Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (8-03-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Ecology and Environment: Man-Animal Conflicts |
| International: India at WTO Conference |
| Sweden Officially Joins NATO After Completing Its Accession Process |
| Science and Technology: Kerala Launched India’s First Government-Backed OTT Platform |
| Social Issues: International Women’s Day 2024 |
| National: NITI Aayog’s digital public infra platform |
Man-Animal Conflicts
Source: Indian Express
Context: : Kerala Declares Man-Animal Conflict a State-Specific Disaster
UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS- 3 (Conservation Man-animal conflicts)
Why in news
- Kerala’s recent declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster, marking the first such designation in India, was prompted by persistent fatalities from animal attacks, sparking public outcry, and is anticipated to prompt substantial alterations in the government’s approach to mitigating this issue.
Anticipated Shifts in Government Strategies
- Currently, the responsibility of managing man-animal conflict lies with the forest department, which operates under the Wild Life Protection Act.
- However, with the declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster, the onus to deal with it shifts to the state disaster management authority.
- This authority, empowered by the Disaster Management Act, will be able to take quicker and more decisive action.
- At the state level, the Chief Minister will serve as the ex officio chairman of the body, and various departments, including the forest department, will be stakeholders. In the districts, the district disaster management authority, headed by the district collector, will also play a crucial role.
- Once an issue is declared a state-specific disaster, the disaster management authority can take actions overriding all other norms, and district collectors can directly intervene in their capacity as the chairman of the district disaster body.
Why the Change
- The decision to declare man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster comes in the wake of mounting pressure to address the issue more effectively.
- Every time a life has been lost to man-animal conflict, there has been a growing demand to tranquilize, capture, or kill the animals responsible.
- Currently, the chief wildlife warden is the only authority to make decisions regarding wild animals causing havoc in human settlements.
- However, once the issue is under the disaster management authority, it can take actions overriding other norms, including those under the Wildlife Protection Act.
- As per section 71 of the Disaster Management Act, no court (except the Supreme Court or a High Court) shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of anything done by relevant authorities in pursuance of any power conferred by this Act.
- Section 72 of the Act states that the provisions of this Act will have an overriding effect on any other law during the specific period that a disaster has been declared.
Other State-Specific Disasters
- Kerala’s declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster follows similar moves in the past.
- In 2015, Odisha had declared snakebite a state-specific disaster, and in 2020, Kerala declared Covid as a state-specific disaster.
- Additionally, heat waves, sunburn, sunstroke, the phenomenon of soil piping, lightning, and coastal erosion have also been declared as state-specific disasters in previous years.
Government Measures
- The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: This act provides the legal framework for the activities, Prohibition of hunting, Protection and management of wildlife habitats, Establishment of protected areas etc.
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002: India is a part of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity. The provisions of the Biological Diversity Act are in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions in any other law relating to forests or wildlife.
- National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016): It focuses on strengthening and enhancing the protected area network, on the conservation of Endangered wildlife and their habitats, on controlling trade in wildlife products and on research, education, and training.
- Project Tiger: Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) launched in 1973. It provides havens for tigers in the country’s national parks.
- Project Elephant: It is a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in February 1992 for the protection of elephants, their habitats and corridors.
- Operation Thunderbird: Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, coordinated Operation in India to fight against wildlife crime.
- National Wildlife Action Plan 2017-2031 (NWAP): It has a dedicated chapter focused on managing HWC.
- It deals with the following significant points:
- Scientific Management of Wildlife Population
- Sustainable Land Use Practices
- Education and Awareness Programmes
- Encourage Community Participation
Conclusion
- The declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster in Kerala marks a significant shift in the approach to addressing this pressing issue.
