CARE 12th November 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering CARE (12-11-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: India hosts south Asian nations, including Afghanistan, for telecom regulation event
Sports: Indian 3-year-old now youngest rated chess player in the world and about working of FIDE ratings
Science and Technology:   ISRO, IIT-M sign MoU to set up centre of excellence in fluid and thermal sciences
Environment and Ecology:   Giving shape to India’s carbon credit mechanism
Economy: On improving wind energy generation
Polity and Governance: Justice Sanjiv Khanna takes over as 51st Chief Justice of India

India hosts south Asian nations, including Afghanistan, for telecom regulation event

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-hosts-south-asian-nations-including-afghanistan-for-telecom-regulation-event/article68854890.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 International Relations:

Context: South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council

Why in News

  • The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India hosted South Asian nations for a multilateral event in New Delhi. Notably, the South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council

Overview

  • The recent multilateral gathering hosted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in New Delhi brought together South Asian nations for the South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC) annual session.
  • This three-day event, organized under the Asia Pacific Telecommunity (APT) framework, focused on regional collaboration in telecommunications and included participants from eight SATRC member countries: India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iran, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, the Maldives, and Nepal.

Key Highlights and Participation

  1. Notable Attendance:
    • This year’s SATRC session saw a significant development with the presence of a delegation from Taliban-controlled Afghanistan. The Afghan delegation was represented by key officials from the Afghanistan Telecom Regulatory Authority (ATRA), including Chairman Saed Baraat Shah Agha Nadeem, Telecommunication Monitoring and Control Director Sebghatullah Andar, and Protocol Director Rohullah Raihan. While the Afghan delegates did not entertain media queries, their presence underscored Afghanistan’s continued engagement in regional telecommunications matters.
    • Pakistan also sent a delegation, led by Khawar Siddique Khokhar, a high-ranking official from the Pakistan Telecommunication Authority (PTA). Both Pakistan and Afghanistan’s involvement reflects broader efforts to foster regional cooperation in telecommunications despite geopolitical tensions.
  2. India’s Role and the New Chair:
    • TRAI Chairman Anil Kumar Lahoti was elected as the chair of SATRC for the upcoming year. In his address, Lahoti highlighted the increasing relevance of Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) in aligning with developmental goals, emphasizing regional issues like spam management. Lahoti framed the SATRC as a “sectoral gathering” aimed at technical collaboration, sidestepping political implications despite the sensitive geopolitical dynamics.
  3. Focus on Regional Collaboration and Development Challenges:
    • In his plenary remarks, Saed Baraat Shah Agha Nadeem from Afghanistan emphasized the need for patient and cooperative efforts to build regional resilience. He thanked India for its hospitality and stressed the importance of sub-regional cooperation in telecommunications, aligning with SATRC’s goal of fostering mutual growth in ICT infrastructure.
    • Iran’s participation was also noteworthy, with Alireza Darvishi from the country’s Communications Regulatory Authority addressing the council virtually, highlighting the inclusive and technologically cooperative intent of the SATRC.
  4. Country-Specific Perspectives on Telecommunication Needs and Developments:
    • Pakistan: Khawar Siddique Khokhar from PTA discussed South Asia’s unique challenges, including access, cybersecurity, spectrum management, smart cities, e-waste management, and regulating social media and OTT platforms. His remarks highlighted a spectrum of ICT challenges that South Asian nations face collectively, necessitating a regional approach.
    • Bhutan: Bhutan InfoComm and Media Authority Director Jigme Wangdi noted the increased demand for fixed broadband, ADSL, and leased lines following the pandemic’s push toward online learning and remote working. He pointed out that Bhutan’s universal service funds, intended to extend connectivity to remote areas, are depleting as broadband demand rises, and expressed optimism about 5G’s potential to meet this demand.
    • Maldives: Ilyas Ahmed, the CEO of the Communication Authority of Maldives, outlined the nation’s progress in expanding broadband access. Notably, he mentioned the Maldives’ pioneering adoption of SpaceX’s Starlink satellite internet, making it the first country in the region to implement this service. He echoed concerns about spam, emphasizing the need for cross-border mechanisms to educate citizens and curb spam activities.
  5. Bilateral Talks and Broader Implications:
    • The meeting took place against the backdrop of recent diplomatic engagements, as J.P. Singh from India’s Ministry of External Affairs had discussions with Afghan officials on issues such as Afghan businesses’ access to India’s Chabahar Port and humanitarian aid. Additionally, Afghan state media reported that the Afghan consulate in India would soon resume passport issuance, indicating a growing connectivity between Afghanistan and India.
  6. Broader Themes in Regional Telecommunications:
    • The event highlighted the need for SATRC nations to collaboratively tackle the region’s ICT challenges, with shared concerns like spectrum management, broadband access, and regulating digital platforms. The inclusion of 5G and satellite internet as solutions in nations like Bhutan and the Maldives represents an evolving approach to meeting connectivity demands in diverse geographic and economic conditions. The SATRC members also noted the importance of addressing e-waste and cybersecurity, critical issues as digital infrastructure expands.

