8th April 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (8-04-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

Andhra Pradesh: Release of water from NSRC in Prakasam district
IMA-A.P. releases ‘Health Manifesto’ for equal access to healthcare
Environment and Ecology: Rules for Green Credit Programme (GCP)
Science and Technology: Influenza A H5N1 detected in dairy cows in in the U.S.
New solar power rules boost production
International: World Central Kitchen in news
Physical Geography: Total solar eclipse
Economy: RBI’s MPC keeps the benchmark policy repo rate unchanged

 

 Release of water from NSRC in Prakasam district

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/special-teams-formed-to-oversee-release-of-water-from-nsrc-in-prakasam-district/article68036355.ece#:~:text=The%20teams%20comprising%20Water%20Resources,solely%20used%20as%20drinking%20water.

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Drainage system and drinking water crisis

Context: Water scarcity looming large in the Prakasam district.

Why in news

  • State officials have constituted special teams to tap the water which will be released from the Nagarjuna Sagar Right Canal (NSRC) from April 8, to tackle the drinking water crisis in Prakasam district

Key Highlights

  • The teams comprising Water Resources, Municipal, Rural Water Supply (RWS), Police, Revenue, Agriculture and Irrigation departments, will patrol the canal bunds to ensure that the water is not lifted or diverted for agriculture and is solely used as drinking water.
  • Officials will release 5 TMC of water from NSRC to fill the tanks for about 15 days, of which 2.5 TMC will be given to the Western Prakasam district.
  • Officers and staff deputed for inspecting the canal bunds, who have also been drafted for election duties, including nodal and sector officers, flying squad teams, polling officers, and assistant polling officers are directed to attend to the canal patrolling duties, said Prakasam District Collector A.S. Dinesh Kumar.
  • The Sub-Collector, Revenue Divisional Officer (RDO) and Mandal Revenue Officers (MROs) concerned have been instructed to form village-level teams comprising the Sarpanch, Panchayat Secretary, Village Revenue Officer (VRO), Engineering Assistant and Lascar in each team immediately.

Control Rooms

  • Control rooms will be opened, to function round-the-clock to ensure 100 per cent filling of the tanks.
  • The special officers, tahsildars and irrigation officers should take appropriate measures for the same, the Collector said in his orders issued recently.
  • Of the 952 minor tanks, notified tanks near the canals would be filled now and with the release of water, tanks located in Yerragondlapalem, Pullalacheruvu, Markapuram, Tripurantakam, Ongole, Kurichedu, Darsi, Cheemakurthi, Santanutalapadu and other mandals would also be filled, irrigation officials inform.

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

  • Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna River at Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border between Palnadu district in Andhra Pradesh and Nalgonda district in Telangana.
  • The dam provides irrigation water to the districts of Palnadu, Guntur, Nalgonda, Prakasam, Khammam, Krishna, and parts of West Godavari.
  • It is also a source of electricity generation for the national grid

The Nagarjuna Sagar canal

  • The Nagarjuna Sagar left canal supplies nearly 130 TMC of water for irrigation needs in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
  • This is a contour gravity canal with gradual downward gradient (≃ 1:10,000) along the water flow direction.
  • This canal can be used for transferring nearly 80 TMC Godavari river water into the Nagarjuna Sagar reservoir in addition to supplying the Godavari water under its entire command area.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Nagarjuna Sagar Dam:

1.       Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Kaveri River.

2.       It is a source of electricity generation for the national grid

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Answer 1– B

Explanation

·         Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna River at Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border between Palnadu district in Andhra Pradesh and Nalgonda district in Telangana. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

·         Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a source of electricity for the national grid. The dam has a power generation capacity of 815.6 MW, with eight units (one 110 MW and seven 100.8 MW). The first unit was commissioned in 1978, and the last in 1985. The dam also has a right canal unit with a power generation capacity of 90 MW, with three units of 30 MW each. So, statement 2 is correct.  Therefore, correct answer is option B.

 

 

 

IMA-A.P. releases ‘Health Manifesto’ for equal access to healthcare

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/ima-ap-releases-health-manifesto-for-equal-access-to-healthcare/article68037121.ece

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Public Health

Context: Minimum allocation for health, which at present varies from 1.1 to 1.6% of GDP, should be increased to 2.5%, demand IMA-A.P. members

Why in news

  • The Indian Medical Association (IMA)-Andhra Pradesh released a ‘health manifesto’ pointing out the gaps in the healthcare sector and the measures to be taken to bridge them to ensure equal healthcare for all.