- By empowering the state disaster management authority to take quicker and more decisive action, the government aims to mitigate the impact of such conflicts and protect the lives of its citizens.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. Kerala, after Karnataka, is the second state in India to make man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster. 2. By declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster, the onus to deal with it shifts to the state disaster management authority, instead of Forest department. 3. Odisha had declared snakebite a state-specific disaster in 2015. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only |
Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): (UPSC Prelims 2017)
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A.1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: B
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| Ans 1 D
Explanation · Statement 1 is incorrect because Kerala’s recent declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster, marking the first such designation in India, was prompted by persistent fatalities from animal attacks, sparking public outcry, and is anticipated to prompt substantial alterations in the government’s approach to mitigating this issue. · Currently, the responsibility of managing man-animal conflict lies with the Kerala Forest department, which operates under the Wild Life Protection Act. · However, with the declaration of man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster, the onus to deal with it shifts to the state disaster management authority. · This authority, empowered by the Disaster Management Act, will be able to take quicker and more decisive action. So, Statement 2 is correct. · In 2015, Odisha had declared snakebite a state-specific disaster, and in 2020, Kerala declared Covid as a state-specific disaster. So, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option D is correct answer. |
India at WTO Trade Conference
Source: Deccan Herald
Context: No major gains for India at WTO conference
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS Paper – 2 and 3 (International Organisation and Aid of Farmers)
Why in news
- India participated in the 13th WTO Ministerial Conference, held from February 26 to March 2, 2024 in Abu Dhabi.
India’s stand in Conference
- India has called for the restoration of the Appellate Body as a top priority in the reform process.
- India has decided to protect Indian farmers.
- India has successfully pushed food security issues and has not yielded any ground on protecting the interest of poor farmers and fishermen.
- India supports efforts to improve the working of the WTO.
- India’s key pillars like special and differential treatment for less developed and developing nations, equal voice and dispute settlement mechanism should be retained while undertaking reforms.
Major Activities and Outcomes
Agriculture Concerns
- Efforts to safeguard subsidies on public stockholding programs for food grains, crucial for India’s food security, managed to avoid disputes.
- However, these protections remain temporary, highlighting the lack of a permanent solution.
- The outdated subsidy calculation methods, based on 1986-1988 prices, disadvantage developing economies like India, while developed nations continue to provide substantial subsidies to their farming sectors.
Battle Over Subsidies
- The conference witnessed heated debates, especially regarding India’s farm subsidies, with the Cairns group of agricultural exporting countries expressing concerns about distorted global food prices and the impact on food security in other nations.
- Despite India’s efforts led by Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal, the peace clause protecting subsidies remained temporary, failing to secure a permanent provision.
Fisheries Sector
- Similar challenges persisted in the fisheries sector, where attempts to curb excessive subsidies from developed countries failed.
- However, India managed to protect the interests of its fishermen, albeit without significant progress in reducing global subsidies.
Investment Facilitation Proposal Blocked
- India succeeded in blocking a proposal, led by China, to include investment facilitation in trade-related discussions.
- This move, supported by other Global South nations, prevented the inclusion of non-trade issues in the WTO agenda, aligning with India’s stance against expanding the scope of WTO negotiations.
Call for Collective Action
- The outcome underscores the need for India to strengthen diplomatic efforts and build coalitions with developing economies to counter the aggressive stance of the Global North.
- Historical precedents, with past commerce ministers forming alliances to safeguard developing nations’ interests, highlight the importance of collective action in shaping the WTO’s agenda to protect the global poor.
Extension of Customs Duties Moratorium on E-commerce Trade
- As the World Trade Organization (WTO) gears up for the upcoming MC13, the extension of the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions, instituted since 1998, emerges as a contentious issue.
- This matter holds particular significance for India, alongside several other developing nations, who advocate for the cessation of the moratorium and present specific demands at MC13 to achieve this objective.
Divergent Perspectives
- While India and its allies stress the need to terminate the moratorium, developed nations advocate for its permanent adoption, promoting a duty-free flow of digital transmission.
- This ideological divide underscores the complex dynamics at play within the WTO regarding e-commerce trade regulations.