Conclusion

  • The SATRC annual session in New Delhi brought South Asian telecommunications regulators together to discuss shared challenges and regional opportunities in ICT.
  • The participation of diverse delegations, including representatives from Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Iran, underscored the council’s commitment to sectoral, non-political collaboration in advancing ICT infrastructure across South Asia.
  • Key themes included expanding broadband access, dealing with the rise in digital learning post-pandemic, managing cybersecurity threats, addressing e-waste, and curbing spam across borders.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. With reference to the recent South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC) event hosted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), consider the following statements:

1.  Afghanistan was represented at the SATRC event by officials from the Afghanistan Telecom Regulatory Authority (ATRA).

2.  The SATRC is a political forum aimed at fostering diplomatic relations among South Asian countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
  2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
  3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)       3 only

b)      1 and 3 only

c)       2 and 3 only

d)      1 and 2 only

Ans: (a)

 

Answer – 1 – B

Explanation –

·       Statement 1 is correct: Afghanistan was represented at the SATRC event by officials from the Afghanistan Telecom Regulatory Authority (ATRA).

·       Statement 2 is incorrect: The SATRC is a sectoral gathering focused on telecommunications and ICT, not a political forum.

  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 Indian 3-year-old now youngest rated chess player in the world: How FIDE ratings work

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sports/chess-fide-rating-ranking-meaning-9662832/

UPSC Relevance: Sports

Context: FIDE Ratings

Why in News

  • Three-year-old Indian chess prodigy Anish Sarkar has become the youngest player to receive an official FIDE rating, highlighting the rising trend of young talent in global chess.

Overview

  • The recent achievement by three-year-old Indian chess prodigy Anish Sarkar, who has become the youngest chess player in the world to be ranked by the International Chess Federation (FIDE), highlights the growing trend of young talents making their mark in global chess.
  • Anish, from Kolkata, achieved this milestone by competing in tournaments that enabled him to earn a FIDE rating.

Understanding FIDE Ratings and Rankings

  1. FIDE Ratings
  • A FIDE rating is a numerical score assigned by the International Chess Federation (FIDE) that reflects a player’s strength based on their performance in rated games.
  • Ratings help create a hierarchy of players, allowing fair matchups in tournaments and helping players track their progress.
  • For example, Anish Sarkar currently has a FIDE rating of 1555. His performance against rated players enabled him to achieve this score.
  1. FIDE Rankings
  • Rankings are determined by comparing a player’s rating with those of other active players worldwide.
  • The higher the rating, the higher the player is ranked. Anish Sarkar, with a rating of 1555, is ranked 146,736 globally among active players.

