Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (9-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Andhra Pradesh: Andhra ranks second in country as 99.9% TB patients undergo HIV screening |
| Andhra police relaunch ‘foolproof’ e-challan app |
| Economy: Households’ debt touched an all-time high of 40% of GDP by Dec. 2023 |
| Science and Technology: TASL’s satellite successfully deployed in space |
| Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption |
| National: Right against climate change a fundamental right, says SC |
| Several States are coming to court against Centre: SC |
| International Relations: Cochin Shipyard signs ship repair agreement with the U.S. Navy |
Andhra ranks second in country as 99.9% TB patients undergo HIV screening
Source: The New Indian Express
APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Public Health
Context: According to data in the ‘India TB Report 2023’, released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, 99.9% of tuberculosis (TB) patients, totalling 92,978 patients, underwent HIV tests.
Why in news
- AP has shown exemplary efforts in addressing TB-HIV co-infections, with 4,288 diagnosed patients receiving appropriate care and support.
About NTEP
- The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), previously known as Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), aims to strategically reduce TB burden in India by 2025, five years ahead of the Sustainable Development Goals.
- In line with the National TB Elimination Programme’s (NTEP) accelerated efforts guided by the National Strategic Plan (NSP) 2017-2025, AP has achieved a record high notification of 24.2 lakh TB cases in 2022, marking a 13% increase from the previous year.
National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination
- The National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination was launched to achieve the target of ending TB by 2025 in a mission mode.
- It is a multi-pronged approach which aims to detect all TB patients with an emphasis on reaching TB patients seeking care from private providers and undiagnosed TB in high-risk populations.
Key Highlights
- Robust case-finding efforts are key factors contributing to the state’s success in TB management.
- This included a notable rise in private TB case notifications to 7.3 lakh, indicating improved detection and reporting mechanisms.
- The presumptive TB examination rate (PTBER) soared to 1281 per lakh population in 2022, marking a significant 68% increase from the previous year.
- Presumptive TB refers to a patient who presents with symptoms or signs suggestive of TB
- Furthermore, AP has shown exemplary efforts in addressing TB-HIV co-infections, with 4,288 diagnosed patients receiving appropriate care and support.
Treatment
- Notably, 4,160 TB-HIV co-infected patients were put on antiretroviral therapy (ART), while 4,253 received cotrimoxazole preventive therapy (CPT), reflecting comprehensive management strategies aimed at improving patient outcomes and reducing mortality rates.
- Presumptive TB cases examined were 268,507, with 32,486 (12%) having known HIV status. Paediatric TB patients notified were 2,708, with 2,697 (almost 100%) having known HIV status.
- The state’s proactive approach in strengthening TB surveillance and case finding activities includes a robust presumptive TB examination rate of 1281 per 1,00,000 population, highlighting the extensive efforts to detect and diagnose TB cases promptly.
- Andhra Pradesh’s efforts extend to pediatric TB patients, with 2,708 cases notified and 2,677 initiated on treatment in 2022.
- Additionally, the state has prioritised the diagnosis and treatment of multidrug-resistant/rifampicin-resistant (MDR/RR) TB, with 63,801 patients diagnosed.
- The state has also implemented innovative strategies and collaborated with partners to expand access to TB services and improve patient care.
Conclusion
- AP’s proactive approach to TB surveillance and modelling has been instrumental in guiding policy decisions and resource allocation.
- The state has focused on achieving TB elimination targets, expanding access to services, strengthening diagnostic and treatment infrastructure, and ensuring equitable healthcare delivery.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Andhra Pradesh has prioritised the diagnosis and treatment of multidrug-resistant/rifampicin-resistant (MDR/RR) TB, with 63,801 patients diagnosed as per recent reports. B. The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), aims to strategically reduce TB burden in India by 2030. C. Andhra Pradesh has robust presumptive TB examination rate of 1281 per 1,00,000 population. D. National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination aims to detect all TB patients.