Trade Barriers and Non-Trade Issues
- India maintains a steadfast stance against the inclusion of non-trade issues such as labor and environment in WTO discussions.
- Asserting that these matters fall outside the purview of trade agreements, India underscores the importance of addressing them through dedicated multilateral forums like the United Nations.
- Moreover, India opposes trade barriers erected under the guise of sustainable development, citing examples such as the European Union’s carbon tax and deforestation regulation. These measures, according to India, should not impede international trade and must be scrutinized through appropriate channels.
Push for Inclusion of Women’s Economic Empowerment
- Amidst the negotiations, developed countries advocate for the incorporation of women’s economic empowerment issues into the WTO agenda.
- This proposal reflects broader efforts to address gender disparities within the realm of international trade and underscores the evolving nature of trade discussions at the WTO.
About WTO and its Formation
- The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) emerged in 1947 as a multilateral treaty among 23 nations post-World War II, aimed at fostering free trade.
- GATT facilitated this by regulating and reducing tariffs on traded goods while providing a platform for resolving trade disputes.
- The transition from GATT to the World Trade Organization (WTO) occurred during the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations, spanning from 1986 to 1994.
- On April 15, 1994, representatives from 123 nations signed the Marrakesh Agreement, marking the formal establishment of the WTO and concluding the Uruguay Round.
- The WTO’s inception expanded the purview of trade agreements beyond goods to encompass services, intellectual property, dispute resolution mechanisms, and trade policy reviews. Effective January 1, 1995, the WTO commenced its operations, supplanting GATT and ushering in a new era of global trade governance.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to World Trade Organisation (WTO):
1. The Dispute Settlement Mechanism of the WTO is responsible for resolving trade and bilateral defence disputes between member countries. 2. WTO was established in 1947 under Article 17 of the Understanding on Rules and Procedures Governing the Settlement of Disputes. 3. WTO’s headquarters is located in Geneva. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the (2015)
A. Food and Agriculture Organization B. United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change C. World Trade Organization D. United Nations Environment Programme
Answer: C |
| Answer 2– C
Explanation – · The Dispute Settlement Mechanism of the WTO is responsible for resolving trade disputes between member countries. It provides a forum for negotiations and mediation, ultimately issuing rulings to resolve conflicts and ensure compliance with WTO agreements. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · The WTO officially commenced operations on January 1, 1995, in accordance with the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, replacing the GATT (it was established in 1947 after World War II). So, statement 2 is incorrect. · WTO just below the Ministerial Conference that meets several times a year at the WTO’s headquarters in Geneva. So, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, the option C is correct answer. |
Sweden Officially Joins NATO After Completing Its Accession Process
Source: The Hindu
Context: India Urges IMF to Ensure Pakistan’s Loans Aren’t Used for Defense Expenses.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS Paper – 2 (Bilateral Groupings & Agreements Important International Institutions)
Why in News
- Sweden officially joined the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) , becoming the 32nd member of the alliance.
Reasons for Joining NATO
- Sweden’s decision to join NATO follows the 2022 invasion of Ukraine by Russia, which led to increased security concerns in Europe.
- This invasion prompted a dramatic rethink among Swedes, as they realized the potential threat posed by Russia’s actions.
Importance of Sweden for NATO
- Sweden’s accession to NATO is significant as it provides NATO with strategic advantages, particularly in terms of encircling the Baltic Sea (except the area under Russia) and leveraging the modern and experienced Swedish military for past NATO missions.
Process of Joining NATO
- The accession process involved several key steps, including accession talks, submission of letters of intent, and the signing and ratification of accession protocols by NATO countries with the consensus of all members.
About NATO
- Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of 32 countries from North America and Europe.
- Recently, Finland joined the alliance as 31st member and Sweden as 32nd
- NATO’s fundamental goal is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security by political and military means.
- It is a system of collective defence where independent member states agree for mutual defence in case of any attack by external party.
- Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one Ally is an attack against all.
- This article forms the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defense.
- Headquarters – Brussels, Belgium.
Who controls NATO
- The Military Committee, NATO’s highest military authority, is in charge of NATO’s Command Structure (NCS), which is made up of the Chiefs of Defence of all twenty-nine member countries.
- Allied Command Operations (ACO) and Allied Command Transformation (ACT) are the two strategic commands that make up the NCS (ACT).
About NATO Plus
- NATO Plus refers to a potential security arrangement involving NATO and the five treaty allies of the U.S. – Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea. This concept aims to enhance global defense cooperation and address the strategic competition against China.
India and NATO Plus
- In March 2023, US Permanent Representative to NATO quoted that the NATO alliance was open to more engagement and should India seek that.
- In May 2023, US recommended strengthening the ‘NATO-Plus’ framework by including India in the grouping.
- India’s External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar rejected this idea by saying that “NATO template does not apply to India”.
- India believes that it is capable of countering any Chinese aggression on its own.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):
1. Recently Sweden officially joined the NATO becoming the 31st member of the alliance. 2. NATO’s main headquarters are located in Mons, USA 3. Article 27 of NATO’s charter says that if one member is attacked, all others should come to its defense. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. None of the above.
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Q. With reference to North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
1.It is a military alliance established by Washington Treaty. 2.NATO has never invoked collective defence clause. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: A
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| Answer 3 D
Explanation · Sweden officially joined the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) becoming the 32nd member of the alliance. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · The NATO headquarters is the political and administrative center of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO). · After previous locations in London and Paris, it has been headquartered in Brussels since 1967. So, the statement 2 is incorrect. · Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization’s (NATO) founding treaty from 1949 states that an armed attack against one member is an attack against all. · So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Therefore option D is correct answer. |
Kerala Launched India’s First Government-Backed OTT Platform
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 2 (Tribunals Dispute Redressal Mechanisms Statutory Bodies Government Policies & Interventions)
Context: Kerala-owned OTT platform launched
Why in news
- Kerala’s Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan has officially launched Kerala’s OTT platform, CSpace, at Kairali Theatre, marking a significant milestone as it becomes India’s first government-backed OTT platform.
Key highlights
- The platform aims to deliver a unique blend of informative and entertaining content tailored for the masses.
- Cultural Affairs Minister Saji Cherian will preside over the launch, marking a significant milestone for the state’s foray into the digital entertainment space.
- CSpace: Managed by Kerala State Film Development Corporation (KSFDC)
- CSpace is managed by the Kerala State Film Development Corporation (KSFDC), a state-owned company entrusted with the promotion of Malayalam cinema and industry.
- The OTT platform will be released on behalf of the Department of Cultural Affairs of the Government of Kerala.
- KSFDC has constituted a curator panel of 60 members, including eminent cultural personalities from the state, for selecting and approving the content.
- Noted cultural personalities involved in the selection process include Benyamin, OV Usha, Santhosh Sivan, Shyamaprasad, Sunny Joseph, and Jeo Baby.
- Every content submitted to the platform will be evaluated by three curators from the panel for its artistic, cultural, and infotainment merit.
About OTT Platforms
- OTT stands for “over-the-top” and refers to a direct-to-consumer platform that delivers media content, such as movies, TV shows, and music, directly to viewers over the internet.
- OTT platforms bypass traditional broadcast, cable, and satellite television platforms.
- Examples of OTT platforms include Netflix, Disney+, Hulu, Prime Video, HBO Max, YouTube TV, Starz, and Sling TV.
- These platforms can be categorized into five main monetization models:
Membership
- AVOD (Advertising Video-On-Demand)
- TVOD (Transactional Video-On-Demand)
- SVOD (Subscription Video-On-Demand), and Hybrid (SVOD + TVOD)
- In 2022, the Central Government notified the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 to regulate OTT platforms.