Steps to Achieve a FIDE Rating

  1. Participating in FIDE-rated Tournaments:
    • To get rated, players must compete in FIDE-rated tournaments. These tournaments follow strict guidelines set by FIDE and are either organized by a country’s chess federation or independent organizations with FIDE’s approval.
    • FIDE organizes only a few major global events, such as the World Championship, but most rated tournaments are held at the national level. Players earn ratings based on their performance in these events.
  2. Registration through a National Federation:
    • Players must be registered with a national chess federation that is a member of FIDE. This federation coordinates participation in FIDE-rated tournaments and manages ratings.
    • The national federation should not be under any suspension from FIDE, as this could prevent players from being officially recognized.
  3. Meeting Game Requirements for Initial Rating:
    • To get an initial rating, a player must:
      • Play at least 5 games against rated opponents.
      • Achieve a minimum score of ½ point (equivalent to a single draw or better) across these games.
    • This requirement doesn’t need to be met in a single tournament; results from multiple events within 26 months can be combined to achieve the initial rating.
  4. Minimum Rating Threshold:
    • The player’s initial rating must be at least 1400 to appear on the FIDE rating list.

Types of Ratings

FIDE recognizes three types of ratings based on the game’s pace:

  1. Standard (Classical): Typically, longer games, allowing more in-depth strategic play.
  2. Rapid: Faster-paced games, generally lasting from 10 to 60 minutes per player.
  3. Blitz: Very fast games, with each player having only a few minutes to complete all moves.

To achieve a Standard rating, players need to participate in standard-time games, score against rated opponents, and reach the minimum rating threshold.

Calculation of FIDE Rating

  • The FIDE Rating System is designed to measure a player’s skill through statistical modeling.
  • It works by comparing a player’s performance against that of rated opponents, converting fractional scores into rating differences.
  • Ratings are adjusted based on wins, losses, and draws against other rated players. For instance, winning against a higher-rated player increases a player’s rating more than winning against a lower-rated player.

Advanced Chess Titles and Ratings

  • FIDE awards prestigious titles to players who achieve high ratings and meet specific criteria:
    • The highest honor is the Grandmaster (GM) title, awarded to players with a Classical/Standard rating of 2500 or above.
    • To become a GM, players must also earn three Grandmaster norms, which are specific achievements met through performance in qualifying tournaments. These norms ensure that players consistently demonstrate a high level of skill.

Achieving a FIDE rating involves:

  • Competing in recognized, FIDE-rated tournaments.
  • Registering through a national federation.
  • Playing against rated opponents and achieving minimum scores.
  • Reaching at least a 1400 rating for the initial list appearance.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2.   Which of the following statements regarding the FIDE rating system are correct?

1.  A player must play at least 5 games against rated opponents to receive a Standard FIDE rating.

2.  To be included in the FIDE rating list, a player must be registered through a national chess federation which is a member of FIDE.

3.  FIDE awards a Grandmaster title to players who achieve a rating of 1,800, along with three Grandmaster norms.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.

2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.

3. The trophy for the winning team in the Open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.

4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)  

 

Answer 2– A

Explanation –

·       Statement 1 is correct: To achieve a Standard FIDE rating, a player must play at least 5 games against rated opponents and score at least ½ point in those games.

·       Statement 2 is correct: A player must be registered through a national chess federation that is a member of FIDE to be included in the rating list.

·       Statement 3 is incorrect: FIDE awards the Grandmaster title to players who achieve a Standard rating of 2,500, not 1,800, along with three Grandmaster norms.

·       Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

ISRO, IIT-M sign MoU to set up centre of excellence in fluid and thermal sciences

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/isro-iit-m-sign-mou-to-set-up-centre-of-excellence-in-fluid-and-thermal-sciences/article68855592.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Science and Technology

Context: Centre of excellence in fluid and thermal sciences

Why in News

  • The Indian Institute of Technology-Madras (IIT-M) has collaborated with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to create a specialized research hub focused on spacecraft and launch vehicle thermal management.