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| Answer 1– B
Explanation · AP’s proactive approach to TB surveillance and modelling has been instrumental in guiding policy decisions and resource allocation. · Andhra Pradesh has prioritised the diagnosis and treatment of multidrug-resistant/rifampicin-resistant (MDR/RR) TB, with 63,801 patients diagnosed as per recent reports. So, statement A is correct. · The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), previously known as Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), aims to strategically reduce TB burden in India by 2025, five years ahead of the Sustainable Development Goals. So, statement B is incorrect. · Presumptive TB refers to a patient who presents with symptoms or signs suggestive of TB · Andhra Pradesh has robust presumptive TB examination rate of 1281 per 1,00,000 population So, statement C is correct. · The National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination was launched to achieve the target of ending TB by 2025 in a mission mode. So, statement D is incorrect. · Therefore, correct answer is option B. |
Andhra police relaunch ‘foolproof’ e-challan app
Source: The New Indian Express
APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Law and Order Administration, Administrative reforms
Context: Andhra State Police’s new e-challan application.
Why in news
- The Andhra State Police relaunched the e-challan application that enables a comprehensive digital solution for enforcement of traffic rules and transparency in the collection of fines from violators.
Key Highlights
- The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) developed the new application to replace the older version.
- Currently, the latest mobile application is under the initial stage of operations.
- It will come fully operational in all the police stations across the State by the end of April.
- No middlemen nor any private company will be involved in the maintenance of the application, as the MORTH and National Informatics Centre (NIC) are technology partners.
Reason
- The decision to go for a revised e-challan application came after the State police unearthed a major scandal, involving transactions through e-challans to the tune of Rs 36.55 crore by the son-in-law of a retired director general of police (DGP) and two others.
- Subsequently, the State government approached MoRTH to develop a similar Android-based mobile application for police under the pan-India project, which is being developed by NIC.
- The new application enables a comprehensive digital solution for enforcement of traffic rules and transparency in the collection of fines from violators.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. Which of the following agencies are technology partners of relaunched e-challan system of Andhra Pradesh Police?
1. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) 2. National Informatics Centre (NIC) 3. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) 4. Wipro 5. Infosys Code:
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| Answer 2– D
Explanation
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Households’ debt touched an all-time high of 40% of GDP by Dec. 2023
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Indian Economy)
Context: The debt levels are reckoned to have touched an all-time high of 40% of GDP by December 2023, while net financial savings had likely dropped to their lowest level at around 5% of GDP
Why in news
- In what may be construed as a sign of rising financial distress, India’s household debt levels are reckoned to have touched an all-time high of 40% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by December 2023, while net financial savings had likely dropped to their lowest level at around 5% of GDP, as per a research report from leading financial services firm Motilal Oswal.
Key Highlights
- In September 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had estimated that households’ net financial savings had dropped to 5.1% of GDP in 2022-23, a 47-year low, triggering a flurry of criticism that the Finance Ministry had refuted sharply.
- It had argued that households are adding fewer financial assets than in the past because they were taking loans to buy real assets such as homes and vehicles which is “not a sign of distress but of confidence in their future employment and income prospects”.
- The first revised estimates of national income for 2022-23 published this February, raised the estimated net financial savings in households to 5.3% of GDP, which is still the lowest in 47 years, and weaker than the average of 7.6% of GDP recorded between 2011-12 and 2019-20.
- The revised estimates also scaled up household debt levels to 38% of GDP in 2022-23, second only to the 39.1% of GDP recorded in the pandemic-hit year of 2020-21.
Unsecured personal loans
- As per Motilal Oswal research analysts, household debt has risen to approximately 40% of GDP as of December 2023, reaching a new high.
- Based on banks’ data, it is clear that unsecured personal loans continue to grow at the fastest pace within household debt, followed by secured debt, agricultural loans, and business loans.
- The report ascribed the dismal 2022-23 net financial savings numbers to weak income growth, coupled with robust consumption and growth in physical savings.
- With income growth remaining weak and household net financial savings likely at its lowest at around 5% of GDP, it is not surprising that both private consumption and household investment growth have weakened considerably in 2023-24, it postulated.