About Information Technology Rules, 2021
- The Information Technology Rules, 2021 mandate social media platforms to exercise greater diligence with respect to the content on their platforms.
- The rules establish a soft-touch self-regulatory architecture with a Code of Ethics and a three-tier grievance redressal mechanism for OTT platforms.
- Additionally, the privacy policies of the social media platforms must ensure that users are educated about not circulating copyrighted material and anything that can be construed as defamatory, racially or ethnically objectionable, paedophilic, threatening the unity, integrity, defense, security, or sovereignty of India or friendly relations with foreign states, or violative of any contemporary law.
- In conclusion, the launch of CSpace marks a significant milestone for Kerala as it ventures into the digital entertainment space with India’s first government-backed OTT platform.
- This initiative is poised to provide a platform for showcasing content with artistic, cultural, and infotainment merit, thereby contributing to the promotion of Malayalam cinema and industry.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Recently KeralFlix OTT platform is officially launched by Kerala’s Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. 2. OTT is a “over-the-top” platform and refers to a direct-to-consumer platform. 3. The OTT Rules, 2021 mandate social media platforms to exercise greater diligence with respect to the content on their platforms. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 3, 4 and 5 D. 2 and 5
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Answer 4: B Explanation: · K-Digital OTT platform was officially launched by Kerala’s Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · OTT stands for “over-the-top” and refers to a direct-to-consumer platform that delivers media content over the internet, bypassing traditional distribution channels such as cable or satellite television. These platforms offer users the flexibility to access content anytime, anywhere, on various devices, without the need for a subscription to a traditional cable or satellite TV service. So, statement 2 is correct. · The Information Technology Rules, 2021 mandate social media platforms to exercise greater diligence with respect to the content on their platforms. These rules require platforms to implement measures for content moderation, grievance redressal, and compliance with Indian laws. So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Therefore option B is correct answer.
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International Women’s Day 2024
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 2 (Genders Equality and Government policies and Events)
Context: : International Women’s Day 2024: Celebrating Achievements and Advocating for Gender Equality
Why in news
- International Women’s Day (IWD) observed annually on March 8, is a global celebration that recognizes the social, economic, cultural, and political achievements of women.
Theme for 2024
- The theme designated by the United Nations for 2024 is “Invest in Women: Accelerate Progress’ with a focus on addressing economic disempowerment.
- The campaign theme for this year is ‘Inspire Inclusion’, emphasizing the significance of diversity and empowerment across all sectors of society.
- This campaign places a strong emphasis on recognizing the importance of diversity and empowerment in various spheres of society and underscores the pivotal role of inclusion in advancing gender equality.
Origin and Significance
- International Women’s Day has its origins in the early 20th century, stemming from the labor movements in North America and Europe.
- The first National Women’s Day was observed in the United States on February 28, 1909, organized by the Socialist Party of America to commemorate the 1908 garment workers’ strike in New York.
- The idea of International Women’s Day was proposed by Clara Zetkin at the International Women’s Conference in Copenhagen in 1910 and was unanimously approved, leading to the first observance in 1911 in several European countries, with over a million participants advocating for women’s rights.
- The significance of International Women’s Day lies in its ability to bring attention to issues such as gender equality, reproductive rights, and violence and abuse against women.
- It provides a platform for collective action and collaboration in advocating for women’s rights and empowerment.
- Despite the progress made, gender parity is still far from being achieved, with the World Economic Forum estimating that it will take over a century for gender equality to be attained.
Conclusion
- International Women’s Day is not only a day to celebrate the achievements of women but also a call to action for gender equality.
- It encourages reflection, advocacy, and action to continue breaking down barriers for women and girls around the globe.