World Health Day

  • World Health Day (WHD) is celebrated on 7 April every year to mark the anniversary of the founding of WHO in 1948.
  • On April 7, 1948 the constitution of the World Health Organisation came into being.
  • The year 2024 marks the 76th anniversary of WHO.
  • WHO has chosen ‘My Health, My Right’ as the theme of World Health Day 2024 which focuses on the fundamental human right: access to quality health care, education and information.
  • India was added to the WHO constitution on January 12, 1948.

Universal Health Care

  • In view of the forthcoming elections and also on the eve of World Health Day on April 7, the members of the IMA released the manifesto to bring the issues plaguing the healthcare system to the attention of the public.
  • The first in the manifesto is the Universal Health Care which, they said, should be an entitled provision in the basic health package of every citizen.
  • The government should not only provide appropriate medical care but also address all the health determinants, including drinking water and sanitation.
  • Despite numerous policy announcements prioritising health, the governments at the Centre and State levels have historically underfunded the public health sector, resulting in rising inequity in access to healthcare.
  • The IMA demanded that the minimum allocation for health, which at present varies from 1.1 to 1.6% of GDP, one of the lowest in the world, should be increased to 2.5%, they said.

Anti-Microbial Resistance

  • Highlighting that Anti-Microbial Resistance is an emerging threat in the communicable diseases, the IMA members said it has to be tackled with urgency.
  • The responsible use of antibiotics is a fundamental and effective strategy in containing AMR.

Revival of the Indian Medical Services

  • The members also advocated the revival of the Indian Medical Services, which was discontinued in 1948, to address the issue of paucity of professionalism in health management.
  • Referring to violence against doctors, the State IMA members said hospitals should be declared a safe zone and that they should be protected by a law.

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to World Health Organisation?

  1. World Health Day (WHD) is celebrated on 7 April every year on the founding day of the World Health Organisation (WHO).
  2. WHO has chosen ‘My Health, My Right’ as the theme of World Health Day 2024
  3. India was added to WHO on April 7, 1948.
  4. All are correct.

 

 

Answer 2– C

Explanation

  • On April 7, 1948 the constitution of the World Health Organisation came into being.
  • World Health Day (WHD) is celebrated on 7 April every year to mark the anniversary of the founding of WHO in 1948. So, statement A is correct.
  • The year 2024 marks the 76th anniversary of WHO.
  • WHO has chosen ‘My Health, My Right’ as the theme of World Health Day 2024 which focuses on the fundamental human right: access to quality health care, education and information. So, statement B is correct.
  • India was added to the WHO constitution on January 12, 1948. So, statement C is incorrect. Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

Rules for Green Credit Programme (GCP)

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/states-offer-up-thousands-of-hectares-of-degraded-forest-land-for-green-credits/article68036826.ece#:~:text=Weeks%20after%20the%20Union%20Environment,earn%20%E2%80%93%20and%20potentially%20trade%20%E2%80%93%20green

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Ecology and Environment)

Context: Under the Green Credit Programme (GCP), registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland.

Why in news

  • After the Union Environment Ministry announced the rules for its Green Credit Programme (GCP), ten States have identified parcels of degraded forest land, that will be available for individuals, groups, public and private sector units to earn – and potentially trade – green credits.

Origin

  • Green Credit Initiative was launched by Hon’ble Indian Prime Minister on the side-lines of COP 28.
  • It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement.
  • The Green Credit Rules, 2023, has been notified on 12th October 2023 under the Environment Protection Act 1986.
  • The GCP’s governance framework is supported by an inter-ministerial Steering Committee and The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) serves as the GCP Administrator, responsible for program implementation, management, monitoring, and operation.

Key highlights

  • Under the Green Credit Programme (GCP), registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland.
  • The actual afforestation will be carried out by State Forest departments.
  • Two years after planting — and following an evaluation by the International Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body of the Environment Ministry — each planted tree could be worth one ‘green credit’.
  • These green credits can then be used by companies which have diverted forest land for non-forest purposes and razed thousands of trees to offset some of their obligations under India’s compensatory afforestation laws.