Gross savings
- Over the first nine months of last year, households’ gross financial savings rose a tad to 10.8% of GDP, from 10.5% in the corresponding period of 2022-23, but financial liabilities also rose by a similar extent to 5.8% of GDP from 5.5% of GDP, the report said.
- Households’ annual borrowings had surged to 5.8% of GDP in 2022-23, the second-highest in the post-Independence period.
- While households’ physical savings stood at a decade-high in 2022-23, their total savings were at a six-year low level of 18.4% of GDP.
- India’s Gross Domestic Savings (GDS) eased to 30.2% of GDP, lower than the 31-32% range seen between 2013-14 and 2018-19, the report noted, terming the fall in net financial savings of households as ‘dramatic’.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the Following statements with regards to Indian economy:
1. India’s household debt levels have touched an all-time high of 40% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by December 2023 2. Based on recent data, agriculture loans continue to grow at the fastest pace within household debt, followed by secured debt. 3. Households’ annual borrowings had surged to 5.8% of GDP in 2022-23. How many of the above statements are correct?
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Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans- C
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| Ans 3 B
Explanation · In what may be construed as a sign of rising financial distress, India’s household debt levels are reckoned to have touched an all-time high of 40% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by December 2023, while net financial savings had likely dropped to their lowest level at around 5% of GDP, as per a research report from leading financial services firm Motilal Oswal. · Hence statement 1 is correct. · Based on banks’ data, it is clear that unsecured personal loans continue to grow at the fastest pace within household debt, followed by secured debt, agricultural loans, and business loans. · Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
· Households’ annual borrowings had surged to 5.8% of GDP in 2022-23, the second-highest in the post-Independence period. · Hence statement 3 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option B |
TASL’s satellite successfully deployed in space
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (science & technology; Space technology)
Context: SpaceX deploys Tata and Satellogic’s TSAT-1A satellite assembled in Karnataka.
Why in news
- India’s first military grade geospatial satellite manufactured in the private sector has been successfully launched and placed in orbit, with full functionality expected to be achieved within a few months.
Key Highlights
- The TSAT-1A satellite, which was assembled at TASL’s Assembly, Integration, and Testing (AIT) plant in Vemagal, Karnataka, is a result of the collaboration between TASL and Satellogic that began in November 2023.
- This partnership combines Satellogic’s expertise in developing advanced Earth Observation satellites with TASL’s proficiency in complex system integration.
- This milestone shows TASL’s commitment to the space sector.
- This partnership with Satellogic has enabled us to deliver an assembled and tested in India, best-in-class, sub-metre optical satellite which was launched by SpaceX.
About TSAT-1A
- While India has a few military spy satellites built by ISRO, this if the first such initiative in the private sector.
- TSAT-1A is designed to deliver high-resolution optical satellite images, boasting increased collection capacity, dynamic range, and low-latency delivery through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities.
- The satellite will provide military grade imagery with high resolution of less than one metre per pixel that will be downloaded and processed at a ground centre in India that is being built by TASL.
- This technological advancement is expected to significantly benefit both government and enterprise sectors by providing tailored satellite data for various applications.
- The company plans to put up a constellation of such satellites in the future and its manufacturing facility is geared to produce up to 25 low earth orbit (LEO) satellites annually.
Satellogic
- Satellogic is a company specializing in Earth-observation satellites, founded in 2010 by Emiliano Kargieman and Gerardo Richarte.
- Satellogic began launching their Aleph-1 constellation of ÑuSat satellites in May 2016.
- In January 2022 the company went public with a special-purpose acquisition company (CF Acquisition Corp. V) merger.
- Satellogic is a publicly traded company on the Nasdaq exchange.
- Satellogic’s Space Systems program offers governments and enterprises the ability to tailor a proven satellite model for their specific needs, and reach orbit within a favourable timeframe.
SpaceX
- Space Exploration Technologies Corp., commonly referred to as SpaceX, is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launch service provider, defense contractor and satellite communications company headquartered in Hawthorne, California.
- The company was founded in 2002 by Elon Musk with the goal of reducing space transportation costs and ultimately developing a sustainable colony on Mars.