Establishment of the Centre for Excellence in Fluid and Thermal Sciences

  • Funding and Partnership: ISRO has allocated seed funding of ₹1.84 crore to establish this centre at IIT-Madras. This funding will support the development of research infrastructure, procure necessary equipment, and facilitate ongoing research in fluid and thermal sciences.
  • Historical Collaboration: This partnership is an extension of the longstanding relationship between IIT-Madras and ISRO. The ISRO-IIT-M Space Technology Cell was originally set up in 1985, marking nearly four decades of collaboration.

Purpose and Objectives of the New Centre

  • Thermal Management Focus: The centre will focus on solving specific challenges related to thermal management for spacecraft and launch vehicles. Thermal management is critical for ensuring that space systems operate effectively and are protected from extreme temperatures in space.
  • Research Scope: The research includes designing, analyzing, and testing thermal systems and components. These components play crucial roles in regulating temperature and heat dissipation in space systems.
  • Faculty Expertise: Faculty from IIT-M’s mechanical engineering and related departments will leverage their expertise to support these research objectives. Their involvement will be crucial to advancing knowledge in fluid and thermal sciences applied to space technologies.

Research and Development Projects

The centre will address a variety of complex problems and conduct cutting-edge research on topics essential to space exploration. Key research areas include:

  • Spacecraft Thermal Management: The development of thermal systems to maintain optimal temperatures for spacecraft systems, which face extreme temperature variations in space.
  • Combustion Instability in Hybrid Rockets: Investigating how combustion behaves in hybrid rocket engines to ensure stable propulsion, critical for launch vehicles’ performance.
  • Cryo-tank Thermodynamics: Exploring the behavior of cryogenic fuel storage tanks, which are essential for rockets that use supercooled fuels like liquid hydrogen. Efficient cryo-tank designs are critical for performance, as they reduce fuel boil-off and improve storage efficiency.

Significance for India’s Space Program

  • National Self-Reliance: The centre will support ISRO’s mission for India’s self-reliance in advanced space technologies by developing solutions within the country. Through this centre, ISRO will have access to advanced research outputs, which will support its goals in launching and operating sophisticated space missions.
  • Skills and Knowledge Building: Students at IIT-Madras will have the opportunity to participate in research and gain hands-on experience with real-world thermal management problems in spacecraft design. This exposure to high-level space research and collaboration with ISRO provides students with valuable skills for the aerospace sector.

Future Prospects

  • Potential for New Projects: With the establishment of this centre, future projects are likely to follow, particularly in the fluid-thermal sciences field, as ISRO continues its ambitious space mission roadmap.
  • Long-term Collaboration: The partnership is expected to bring further developments, strengthen technical capabilities, and yield innovations that will support India’s space missions and thermal management needs for spacecraft and launch vehicles.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the IIT-Madras and ISRO collaboration:

1.  ISRO has provided seed funding to IIT-Madras to establish a centre of excellence focused on thermal and fluid sciences for spacecraft and launch vehicle applications.

2.  The ISRO-IIT-M Space Technology Cell was established in 1985, marking a longstanding relationship between ISRO and IIT-Madras.

3.  The primary research areas at the centre include telecommunications technology, satellite imagery processing, and fuel efficiency optimization.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.  Consider the following statements: (2016)

The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 

  1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
  2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
  3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

 

Answer 3– A

Explanation –

·       Statement 1 is correct. ISRO has allocated ₹1.84 crore in seed funding to IIT-Madras to establish the centre focused on thermal and fluid sciences.

·       Statement 2 is correct. The ISRO-IIT-M Space Technology Cell was indeed established in 1985.

·       Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary research areas include spacecraft thermal management, combustion instability in rockets, and cryo-tank thermodynamics, not telecommunications or satellite imagery processing.

·       Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Giving shape to India’s carbon credit mechanism

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/giving-shape-to-indias-carbon-credit-mechanism/article68856701.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context: carbon credit mechanism

Why in News

  • The Conference of Parties-29 in Baku, Azerbaijan, is about to shift focus to the heated discussion on the aspect of climate finance again.