Compensatory afforestation

  • The laws oblige any industry or institution that is given permission to raze forest and use that land for non-forestry purposes, to provide an equivalent amount of non-forest land to forest authorities and pay them to afforest that land.
  • The condition is that such land be as close as possible to the forest tracts which have been razed.
  • However, if such land is unavailable, twice the amount of ‘degraded’ forest land (usually land with very low tree density but which is officially marked as forest) may also be made available for compensatory afforestation.
  • Additionally, companies must also compensate for the value of the forest ecosystem, called the ‘net present value’, which is lost due to the diversion of the forest land.
  • In several States, including Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh where large tracts have been historically diverted for mining, getting contiguous non-forest land for compensatory afforestation is challenging.
  • In fact, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund, whose corpus comes from the environmental compensation money paid by companies and which is to be used by States for afforestation, has thousands of crores of unspent money, simply because suitable land for regenerating forests, revenue or degraded, is unavailable.

 

Creating new land banks

  • Green credits for afforestation are a way to incentivise private investments in tree plantation.
  • However, assigning a monetary value to such credits is problematic.
  • Linking green credits to compensatory afforestation activities is even trickier as the programme in essence facilitates the creation of land banks that could be easily diverted to commercial entities and contribute to even greater levels of diversion of forest land.
  • Compensatory forestation laws are essentially meant to disincentivise the appropriation of forest land for commercial ends, but the green credit scheme can potentially work towards the opposite end.

Way forward

  • Green Credit Programme (GCP) scheme is currently in the ‘pilot stage’; so far, the applicants have been State and Central government entities.
  • If the rules are read comprehensively, the green credit scheme will not absolve institutions of their responsibility to provide suitable land for compensation.
  • Compensatory afforestation is not the only purpose of this scheme and the scheme is meant to encourage corporate social responsibility actions as well as regeneration.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the Following statements with regards to Green Credits Programme (GCP):

1.       GCP was launched by UN Secretary General in 2024.

2.       Green credits for afforestation are a way to incentivise private investments in tree plantation.

3.       Corpus of Compensatory Afforestation Fund, comes from the environmental compensation money paid by companies

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. None of the above

 

Q. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

 

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’.
  2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer: C

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 3 B

Explanation

·         Green Credit Initiative (GCP) was launched by Hon’ble Indian Prime Minister on the side-lines of COP 28. GCP was notified on 13th October, 2023.

·         It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

·         Under the Green Credit Programme (GCP), registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland. The actual afforestation will be carried out by State Forest departments. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         The laws oblige any industry or institution that is given permission to raze forest and use that land for non-forestry purposes, to provide an equivalent amount of non-forest land to forest authorities and pay them to afforest that land.

·         Compensatory Afforestation Fund, whose corpus comes from the environmental compensation money paid by companies and which is to be used by States for afforestation, has thousands of crores of unspent money, simply because suitable land for regenerating forests, revenue or degraded, is unavailable. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

 

 Influenza A H5N1 detected in dairy cows in in the U.S. 

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/influenza-a-h5n1-detected-in-dairy-cows-in-six-states-in-the-us/article68032556.ece#:~:text=To%20date%2C%20H5N1%20has%20been,tested%20positive%20for%20the%20virus

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (science & technology; Public Health)

Context: Avian influenza (bird flu) is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects birds. 

Why in news

  • In late March 2024, a multistate outbreak of H5N1 in dairy cows was detected in the U.S.

About Avian Influenza

  • Top of Form
  • An emerging new lineage 2.3.4.4b of avian influenza has been spreading across the globe since late 2020, carried by migratory birds following specific routes.
  • This panzootic has a significant effect on the avian population with disastrous consequences to the ecology and significant economic loss affecting poultry across the world.
  • In rare instances, the virus can infect mammals from birds causing spillovers, and in recent years, several such instances of spillovers spanning over 200 species have been noted, the most recent being polar bears in Antarctica.
  • Close contact with infected animals could mean the virus could spill over infecting humans and this comes with a significantly large fatality rate.