- The company currently operates the Falcon 9 and Falcon Heavy rockets along with the Dragon and Starship spacecraft.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s first military grade geospatial satellite manufactured in the private sector has been successfully launched and placed in orbit by Reliance Industries. 2. SpaceX, is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launch service provider, and satellite communications company headquartered in Chicago. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2016)
(1) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. (2) Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D |
| Answer 4– D
Explanation –
· Space Exploration Technologies Corp., commonly referred to as SpaceX, is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launch service provider, defense contractor and satellite communications company headquartered in Hawthorne, California. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option D is correct answer.
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Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’
Source: The Hindu
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/marching-ahead-with-technology-absorption/article68043715.ece
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Defence Technology)
Context : The Indian military is moving in the right direction, but the challenge lies in sustaining technology absorption with a nuanced understanding of the requirements.
Why in news
- The Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’.
Key Highlights
- 2024 theme underscores the Army’s steadfast focus on embracing technology to transform itself so as to keep ahead of adversaries in the context of the evolving character of warfare.
- The technology absorption in Indian military will be mainly in terms of disruptive technology (DT) comprising artificial intelligence, autonomous weapon systems such as drones, sensors, robotics, space technology, and hypersonic weapon systems.
- Several nations, led by the United States and China, have remarkable accomplishments in the field of DTs.
- The strategic competition and engagements in the future are going to be inevitably decided by the edge a nation possesses in absorbing these technologies.
- In military parlance, absorption implies the acquisition, adaptation and integration of technologies into existing structures called legacy systems.
- These cover various nuances that are usually not apparent to the uninitiated.
- In addition, a few misnomers prevail vis-à-vis the absorption of DTs.
- Certain facets are enumerated below for a nuanced understanding of the issue.
- To begin with, time-tested weapon platforms and tactics are here to stay, even with the induction of DTs.
- It is more about discovering a practical use of the new discoveries rather than about the discovery per se.
- As said, integration as part of absorption wherein the new DTs complement existing platforms is crucial. Discarding the prevailing systems to be substituted by the new will not necessarily be the way ahead.
Technology alone is not enough
- Although the new technologies could significantly alter the character of future wars, we must still refrain from being lulled into complacency because of the mere acquisition of technology.
- The strategies that military organisations use to employ technologies will be critical in understanding their effects on the battlefield.
- Analysts who see a military revolution in technology, usually argue that new technologies have made the modern battlefield more lethal.
- However, it is brought out that ‘realised lethality’, as opposed to the visualised ‘potential lethality’ in recent wars such as Russia-Ukraine and Armenia-Azerbaijan (Nagorno-Karabakh), is not very much different from that seen in wars of an earlier era.
- This corroborates the fact that technological advances will not be the sole determinative in war and are only a part of what shapes outcomes.
- Also, as we have seen in the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war, the initial benefits that Ukraine could muster no longer gained traction as the war progressed.
- One of the reasons behind ‘advantage Russia’ on the battlefield now is in the Russian army employing traditional methodologies to fight the war.
- Aspects such as consolidating traditional defence lines and a stronger military industrial base are what matter finally.
- The Indian military by focusing on DTs and indigenous upgrades in defence manufacture in tandem, is certainly striking the way ahead.
Adapting to new conditions is crucial
- Technical countermeasures in wars quickly limit the performance of new technology-enabled weapons employed by an adversary.
- The most important adaptations are often not technological but operational and tactical, i.e., how a military fights at various levels.
- They involve changes in the way armies use the tools at their disposal.
- Over a century ago, armies developed tactics that reduced their exposure to enemy fire by exploiting dispersion, cover and concealment. Such practices hold even more importance in the current era.
- In present battle conditions, weapon platforms such as tanks must adapt to become more survivable.
- This will require a change in tactics and a greater integration of different types of capabilities.
- With a plethora of sensors on the battlefield, it has become almost impossible to hide. Tanks, for example, will have to operate widely dispersed, accompanied by electronic warfare units to detect and jam aerial platforms of the enemy.
- Similarly, the infantry on the battlefield, while operating dispersed will need an excellent standard of junior leadership to lead men in compartmentalised and high-tech battles.