Overview

  • The upcoming Conference of Parties (COP-29), taking place from November 11-22, 2024, in Baku, Azerbaijan, brings the topic of climate finance and carbon credits into focus.
  • As one of the main areas of contention between developed and developing countries, carbon credits and their trading frameworks are critical for achieving global climate goals.
  • India, having recently updated its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) in 2023, aims to establish a domestic carbon market as part of its climate strategy, reinforced by the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act of 2022.

The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022: Building a Carbon Market in India

  • Mandate for Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS): The Act enables the creation of a formalized carbon credit market in India, which allows businesses to buy and sell carbon credits. These credits are generated through activities that reduce carbon emissions, helping India achieve its climate targets under the Paris Agreement.
  • Economic and Climate Goals: By establishing a carbon credit trading scheme, India seeks to integrate climate objectives with economic growth, ensuring industries have incentives to adopt cleaner technologies and reduce emissions.

Global Lessons in Carbon Market Design

  • India’s carbon market framework aims to incorporate lessons from global experiences to prevent issues like greenwashing (overstating environmental benefits). Two main lessons India is looking to adopt include:
  • Maintaining Integrity in Carbon Credits: It’s essential for carbon credits to reflect real, additional carbon reductions. In global carbon markets, poor regulation has led to cases where the claimed environmental benefits were exaggerated. This has been particularly problematic in the voluntary carbon market (VCM), especially in forestry projects where the real impact on emissions reduction was sometimes overstated.
  • Adopting International Best Practices: India can draw from the methodologies of organizations like the International Emissions Trading Association (IETA) and the Gold Standard Foundation, which emphasize rigorous standards in carbon credit generation.

Challenges in Upholding the Integrity of Carbon Credits

  • Additionality and Avoiding Greenwashing: Additionality refers to ensuring that emissions reductions are above what would occur under a ‘business-as-usual’ scenario. Inadequate additionality leads to “greenwashing.” For example, India’s Green Credit Programme (GCP), with tree-planting guidelines, faced criticism over non-scientific practices that could misrepresent real environmental benefits.
  • Need for Rigorous Verification: A proposed national registry can help ensure that each carbon credit is unique, preventing double counting. Moreover, third-party verification can be instrumental in confirming additionality and the long-term effectiveness of carbon reduction efforts.

Aligning with Global Standards and Article 6 of the Paris Agreement

  • Article 6 of the Paris Agreement: This article provides a framework for international carbon trading, specifically through Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs). Under Article 6.2, countries can trade credits to achieve climate goals, but strict measures are necessary to ensure environmental integrity.
  • Preventing Double Counting of Credits: India’s market must integrate mechanisms that prevent double counting, where the same emissions reduction is credited to more than one entity or country. A transparent system for tracking emission reductions and carbon credit transfers will help India align with global standards, enhancing credibility.

Focus on Transparency and Disclosure

  • Ensuring Comprehensive Project Disclosure: Transparency is key to maintaining the integrity of carbon credits. For each carbon reduction project, information on techniques, benchmarks, and third-party verification should be available on a centralized platform. This allows stakeholders to verify that the credits represent genuine emissions reductions.
  • Regular Audits and Independent Oversight: Auditing projects regularly ensures sustainability. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in India could supervise these audits, with independent auditors to verify project claims, reducing the likelihood of low-quality credits entering the market.

Challenges and Solutions in Implementation

  • Cost of Verification Systems: Establishing comprehensive monitoring, reporting, and verification (MRV) systems can be costly, potentially deterring smaller projects. The Voluntary Carbon Markets Integrity Initiative (VCMI) framework offers a system to assess and verify claims of carbon credits, ensuring market transparency.
  • Ensuring Environmental Integrity: India must ensure that its market framework, even as it evolves, remains aligned with both domestic and international standards to foster transparency and avoid diluting the credibility of climate commitments.