 

Recent outbreak

  • Top of Form
  • In late March 2024, a multistate outbreak of H5N1 in dairy cows was detected in the U.S.
  • In what started as a mystery disease affecting dairy herds in Texas, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) detected the highly pathogenic strain of the virus in herds across the states of Texas and Kansas.
  • The affected animals displayed symptoms including loss of appetite, low-grade fever, and reduced lactation.
  • This marked the first time H5N1 had been detected in cattle, raising concerns about potential transmission routes and the broader impact on the dairy and meat industry.
  • To date, H5N1 has been detected in over 12 herds from six states ¬— Texas, Kansas, Michigan, New Mexico, Idaho and Ohio.

 

Spread in US

  • In Texas, other animals in proximity to the affected farms ­— wild birds and cats ­— also showed signs of illness and have tested positive for the virus.
  • The exact extent of the spread of H5N1 in cows has not yet been ascertained since cattle are not routinely tested for avian influenza and the symptoms have been relatively mild, leaving possibilities that there may be other undetected infected herds.
  • The initial detections in late March in Texas, Kansas, and Michigan have yet to show a definitive pattern of transmission.
  • Given the pace of the spread of infection across herds, the transmission of the virus within cattle has not yet been ruled out.
  • Investigations are ongoing to determine the exact source of the spread to cows.
  • Subsequently, in April 2024, a human infection of H5N1 was reported from Texas.
  • The infected individual reportedly had contact with cows presumed to be infected with the virus.
  • Fortunately, the patient had mild illness, with symptoms like eye redness, and has recovered after being treated with antivirals.

 

Other countries

  • Human H5N1 infections are rare but have been sporadically reported in several countries.
  • H5N1 infections in humans can range from mild symptoms of eye infections to severe illness including pneumonia and death.
  • Since 2003, more than 800 sporadic human H5N1 cases have been reported to the World Health Organization from over 20 countries, with a case-fatality ratio of 53%.
  • In January 2024, concerns about H5N1 avian influenza rose in Southeast Asia when Cambodia reported two human cases, with tragically one resulting in death.
  • A fatal case of H5N1 infection was also recently reported from Vietnam.

Genomic insights

  • Researchers sequenced the H5N1 virus from both the infected Texas cows and the human case and found that both viruses belonged to clade 2.3.4.4b of H5N1, with the human strain having one minor mutation potentially linked to adaptation in mammals.
  • However, this change has not led to increased transmissibility among humans, and the overall public health risk remains low according to the CDC.
  • Since late 2021, H5N1 clade 2.3.4.4b has circulated in wild birds in the U.S., causing outbreaks in poultry and sporadic infections in mammals, including the recent Texas case.

Conclusion

  • In summary, while the current risk of H5N1 transmission to humans is considered low, a combined approach of disease surveillance and monitoring the virus’s genetic makeup (genomic surveillance) will be crucial for managing the outbreak.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to H5N1 infection:

1.       There is no outbreak of Avian Influenza in US till date as it has advanced surveillance infrastructure.

2.       H5N1 virus can infect cattle and humans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      Only 1

B.      Only 2

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (UPSC Prelims 2015)

 

A. AIDS

B. Bird flu

C. Dengue

D. Swine flu

 

Answer: D

 

Answer 4– B

Explanation –

  • In late March 2024, a multistate outbreak of H5N1 in dairy cows was detected in the U.S. In what started as a mystery disease affecting dairy herds in Texas, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) detected the highly pathogenic strain of the virus in herds across the states of Texas and Kansas.  Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

·         H5N1 had been detected in cattle herds in US, raising concerns about potential transmission routes and the broader impact on the dairy and meat industry. To date, H5N1 has been detected in over 12 herds from six states ¬— Texas, Kansas, Michigan, New Mexico, Idaho and Ohio.

·         Human H5N1 infections are rare but have been sporadically reported in several countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

New solar power rules boost production

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/will-new-solar-power-rules-boost-production-explained/article68037190.ece#:~:text=It%20is%20estimated%20that%20nearly,significant%20rise%20in%20manufacturing%20capacity.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Solar technology)

Context: The Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2019 brought by government

Why in news

  • To incentivise India’s solar module manufacturing industry, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has brought into effect from April 1 an executive order.

Key Highlights

  • The Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2019 was first issued by the MNRE in 2019
  • Order requires makers of solar modules to voluntarily submit to an inspection of their manufacturing facilities by the National Institute of Solar Energy, a Ministry-affiliated body.

