury remarked that while a FAL is a significant component of aircraft manufacturing, it is not the sole factor determining manufacturing success.
  • Broader Manufacturing Considerations: Faury indicated that other elements, such as robust supply chains, large equipment, and the management of fragile supply chains, are equally, if not more, critical. This highlights the complexity of aerospace manufacturing and the need for a comprehensive approach to develop a thriving aerospace ecosystem in India.

Shift in Supplier Roles

  • Changing Dynamics: The evolution of Indian suppliers from primarily providing engineering and IT services to now supplying hardware indicates a significant shift in capabilities. In 2023, Indian companies provided more hardware for Airbus helicopters and planes than ever before, reflecting their enhanced manufacturing prowess.
  • Impact on Collaboration: This shift not only strengthens the partnership between Indian suppliers and foreign companies but also fosters local innovation, research, and development within India’s aerospace sector.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Franco-Indian collaboration in the aerospace sector:

1.  France plans to establish a Franco-Indian campus for professional training in aeronautics and space in India.

2.  The French delegation to India includes representatives from over 100 companies, including seven prime contractors and multiple MSMEs.

3.  Airbus has announced plans to establish a Final Assembly Line (FAL) in India for commercial aircraft.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1 and 3 only

 Q. Consider the following statements (2022)

1.  Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.

2.  Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.

3.  Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.

4.  For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.

5.  Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 2 and 4 only

b. 3 and 5 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Ans: C

Answer 4 A

Explanation

·        Statement 1 is Correct. The French Ambassador, Thierry Mathou, announced plans to set up a Franco-Indian campus aimed at enhancing cooperation in aeronautics and space training in India.

·        Statement 2 is Correct. The report states that the French delegation comprises 100 high-level representatives from over 60 companies, which includes seven prime contractors, 20 equipment manufacturers, 29 MSMEs, and four startups.

·        Statement 3 is Incorrect. Although there was a demand from the Indian government for a final assembly line for commercial aircraft, there is no confirmed announcement from Airbus regarding the establishment of a FAL in India.

·       Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 India, UAE investment promotion, protection treaty comes into effect from August 31

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-uae-investment-promotion-protection-treaty-comes-into-effect-from-august-31-finance-ministry/article68727487.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3- Indian Economy

Context: Bilateral investment treaty (BIT) signed between India and the UAE

Why in News

  • The Indian government said bilateral investment treaty (BIT) signed between India and the UAE has been enforced from August 31 this year.

Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT)

  1. Enforcement and Background
    • The BIT between India and the UAE was signed on February 13, 2024, in Abu Dhabi and came into force on August 31, 2024.
    • This treaty replaces the earlier Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA), which was signed in December 2013 and expired on September 12, 2024.
  2. Purpose of the Treaty
    • The BIT aims to provide continuity of investment protection for investors from both countries, enhancing bilateral trade and economic cooperation.
    • It is expected to boost investor confidence by offering a secure environment for investments, thereby fostering increased bilateral investments.

Key Features of the BIT

  1. Exhaustion of Domestic Remedies
    • UAE investors must now exhaust domestic legal remedies for at least three years before initiating arbitration under the BIT. This is a reduction from the previous five-year requirement in the BIPPA.
  2. Investment Definition and Protection
    • The treaty includes a closed asset-based definition of investment, ensuring coverage of portfolio investments.
    • It guarantees protections against:
      • Expropriation without compensation.
      • Denial of justice or fundamental breaches of due process.
      • Targeted discrimination against investors.
      • Manifestly abusive or arbitrary treatment.
  3. Regulatory Balance
    • While the BIT provides strong protections for investors, it also respects the state’s right to regulate. This balance allows for adequate policy space for governments to implement regulations without undermining investor protections.
  4. Provisions and Exclusions
    • The treaty outlines the following provisions:
      • Transparency in investment dealings.
      • Compensation for losses.
      • Exclusions for claims related to corruption, fraud, and round-tripping.

Economic Impact

  1. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Statistics
    • The UAE is the seventh-largest source of FDI in India, contributing approximately 3% of total FDI with a cumulative investment of USD 19 billion from April 2000 to June 2024.
    • Conversely, India has made 5% of its total overseas direct investments in the UAE, amounting to USD 15.26 billion from April 2000 to August 2024.
  2. Boosting Confidence and Investments
    • The BIT is expected to enhance the comfort level of investors by assuring them of minimum standards of treatment and non-discrimination.
    • It provides for an independent forum for dispute settlement through arbitration, which is crucial for maintaining investor confidence.

Complementary Agreements

  • The BIT is complemented by a free trade agreement between India and the UAE, which has been in effect since May 1, 2021.
  • This further strengthens the economic ties between the two nations.

Conclusion

  • The enforcement of the BIT marks a significant step in enhancing the investment relationship between India and the UAE.
  • By establishing clear guidelines for investment protection and dispute resolution, the treaty aims to create a more secure and attractive environment for investors, thereby contributing to the economic growth of both countries.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) signed between India and the UAE:

  1. The UAE is the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India.
  2. Under the BIT, UAE investors must exhaust domestic remedies for at least three years before initiating arbitration.
  3. The BIT replaces the earlier Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) which expired in September 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1 and 3 only

 

Q. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)

  1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
  2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
  3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

 

Answer 5-A

Explanation

·       Statement 1 is incorrect. The UAE is a significant source of FDI in India, but it is not the largest. As of the latest data, countries like the United States and Singapore also contribute substantial amounts of FDI to India. The UAE ranks seventh in terms of FDI share, accounting for approximately 3% of the total FDI received in India.