Planning ahead
- Rather than discarding conventional platforms in favour of purely digital solutions, the technology and its attributes need to be at the centre of planning for future plans.
- This will be a process that starts with the acknowledgement of vulnerabilities and sensitivities and the gap between them.
- An understanding of the latest technologies, their potential, and the context in which they can be utilised are essential.
- The absorption will have to visibly manifest itself at the unit levels, as against being controlled only at the higher levels.
- This democratisation in employing technology at cutting-edge levels is an imperative to usher in true transformation.
- Technology absorption will also necessarily include several macro level aspects such as organisational restructuring, the management of human resources and cultivating specialists not merely at the higher levels but also decentralised at execution levels, civil military fusion, having a structure and policies to ensure data integrity, and having a procurement policy that is applicable to DTs.
Conclusion
- The Indian military is moving in the desired direction but the challenge will be to sustain this with a nuanced understanding of the requirements as applicable. In this context, there are many lessons from recent and ongoing wars, and should not be lost sight of.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’. 2. Technology absorption in armed forces will include several macro level aspects such as organisational restructuring, as well as decentralisation at execution levels 3. One of the reasons behind ‘advantage Russia’ on the battlefield now is in the Russian army employing traditional methodologies to fight the war. 4. Disruptive technology (DT) in defence comprises artificial intelligence, autonomous weapon systems such as drones, sensors, robotics, space technology, and hypersonic weapon systems. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 B. 3 only C. Only 4 D. None
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Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Answer C |
| Answer 5– D
Explanation
· Technology absorption will necessarily include several macro level aspects such as organisational restructuring, the management of human resources and cultivating specialists not merely at the higher levels but also decentralised at execution levels, civil military fusion, having a structure and policies to ensure data integrity, and having a procurement policy that is applicable to DTs. So, statement 2 is correct.
· Aspects such as consolidating traditional defence lines and a stronger military industrial base are what matter finally. So, statement 3 is correct. · Several nations, led by the United States and China, have remarkable accomplishments in the field of Disruptive technology (DT). DT in defence comprises artificial intelligence, autonomous weapon systems such as drones, sensors, robotics, space technology, and hypersonic weapon systems. So, statement 4 is correct.
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Right against climate change a fundamental right, says SC
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance, Fundamental Rights)
Context: Adverse impacts of climate change infringe upon right to life, equality and clean environment, the Supreme Court bench has noted recently
Why in news
- The Supreme Court has recognised a right against the adverse effects of climate change as a distinct fundamental right in the Constitution.
Hearing of cases on endangered animals
- The judgment released on April 6 came in a case connected with the survival of the endangered Great Indian Bustard species.
- An order was pronounced in open court on March 21, constituting an expert committee to examine the problem faced by the bird species whose natural habitat and flight routes collide with power transmission lines in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- The case had been posted for further hearing in August 2024. However, the court, unannounced, uploaded a judgment during the weekend. The text of the judgment mainly focuses several paragraphs on climate change and its adversities.
Supreme Court observed
- It is yet to be articulated that the people have a right against the adverse effects of climate change.
- This is perhaps because this right and the right to a clean environment are two sides of the same coin.
- As the havoc caused by climate change increases year-by-year, it becomes necessary to articulate this as a distinct right.
- It is recognised by Articles 14 (right to equality) and 21 (right to life).
- Linking the right against climate change to Articles 21 and 14, Chief Justice Chandrachud said the rights to life and equality could not be fully realised without a clean, stable environment.
- “The right to health (which is a part of the right to life under Article 21) is impacted due to factors such as air pollution, shifts in vector-borne diseases, rising temperatures, droughts, shortages in food supplies due to crop failure, storms, and flooding.
- The inability of underserved communities to adapt to climate change or cope with its effects violates the right to life as well as the right to equality… If climate change and environmental degradation lead to acute food and water shortages in a particular area, poorer communities will suffer more than richer ones,” the judgment said.