Why need of rules?

  • Being on the list as an ‘approved’ manufacturing facility certifies a company as a legitimate manufacturer of solar panels and not a mere importer or assembler.
  • This became necessary because India’s solar industry, its claim of indigenousness notwithstanding, is heavily reliant on imports of cheaper and comparable-quality solar modules from China.
  • Despite being among the top manufacturers in the world and a commitment to scale solar installation four-fold by 2030, local production of these cells and modules is much below demand.
  • India also has limited capacity to make the raw material of a cell — ingots, wafers — and is dependent on imported cells.

Why is India reliant on imports?

  • The creation of such a list was also aimed at restricting imports from China, which controls nearly 80% of the global supply, with the downturn in diplomatic relations between the countries also being a factor.
  • India has ambitious plans of sourcing about 500 GW, nearly half its requirement of electricity, from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
  • This would mean at least 280 GW from solar power by that year or at least 40 GW of solar capacity being annually added until 2030.
  • In the last five years, this has barely crossed 13 GW though the government has claimed that COVID-19 affected this trajectory.
  • The difficulty is that meeting the targets require many more solar panels and component cells than India’s domestic industry can supply.

Advantages

  • The major advantage of being on the list is eligibility to compete for tenders issued by the government for its flagship solar energy programmes.
  • This includes among others the recently announced PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana.
  • The scheme envisages subsidising rooftop solar installations for nearly one crore households in the country involving an estimated subsidy of ₹75,000 crore.
  • However, only domestic manufacturers, certified as part of the Approved Models and Manufacturers (AMM) list, would be eligible.
  • There is also another scheme called the PM KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyaan) that aims to provide solar pumpsets and rural electrification.
  • For manufacturers to be eligible to provide components under this scheme, they have to be certified as genuine local manufacturers.
  • The government also has a ₹24,000 crore scheme, called the Production Linked Incentive Scheme, that is targeted at incentivising domestic manufacture of solar panels and their components.
  • Eligibility for this scheme too requires one to be a bona fide local manufacturer.
  • So far, 14 major companies have become eligible for incentives to manufacture solar modules worth 48 GW.
  • However, these restrictions apply only to fresh projects and plants and facilities commissioned before March 2024 can rely on imported modules.

India’s manufacturing capacity

  • 2023 was a fortunate year for Indians in the solar business. China which supplies over 80% of solar components globally saw a curb in orders from the U.S. on the grounds that the former relied on “forced labour” by Uiyghur Muslims in the Xinjiang province.
  • Europe too scaled back imports from China and a beneficiary of this was India which exported nearly $1 billion worth of modules in six months of 2023-24.
  • However, reports suggest that the U.S. might roll back duties on China and this could again mean uncertainty for the future of Indian exports.
  • It is estimated that nearly half of India’s solar modules are imported from China and the demand-supply mismatch is expected to persist.

Conclusion

  • While the list of certified manufacturers on the AMM list has grown to 82 according to the MNRE, there is yet no list of such manufacturers of solar cells, implying that India is still far away from achieving a comfortable degree of self-reliance.
  • The government, however, has claimed that beginning this year, there will be a significant rise in manufacturing capacity.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following pairs:

 

  Scheme Ministries
1 PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana Ministry of Power
2 PM KUSUM Ministry of Women and Child Welfare
3 PM-Daksh Scheme Ministry of Culture

 

How many of the above pairs are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None of the above

 

Q. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 and 3 only

B.      2 only

C.      2 and 3 only

D.      1, 2 and 3

Ans- C

 

Answer 5 D

Explanation

  • The Ministry of Power is responsible for energy efficiency initiatives, while the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)promotes renewable energy. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is implementing PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana programme.
  • The scheme envisages subsidising rooftop solar installations for nearly one crore households in the country involving an estimated subsidy of ₹75,000 crore. Hence pair 1 is incorrect.
  • PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) Scheme is aimed at ensuring energy security for farmers in India, along with honouring India’s commitment to increase the share of installed capacity of electric power from non-fossil-fuel sources to 40% by 2030 as part of Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs). It is implemented by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
  • The scheme “Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH)” was introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment with the objective of economic empowerment/ upliftment through training of marginalized target groups: Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-Notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs), Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Safai Karamcharis (Sanitation workers) including Waste Pickers. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.