Future Prospects and Opportunities for India’s Carbon Market

  • By focusing on rigorous standards of transparency, accountability, and environmental integrity, India’s emerging carbon credit market could attract both domestic and international investors. This would help India finance its climate initiatives, advance sustainable development, and align its economic growth with environmental goals.

Conclusion

  • In conclusion, India’s strategy for a carbon market is a significant step towards meeting its Paris Agreement targets and becoming a global leader in carbon credit trading.
  • However, its success will depend on addressing issues such as greenwashing, ensuring additionality, and maintaining transparency to build a credible and effective carbon market.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4.   Consider the following statements regarding India’s proposed Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS):

1.  The CCTS is mandated by the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, as part of India’s strategy to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.

2.  Under the CCTS, India aims to ensure that each carbon credit represents genuine, additional emissions reductions that exceed a business-as-usual scenario.

3.  The scheme aligns with Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, which establishes a framework for Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs) to prevent double counting of carbon credits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Q. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the (2015)

(a) Food and Agriculture Organization

(b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change

(c) World Trade Organization

(d) United Nations Environment Programme

Ans: (c)

 

 

 

Answer 4- D

Explanation

·       Statement 1 is correct: The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, introduced new measures in India’s legislative framework to address climate change and energy conservation. One of the Act’s provisions is to establish a Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), aimed at creating a structured domestic market for carbon credits.

·       Statement 2 is correct: A critical factor for carbon credits to be credible is “additionality”—meaning that the emissions reductions they represent would not have happened without the carbon credit project. This ensures that the credit is not just formalizing emissions reductions that would have occurred anyway.

·       Statement 3 is correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement allows countries to meet their climate targets by transferring emissions reductions across borders, termed Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs).

·       Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

On improving wind energy generation

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/on-improving-wind-energy-generation-explained/article68853371.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3- Economy

Context: Wind Energy

Why in News

  • The Tamil Nadu government’s 2024 repowering policy for wind power projects aims to modernize aging turbines but faces opposition from wind energy generators due to financial and operational challenges.

Current Wind Energy Capacity and Potential in India

  • National Wind Potential: According to the National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), India has an estimated 1,163.86 GW of wind power potential at 150 meters above ground level, making it one of the top countries globally in terms of wind potential. At the typical turbine height of 120 meters, the potential is slightly lower at 695.51 GW.
  • Tamil Nadu’s Wind Capacity: Tamil Nadu, a pioneer in wind energy since the 1980s, has a significant share of India’s wind energy capacity, with 10,603.5 MW installed out of India’s total wind capacity. Almost half of Tamil Nadu’s turbines are small-capacity (below 1 MW), thus offering repowering opportunities to increase output.

Policy and Industry Opposition: “Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment and Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects – 2024”

  • Policy Objective: Released in August 2024, this policy aims to address the aging wind turbine infrastructure in Tamil Nadu by encouraging the replacement, refurbishment, and life extension of old turbines.
  • Opposition from Industry: Despite the policy’s intent to modernize the wind energy sector, wind energy generators have opposed it, arguing that the policy does not adequately promote wind energy generation or address critical on-ground challenges. The policy has faced legal action, resulting in a stay order from the Madras High Court.

Challenges in Repowering and Refurbishing Old Turbines

  • Repowering vs. Refurbishment: Repowering involves replacing old turbines with new, higher-capacity ones, while refurbishment includes structural upgrades like increasing the height of the tower or installing new blades. In cases of very old turbines (more than 15 years or under 2 MW capacity), repowering is necessary.
  • Technical Hurdles: When the original turbines were installed in the 1980s, the required spacing between turbines was calculated based on older technology. With modern high-capacity turbines, land requirements and spacing standards are different. For example, a 2 MW turbine requires 3.5 acres, while a 2.5 MW turbine needs five acres due to height and operational efficiency requirements.
  • Infrastructure Limitations: Transmission and energy evacuation infrastructure (for moving generated power to the grid) near wind sites, especially high-potential ones like Aralvaimozhi, are insufficient. The delay in installing planned substations (like the 230 KVA substations) impedes the potential for efficient wind power transmission, thus limiting output despite high wind capacity.