Interrelation between Climate change and human rights
- The Supreme court highlighted the interconnection between climate change and various human rights, including the right to health, indigenous rights, gender equality, and the right to development
- The judgment noted that the right to a healthy environment, safe from the ill-effects of climate change, was a “fundamental human right”.
- “Violations of the right to a healthy environment can reverberate across numerous rights domains, including the right to life, personal integrity, health, water, and housing, as well as procedural rights such as information, expression, association, and participation… Unequal energy access disproportionately affects women and girls due to their gender roles and responsibilities such as through time spent on domestic chores and unpaid care work,” the court noted.
- The court underscored the important role solar power would play in arresting the ills of climate change.
India’s solar potential
- India urgently needed to shift to solar power due to three issues – One, the country is likely to account for 25% of global energy demand growth over the next two decades; Two, rampant air pollution emphasises the need for cleaner energy sources; Three declining groundwater levels and decreasing annual rainfall.
- The court noted that the country was endowed with vast solar energy potential and received about 5,000 trillion kWh per year of solar energy.
- Solar photovoltaic power offered immense scalability in India, allowing for effective harnessing of solar energy.
India’s emphasis on renewable energy source
- India’s goal to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil-based electricity generation capacity by 2030 aligned with its efforts to be net zero by 2070.
- In 2023-24, out of the total generation capacity of 9,943 MW added, 8,269 is from non-fossil fuel sources.
- According to the Renewable Energy Statistics 2023 released by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), India has the 4th largest installed capacity of renewable energy.
Benefits of non-fossil fuels for India
- India’s commitment to transitioning to non-fossil fuels is not just a strategic energy goal but a fundamental necessity for environmental preservation.
- Investing in renewable energy not only addresses these urgent environmental concerns but also yields a plethora of socio-economic benefits.
- By shifting towards renewable energy sources, India enhances its energy security, reducing reliance on volatile fossil fuel markets and mitigating the risks associated with energy scarcity.
- Additionally, the adoption of renewable energy technologies helps in curbing air pollution, thereby improving public health and reducing healthcare costs
Conclusion
- Despite governmental policy and rules and regulations recognising the adverse effects of climate change and seeking to combat it, there is no single or umbrella legislation in India which relates to climate change and the attendant concerns. However, this does not mean that the people of India do not have a right against the adverse effects of climate change.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ | ||||||||||||
| Q6. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correct?
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Q. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans- D |
| Answer 6 B
Explanation
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Several States are coming to court against Centre: SC
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 2 (Centre- State Relations, Role of Judiciary)
Context: Karnataka said its request for financial relief from the Centre to tide over a ‘grave humanitarian crises has hit a wall.
Why in news
- The Supreme Court said a steady stream of States are compelled to approach it against the Centre while cautioning the Union government against entering into a “contest” with water-starved Karnataka over its request for drought relief.
Key Highlights
- “Let there be no contest here between the Union and the State… We are seeing various State governments having to appear in court,” Justice B.R. Gavai, heading the Bench, addressed Attorney General R. Venkataramani and Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, both appearing for the Union government.
- Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka have petitioned the apex court on issues related to financial relief
- Recently, the Tamil Nadu government accused the Centre in the Supreme Court of treating the people of the State in a “step-motherly” fashion by delaying the release of disaster relief funds to the tune of nearly ₹38,000 crore to help tide over the twin calamities of cyclone Michaung and unprecedented floods in the State’s southern districts.
- Likewise, Kerala filed a first-of-its-kind suit directly in the apex court, blaming the Centre for arbitrarily interfering in its net borrowing limits, pushing the State to the brink of a financial emergency.
Karnataka
- Karnataka said its request for financial relief from the Centre to tide over a “grave humanitarian crisis” has hit a wall.
- The State had sought ₹18,171.44 crore under the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) six months ago, only to be met with silence.
- The total estimated loss due to crop damage in the State is ₹35,162.05 crore, the petition said.
- The State, represented by advocate D.L. Chidananda, said it is reeling under severe drought, affecting the lives of its people.
- “For the Kharif 2023 season (the season starts in June and ends in September), a total of 223 out of 236 taluks are declared as drought-affected, with 196 taluks categorised as severely affected and the remaining 27 categorised as moderately affected.