 

 

World Central Kitchen in news

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/world-central-kitchen-the-charity-that-israel-bombed-in-gaza/article68037426.ece#:~:text=On%20April%202%2C%20seven%20aid,%2C%20Polish%20and%20US%2DCanadian.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS 2 ( International Aid Agencies )

Context: Attack World Central Kitchen in Gaza strip has triggered sharp responses from world powers

Why in news

  • Seven workers of non-profit aid group, World Central Kitchen, operating in Gaza, were killed in Israeli strikes.

Key highlights

  • Seven workers from the relief group World Central Kitchen (WCK) were killed in central Gaza in a “targeted attack” by Israeli forces that has drawn global condemnation and forced the charity to suspend operations in the region.
  • WCK said its team members came from Australia, Palestine, Poland and the United Kingdom. One was a dual citizen of the United States and Canada.
  • Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu described the air strike as “unintended” and “tragic”.

What is WCK?

  • WCK is a United States-based nonprofit that focuses on feeding people during conflicts and major disasters across the world, often as first responders.
  • It was founded in 2010 by Spanish-American Michelin-starred chef Jose Andres and his wife Patricia Fernandez de la Cruz.

International Recognition of WCK

  • Andres has won several humanitarian awards for his work, including the National Humanities Medal awarded by then-US President Barack Obama in 2015.
  • Mr. Andres and his U.S.-based charity were nominated for the Nobel Prize by Democrats.
  • He became a naturalised U.S. citizen during Barack Obama’s presidency and is currently a co-chair of President Biden’s Council on Sports, Fitness and Nutrition.
  • WCK is funded mainly through contributions and grants.
  • In 2021, Amazon founder Jeff Bezos gave Andres $100m.
  • In 2022, WCK reported more than $500m in contributions and grants.

Working of WCK

  • The group focuses on getting hot meals to people in conflicts and crises such as earthquakes, hurricanes and climate change
  • It works primarily with local chefs, as well as building food systems, training cooks and supporting farmers.

Important Works

  • After the Haiti earthquake, it expanded to working around the world, including in the US, Latin America and Europe, and says it has served 350 million meals since it started operations.
  • It has delivered food for communities hit by natural disasters, refugees at the US border, healthcare workers during the COVID-19 pandemic, and people caught up in conflict in Ukraine and Gaza.
  • The charity was on the ground after Hurricane Harvey hit the US city of Houston in 2017, and a month later after Hurricane Maria ripped through Puerto Rico.
  • After Russia invaded Ukraine in 2022, WCK served millions of meals to refugees, starting from people fleeing across the Polish border.
  • Founder Andres, alongside chefs from neighbouring countries including Romania, Hungary and Moldova, prepared the meals.
  • This year, WCK responded to the wildfires in Chile in February, as well as the Japan earthquake in January that killed more than 160 people.
  • It has worked in the Dominican Republic, Nicaragua, Zambia, Peru, Cuba, Uganda, The Bahamas and Cambodia.

WCK in Gaza

  • WCK was already working with local chefs to deliver food in Rafah, in southern Gaza, where some 1.5 million displaced Palestinians are sheltering.
  • The team also responded to people affected by the spiralling crisis on the Israel-Lebanon border, as well as in Israel.
  • The charity says it delivered 32 million meals in Gaza by March.
  • In early March, WCK provided 200 tonnes of flour, rice and other food aid to the Spanish nonprofit Open Arms whose ship tested a maritime supply route for the first time from Cyprus to Gaza.
  • A second ship left Cyprus, carrying 332 tonnes of food sourced by WCK.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): World Central Kitchen (WCK) is a United States-based nonprofit that focuses on feeding people during conflicts and major disasters.

Reason (R): World Central Kitchen (WCK) have been awarded Nobel Peace Prize for their humanitarian help.