·       Statement 2 is correct. According to the BIT provisions, UAE investors are required to exhaust domestic remedies for a period of three years before they can commence arbitration under the BIT. This is an improvement over the previous requirement of five years as per the earlier Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA).

·       Statement 3 is incorrect. The BIT signed between India and the UAE came into force on August 31, 2024, and it was established to succeed the earlier BIPPA, which had expired on September 12, 2024. Therefore, it cannot be stated that the BIPPA expired after the BIT was signed; the BIPPA had already expired by the time the BIT came into effect.

·       Therefore, option A is the correct answer.  

­­­Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2024: What is the research that won the prize?

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/2024-nobel-prize-in-physiology-or-medicine-what-is-the-research-that-won-the-prize-explained/article68728993.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  Awards, GS 3-Science

Context: Impact of Climate Change

Why in news

The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun by the Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet in Stockholm, Sweden.

Background on MicroRNAs

  • MicroRNAs are short, non-coding RNA molecules, typically 19-24 nucleotides in length.
  • They play a crucial role in regulating gene expression by binding to messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, which carry genetic information from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis.
  • By binding to mRNA, microRNAs can inhibit protein production, thereby influencing various biological processes.

Mechanism of Action

The process of gene expression involves two main steps: transcription and translation.

  1. Transcription: DNA is transcribed into mRNA within the cell nucleus.
  2. Translation: mRNA is translated into proteins at the ribosome with the help of transfer RNA (tRNA).

MicroRNAs exert their regulatory effects after transcription, thus the term “post-transcriptional gene regulation.” They bind to specific mRNA sequences and prevent their translation into proteins or lead to their degradation.

The Nobel-Winning Research

  • In the late 1980s, Ambros and Ruvkun conducted research on the nematode Caenorhabditis elegans, a model organism for studying developmental biology.
  • They focused on two mutant strains, lin-4 and lin-14, which exhibited developmental abnormalities due to improper genetic programming.
  1. Ambros’ Discovery: Ambros was the first to clone the microRNA, lin-4. He discovered that lin-4 produced a small RNA molecule that did not code for a protein but was crucial in suppressing the activity of lin-14.
  2. Ruvkun’s Contribution: Simultaneously, Ruvkun studied how lin-4 influenced lin-14 regulation. He found that lin-4 did not block lin-14 mRNA production but instead inhibited its translation into protein. His experiments revealed specific complementary sequences in lin-14 mRNA that matched with lin-4, demonstrating their interaction.

Significant Impact

  • Their combined work established that lin-4 is a microRNA that regulates lin-14, marking the discovery of this class of regulatory RNA.
  • Their findings were published in two articles in 1993 in Cell, although the initial reception was lukewarm, as many scientists considered the findings relevant only to elegans.
  • In 2000, Ruvkun’s research group discovered another microRNA, let-7, which is conserved across the animal kingdom.
  • This finding increased interest in microRNAs and highlighted their universal role in gene regulation across multicellular organisms, including humans.

Implications of MicroRNA Research

  1. Gene Regulation: MicroRNAs are known to regulate the expression of multiple genes, providing a mechanism for fine-tuning cellular functions despite identical genetic information among cells.
  2. Role in Diseases: Abnormal regulation of microRNAs can lead to various diseases, including cancer. Research has linked mutations in microRNA-coding genes to conditions such as congenital hearing loss, eye disorders, and skeletal abnormalities.
  3. Future Research: Despite the significant advancements in understanding microRNAs, practical applications remain limited. As Gunilla Karlsson-Hedestam, chairperson of the Nobel Committee, mentioned, understanding miRNAs is a foundational step for future research that could lead to therapeutic applications.

Conclusion

  • The 2024 Nobel Prize awarded to Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun highlights the importance of microRNAs in cellular biology and gene regulation.
  • Their research has opened avenues for understanding complex biological processes and has implications for developing treatments for diseases linked to microRNA dysregulation.
  • The acknowledgment of their work underscores the significance of foundational research in advancing scientific knowledge and potential therapeutic innovations.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q.   Consider the following statements regarding microRNAs and the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine:

  1. MicroRNAs are short, non-coding RNA molecules that play a crucial role in post-transcriptional gene regulation.
  2. Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun discovered microRNA while studying the nematode Drosophila melanogaster.
  3. The research on microRNAs has revealed their potential role in diseases, including various types of cancer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following? (2007)

(a) Environmental protection

(b) Olympic Games

(c) Journalism

(d) Civil Aviation

Ans. (c)

 

Answer 6 C

Explanation

·       Statement 1: Correct. MicroRNAs are indeed small, non-coding RNA molecules that regulate gene expression by binding to mRNA.

·       Statement 2: Incorrect. Ambros and Ruvkun discovered microRNA while studying the nematode Caenorhabditis elegans, not Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly).

·       Statement 3: Correct. Their research has established the role of microRNAs in various diseases, including cancer, due to their regulatory functions.

·       Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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