- As Gloria Steinem, a world-renowned feminist, journalist, and activist, once said, “The story of women’s struggle for equality belongs to no single feminist nor to any one organization but to the collective efforts of all who care about human rights”.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to international women day 2024:
1. The theme designated by the United Nations for 2024 is “Invest in Women: Accelerate Progress”. 2. The idea of International Women’s Day was proposed by Clara Zetkin at the International Women’s Conference in Copenhagen in 1910. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (UPSC Prelims 2017)
A. World Economic Forum B. UN Human Rights Council C. UN Women D. World Health Organization Answer: A
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| Answer 5– C
Explanation · The theme designated by the United Nations for 2024 is “Invest in Women: Accelerate Progress” with a focus on addressing economic disempowerment. The campaign theme for this year is ‘Inspire Inclusion’, emphasizing the significance of diversity and empowerment across all sectors of society. So, statement 1 is correct. · The idea of International Women’s Day was proposed by Clara Zetkin at the International Women’s Conference in Copenhagen in 1910 and was unanimously approved, leading to the first observance in 1911 in several European countries, with over a million participants advocating for women’s rights. So, statement 2 is correct. · Therefore option C is correct answer.
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NITI Aayog’s digital public infra platform
Source: The Hindu
Context: The ‘NITI For States’, is a cross-sectoral knowledge platform designed to become a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Policy and Good Governance.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS 2 (Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies)
Why in news
- Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw launched government think tank NITI Aayog’s platform ‘NITI For States’, a digital public infrastructure for policy and governance.
Key highlights
- A multi-sectoral live repository of 7,500 best practices, 5,000 policy documents, over 900 datasets, 1,400 data profiles, and 350 NITI publications will be part of the new platform.
- The knowledge products on the platform span 10 sectors, including agriculture, education, energy, health, livelihoods and skilling, manufacturing, MSME, tourism, urban, water resources and WASH (water, sanitation and hygiene) across two cross-cutting themes — gender and climate change.
- The platform is an intuitive and user-friendly interface that allows users to easily navigate; and it is accessible through multiple devices including mobile phones.
- The platform will equip government officials with robust, contextually relevant, and actionable knowledge and insights, thereby enhancing the quality of their decision-making.
- It will also support district collectors and block-level functionaries by giving them access to innovative best practices across various states and Union Territories.
Viksit Bharat Strategy Room
- Vaishnaw, the Minister of Communication, Railways and Electronics & IT, also inaugurated the ‘Viksit Bharat Strategy Room’ at NITI Aayog.
- The ‘Viksit Bharat Strategy Room’ will enable visualization and engagement with insights, sharing of information and knowledge to enable effective in-person decision-making.
- The ‘Viksit Bharat Strategy Room’ is an interactive space where users will be able to visualise data, trends, best practices and policies in an immersive environment and make a holistic assessment of any problem statement.
- It also allows users to interact through voice-enabled AI, and connect to multiple stakeholders through video conferencing. It is designed to become a plug-and-play model to enable replication at state, district and block levels.
- Various government organizations have collaborated in this initiative by NITI Aayog. It includes iGOT (Integrated Government Online Training) Karmayogi — an online platform for skill training.
NITI Aayog
- The NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, and the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development, and fostering cooperative federalism and moving away from bargaining federalism through the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
- It was established in 2015, by the NDA government, to replace the Planning Commission which followed a top-down model.
- The NITI Aayog council comprises all the state Chief Ministers, along with the Chief Ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, Lieutenant Governors of all UTs, and a vice-chairman nominated by the Prime Minister.
- In addition, temporary members are selected from leading universities and research institutions.
- These members include a chief executive officer, four ex-official members, and three part-time members.
- Shri B.V.R. Subrahmanyamjoined as Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog on 25.02.2023.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. ‘NITI For States’ is a cross-sectoral knowledge platform designed to become a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Policy and Good Governance. B. The NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government. C. NITI Aayog was established in 2015, by the NDA government, to replace the Planning Commission which followed a top-down model. D. NITI for States platform will equip private sector officials with actionable knowledge and insights, thereby enhancing the quality of their decision-making. |
Q. Consider the following organization/bodies in India: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four Answer: (A)
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| Ans 6 D
Explanation
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