- Karnataka as a whole recorded -56% deficit rainfall in June, which was the third lowest in the last 122 years for the State,” the State said.
- The State government had submitted three drought relief memoranda under various heads, including ₹4,663.12 crore towards crop loss input subsidy, ₹12,577.9 crore for gratuitous relief to families whose livelihood has been seriously affected due to drought, ₹566.78 crore for addressing shortage of drinking water relief, and ₹363.68 crore towards cattle care.
- “The state is duty bound to affirmatively protect the fundamental rights of its people guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
- The action of the Central government in denying the financial assistance to the State is ex facie violative of the fundamental rights of the people of Karnataka guaranteed under Articles 14 (right to equality), 21 (right to life) of the Constitution,” the State of Karnataka said in its petition.
Disaster management
- The Karnataka state argued that the action of the Centre was violative of the statutory scheme of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the Manual for Drought Management and the Guidelines on Constitution and Administration of the State Disaster Response Fund, and National Disaster Response Fund.
- The State said the Centre, under the Manual for Drought Management, was required to take a final decision on NDRF assistance to a State within a month of the receipt of the Inter-Ministerial Central Team (IMCT).
- However, nothing has happened for the past six months.
- “Despite the IMCT report, which visited various drought-affected districts from October 4 till October 9, 2023, and made a comprehensive assessment of drought situation in the State and consideration of the report by the sub committee of the National Executive Committee constituted under Section 9 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, Centre has not taken a final decision on the assistance to the State,” the petition said.
Administrative Relations
- Articles 256 to 263 deal with administrative relations, including those between the Central Government and several state governments. Though India is federal, it has unitary characteristics, and so Article 256 states that state governments must ensure that they follow the laws passed by Parliament and do not conduct any executive or administrative functions in violation of the same.
- To establish improved relations between the Centre and the states, the Sarkaria Commission advocated for cooperative federalism in administrative relations between the two.
- The same was crucial since multiple parties working at the federal and state levels frequently create turmoil and distrust, leading to inefficient administration.
Financial Relation
- Part XII of the Constitution, Articles 264 to 293, deal with financial relation between the Centre and the state.
- Because India is a federal country, it adheres to the division of powers when it comes to taxation, and it is the responsibility of the Centre to allocate funds to the states.
- All such connected provisions have been addressed in this document.
- Schedule VII describes the ability of the Centre and states to levy taxes.
- Furthermore, it contains numerous regulations concerning the levy and allocation of taxes by the center and states, grants to states, surcharges, and so on. The Goods and Services Tax, a dual structure tax, is a recent example of a financial center-state relationship.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. Tamil Nadu government accused the Centre in the Supreme Court of delaying the release of disaster relief funds. 2. Schedule VIII describes the ability of the Centre and states to levy taxes. 3. Part X of the Constitution, deal with financial relation between the Centre and the state. 4. Articles 256 to 263 deal with administrative relations, including those between the Central Government and several state governments Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
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Q. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (UPSC Prelims 2017)
A There is an independent judiciary in India. B Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States C The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. D It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer D |
| Answer 7– A
Explanation · The Supreme Court said a steady stream of States are compelled to approach it against the Centre while cautioning the Union government against entering into a “contest” with water-starved Karnataka over its request for drought relief. · Recently, the Tamil Nadu government accused the Centre in the Supreme Court of treating the people of the State in a “step-motherly” fashion by delaying the release of disaster relief funds to the tune of nearly ₹38,000 crore to help tide over the twin calamities of cyclone Michaung and unprecedented floods in the State’s southern districts. So, statement 1 is correct. · The 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages in India. Schedule VII describes the ability of the Centre and states to levy taxes. The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union and the State legislatures. It embodies three lists; namely, the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Part X of the Constitution lays down special provisions for the administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Part XII of the Constitution, Articles 264 to 293, deal with financial relation between the Centre and the state. So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Articles 256 to 263 deal with administrative relations, including those between the Central Government and several state governments. · Though India is federal, it has unitary characteristics, and so Article 256 states that state governments must ensure that they follow the laws passed by Parliament and do not conduct any executive or administrative functions in violation of the same. So, statement 4 is correct.