Impact on Financial Viability and Operational Challenges

  • Banking Restrictions: Wind mills installed in Tamil Nadu after 2018 do not have banking facilities (the ability to store surplus energy in the grid and use it later). When turbines are repowered, they are treated as new installations and do not qualify for banking, impacting the financial viability as operators can’t effectively manage surplus power.
  • High Costs and Low Incentives: Repowering requires significant investment. However, under the current policy, many generators believe they lack sufficient financial incentives, as the policy does not address revenue assurance or financial risk mitigation. As a result, investments in wind energy repowering are seen as commercially unappealing.

The National Perspective and the Way Forward

  • Repowering Potential in Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu has over 7,000 MW of potential capacity that could be enhanced through repowering or refurbishing old turbines. This could significantly boost the contribution of wind energy during peak wind seasons by up to 25%.
  • Policy Improvement Recommendations: Stakeholders suggest that for the repowering policy to be effective, it should address on-ground operational and financial challenges. This includes revisiting banking regulations, ensuring reliable infrastructure development (like substations and evacuation lines), and providing financial incentives or subsidies to make repowering commercially viable.

Conclusion”

  • While Tamil Nadu has a strong wind energy foundation and potential for growth, its current infrastructure, regulatory limitations, and lack of financial support hinder the full utilization of this potential.
  • The new repowering policy, while a step in the right direction, needs adjustments to attract investment, encourage modernization, and make the wind energy sector sustainable and profitable.
  • Generators urge the government to address these concerns to create a more supportive environment for wind energy expansion in Tamil Nadu and other high-potential states.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment and Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects – 2024:

  1. The policy aims to replace older wind turbines with newer, higher-capacity ones and extend the life of existing turbines.
  2. Wind energy generators in Tamil Nadu have opposed the policy, claiming it does not promote wind energy generation and affects financial viability.
  3. The policy provides incentives to wind energy generators for the repowering process, including land acquisition support.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 

Q. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by (2018) 

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

(d) The World Meteorological Organisation

Ans: (c)

 

Answer 5-A

Explanation

·       Statement 1 is correct: The Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment, and Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects – 2024 aims to address issues arising from the aging wind turbines in the state. Older turbines, many of which are over 30 years old and of smaller capacities (less than 1 MW), are either replaced with more efficient, high-capacity turbines or refurbished.

·       Statement 2 is correct: Wind energy generators in Tamil Nadu have voiced opposition to the policy, stating that it does not adequately support the promotion of wind energy generation. They argue that the policy’s provisions are not commercially viable and that it does not address field challenges adequately.

·       Statement 3 is incorrect: The policy does not provide direct incentives such as land acquisition support to the wind energy generators. While the policy encourages repowering and refurbishing older turbines, it does not offer financial support for land acquisition.

·       Therefore, option A is the correct answer.  

­­­Justice Sanjiv Khanna takes over as 51st Chief Justice of India

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-judge-justice-sanjiv-khanna-sworn-in-as-the-51st-chief-justice-of-india/article68854504.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2- Polity and Governance

Context: 51st Chief Justice of India

Why in news

  • President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) to Supreme Court judge Justice Sanjiv Khanna

Overview

  • Justice Sanjiv Khanna was sworn in as the 51st Chief Justice of India (CJI) on November 11, 2024, by President Droupadi Murmu in a ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan, attended by dignitaries including Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, former Chief Justices of India, and various sitting and retired judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
  • Following the ceremony, Chief Justice Khanna presided over cases in Court One of the Supreme Court, assuming his responsibilities as the Chief Justice and hearing 47 cases with Justice Sanjay Kumar as his Bench companion.
  • Justice Khanna succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, who retired on November 10, 2024. His tenure as CJI will be until May 13, 2025.

Key Judicial Contributions and Notable Judgments

  1. Personal Liberty and Bail Rights
  • Justice Khanna has upheld personal liberty as a fundamental right, evident in his decision to grant interim bail to former Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, who had been detained for over 90 days in connection with the Delhi liquor policy case. He emphasized the sacrosanct nature of personal liberty and called for a larger Bench to examine bail conditions applicable to cases similar to Kejriwal’s.
  1. Advocacy for EVMs
  • In a notable judgment, Justice Khanna upheld the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in elections, rejecting petitions to revert to paper ballots. He argued that unwarranted skepticism in institutions could hinder progress and maintained that EVMs were a reliable mechanism for free and fair elections, supporting technological advancement in electoral processes.
  1. Position on Secularism and Socialism in the Constitution
  • Justice Khanna addressed petitions challenging the inclusion of the terms ‘secularism’ and ‘socialism’ in the Preamble of the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment. He remarked that secularism is a fundamental component of the Constitution’s Basic Structure, underlining that the values embodied in secularism predate the formal inclusion of the term in the Preamble.
  1. Approach to Judicial Review and Essential Religious Practices
  • Chief Justice Khanna will likely oversee long-pending cases, including those concerning the constitutional protection of essential religious practices. A reference case stemming from the Sabarimala temple entry for women raises questions about judicial review in religious issues. This case was assigned to a nine-judge Bench in 2018 and seeks to define the constitutional boundaries of religious freedoms and individual rights.

Challenges as the Chief Justice of India

Justice Khanna’s six-month tenure as CJI is anticipated to be both challenging and transformative. Several critical issues require his immediate attention:

  1. High Pendency of Cases:
    • One of the top priorities for Justice Khanna will be addressing the substantial backlog of cases in the Supreme Court. Efficient case management, allocation of cases, and innovative use of technology are key factors in his approach to reducing pendency.
  2. Judicial Appointments:
    • The Khanna-led Supreme Court Collegium is responsible for recommending judicial appointments. His tenure begins with two vacancies in the Supreme Court due to Justice D.Y. Chandrachud’s retirement and another retirement. It remains to be seen if he will prioritize the elevation of women judges, as the representation of women in the judiciary is a topic of ongoing discussion.
  3. Constitutional Bench Formation:
    • Several high-stakes constitutional matters await Justice Khanna’s formation of special Benches. These cases include the government’s use of the Money Bill route for amendments like those in the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. The Bench would examine the legal implications of bypassing the Rajya Sabha in crucial legislative matters.
  4. Pending Social and Legal Issues:
    • Justice Khanna is expected to address sensitive issues, including criminalizing non-consensual marital intercourse. His predecessor, Justice Chandrachud, was unable to complete this due to time constraints. The resolution of such cases holds significant social and legal implications for individual rights and gender equality in India.
  5. Master of the Roster:
    • As CJI, Justice Khanna controls the allocation of cases, a power known as the “master of the roster.” Past CJIs have faced criticism over Bench allocations, with concerns about bias in assigning high-profile or politically sensitive cases. Justice Khanna’s handling of this responsibility will be closely observed.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. With regard to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements:

  1. The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India.
  2. A Supreme Court judge can be directly elevated to the position of Chief Justice of India without serving as the Chief Justice of a State High Court.
  3. The Chief Justice of India is appointed for a fixed tenure of five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

 

Q.   With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (2021)

  1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
  2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither I nor 2

Ans: (c)

Answer 6- B

Explanation

·        Statement 1 is correct: The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India.

·        Statement 2 is correct: It is possible for a Supreme Court judge to be directly elevated to the position of Chief Justice of India without having served as the Chief Justice of a State High Court, as seen in the case of Justice Sanjiv Khanna.

·       Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India does not have a fixed tenure of five years. Instead, the CJI serves until reaching the age of 65 or until voluntary retirement, if earlier.

·       Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

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