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Cochin Shipyard signs ship repair agreement with the U.S. Navy
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS 2 ( International Relations, Defence Relations )
Context: India and the United States look to expand cooperation in ship repair and maintenance to turn India into a regional hub
Why in news
- The State-run shipbuilding facility in Kochi is the third shipyard in the country after Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA)
Key Highlights
- Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) became the third Indian shipyard to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA) with the U.S., which will enable to repair U.S. Navy ships.
- L&T shipyard in Kattupalli near Chennai, which has so far repaired three U.S. Navy fleet support ships, was the first Indian shipyard to sign the agreement in July last year.
- Last month, a United Kingdom naval ship arrived for the first time at Kattupalli for repairs.
- In a joint statement issued after bilateral talks held between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and U.S. President Joe Biden in September 2023, both sides recommitted to advancing India’s “emergence as a hub for the maintenance and repair” of forward-deployed U.S. Navy assets and other aircraft and vessels
- Join statement also added that the leaders welcomed “further commitments from U.S. industry to invest more in India’s maintenance, repair, and overhaul capabilities and facilities for aircraft.”
Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA) with the U.S
- The MSRA is a non-financial agreement and is effective from April 05, 2024.
- This will facilitate repair of U.S. Naval vessels under Military Sealift Command in CSL
- CSL has been qualified for entering into the MSRA after a detailed evaluation process and capability assessment by the U.S. Navy — Military Sealift Command.
- Both India and the U.S. are quite keen on expanding cooperation in ship maintenance and repairs as it benefits both countries, giving business and expertise to Indian shipyards while giving alternate options to the U.S. Navy for its smaller repairs of its ships without going faraway increasing their turnaround time and at significantly lesser cost.
- Defence shipyard MDL concluded an MSRA in August 2023.
India-UK Logistic Exchange Memorandum of Agreement
- On March 26, the U.K.’s Littoral Response Group (LRG) arrived in Chennai as the first engagement of its deployment to the Indian Pacific region.
- The U.K. High Commission said the Royal Fleet Auxiliary Argus and RFA Lyme Bay conducted maritime exercises with the Indian Navy as they entered the Arabian Sea and will undergo essential maintenance at L&T shipyard.
- This is the first time a Royal Navy vessel will undergo maintenance at an Indian shipyard — a direct result of the logistics-sharing agreement signed between the U.K. and India in 2022.
- It also signals the continued growing importance of the strategic defence partnership between the UK and India as towards achieving the ambition set out in the India-U.K. 2030 Roadmap.
- Following the completion of its maintenance in India, the LRG will operate in the Indo-Pacific to conduct training, exercises, and wider engagement with allies and partners.
India- UK Defence Partnership
- In January, the U.K. launched Defence Partnership-India — a bespoke office designed to further defence collaboration between the two countries, which includes sending the U.K.’s LRG (South) to India for joint exercises and use of the Indian dockyard at Chennai for essential maintenance.
- The U.K. has also announced plans for the Carrier Strike Group 2025 to visit the Indo-Pacific, which includes the intent to operate and train with the Indian armed forces.
- The logistics-sharing agreement between the U.K. and India allows for the provision of logistics support, supplies and services between the U.K. and Indian armed forces for joint training, joint exercises, authorised port visits and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q8. In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) became the third Indian shipyard to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA) with the U.S Reason (R): The logistics-sharing agreement between the U.K. and India allows for the provision of logistics support, supplies and services between the U.K. and Indian armed forces. A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C) A is true but R is false. D) A is false but R is true. |
Q. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (UPSC Prelims 2017)
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (B) |
| Answer 8 B
Explanation
· The State-run shipbuilding facility in Kochi is the third shipyard in the country after Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA). So, Assertion is correct.
· The logistics-sharing agreement between the U.K. and India allows for the provision of logistics support, supplies and services between the U.K. and Indian armed forces for joint training, joint exercises, authorised port visits and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. So, Reason is correct.
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