A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

Q. Amnesty International is (UPSC Prelims 2015)

A) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars

B) a global Human Rights Movement

C) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people

D) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions

Answer: (B)

 

Answer 6 C

Explanation

  • World Central Kitchen (WCK) is a United States-based nonprofit that focuses on feeding people during conflicts and major disasters across the world, often as first responders.
  • It was founded in 2010 by Spanish-American Michelin-starred chef Jose Andres and his wife Patricia Fernandez de la Cruz. So, Assertion is correct.
  • Jose Andres has won several humanitarian awards for his work, including the National Humanities Medal awarded by then-US President Barack Obama in 2015.
  • Mr. Andres and his U.S.-based charity were nominated for the Nobel Prize by Democrats. But they have not won the Nobel Prize till yet. So, Reason is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

Total solar eclipse

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/total-solar-eclipse-rare-9255264/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 1 (Physical Geography), GS – 3 (Science and Technology)

Context : Total solar eclipses only happen about once every 18 months or so

Why in news

  • On April 8, a total solar eclipse will cross North America, passing over Mexico, the United States, and Canada.

What is a solar eclipse?

  • According to Royal Museums Greenwich, once a place on Earth witnesses a total solar eclipse, it will be about 400 years before that part sees the next one.
  • A solar eclipse takes place when the Moon moves in the middle of Earth and the Sun. The Moon blocks the light of the Sun, either fully or partially, which casts a huge shadow on some parts of the world.
  • There are four different types of solar eclipses, including total solar eclipse, annual solar eclipse, partial solar eclipse, and hybrid solar eclipse.
  • When the Moon blocks the Sun entirely, the areas in the centre of the Moon’s shadow at the time witness a total solar eclipse.
  • The sky darkens and people who are in the path of a total solar eclipse can get a glimpse of the Sun’s corona — the outer atmosphere — which is usually not visible due to the bright face of the Sun.
  • When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.
  • In this scenario, the Moon covers the Sun in such a way that only the periphery of the Sun remains visible — looking like a ring of fire.

Other Eclipses

  • A partial solar eclipse takes place when the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape.
  • During both partial and annular eclipses, the regions outside the area covered by the Moon’s umbra — the middle and the darkest part of the lunar shadow — will see a partial solar eclipse.
  • Partial solar eclipse is the most common type of solar eclipse.
  • A hybrid solar eclipse — the rarest type of solar eclipse — is witnessed when an eclipse shifts between annular and total as the shadow of the Moon moves across the globe.
  • In this case, some parts of the world see a total solar eclipse, while others observe an annular solar eclipse.

Frequency of solar eclipse

  • A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon — when the Moon and Sun are aligned on the same side of Earth.
  • A new moon occurs about 29.5 days because that is how long it takes the Moon to orbit Earth.
  • This, however, does not mean that a solar eclipse happens every month.
  • It takes place only between two to five times annually.
  • It is because the Moon does not orbit Earth in the same plane as the Earth orbits the Sun.
  • In fact, the Moon is tilted by about five degrees with respect to Earth.
  • As a result, most of the time when the Moon is in between the Sun and Earth, its shadow is either too high or too low to fall on the Earth.

Why is a total solar eclipse so rare?

  • While there can be between two and five solar eclipses every year, total eclipses only happen about once every 18 months or so.
  • As mentioned before, a particular spot on Earth witnesses a total solar eclipse only once in 400 years.
  • This is because a total eclipse is only visible if one is standing in the umbra — the other part of the shadow is called the penumbra, which is not as dark as the umbra.
  • The umbral shadow is very small, covering only a small part of Earth.
  •  In fact, the entire path of the umbral shadow during a solar eclipse will only cover less than one per cent of the globe.
  • This is why only very few people will get to see a total eclipse at a time.
  • Moreover, about 70 per cent of the globe is underwater and half of the land is considered uninhabited.
  • That’s why, it is quite rare when a total solar eclipse happens and a lot of people get to see it.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements with regards to Solar Eclipse:

1. A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon

2. A solar eclipse happens every month.

3. Partial solar eclipse is the rarest type of solar eclipse.

4. When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 4

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4

 

Q. Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due to: (UPSC Prelims 2013)

A. the earth’s rotation on its axis

B. the earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner

C. latitudinal position of the place

D. revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

 

Answer D

 

 

Answer 7– A

Explanation

  • A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon — when the Moon and Sun are aligned on the same side of Earth.
  • A new moon occurs about 29.5 days because that is how long it takes the Moon to orbit Earth. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • The orbit of the moon is tilted relative to the orbit of the Earth around the sun, so the moon often passes below or above Earth. At those times, it does not cross the line between the sun and the Earth, and therefore does not create a solar eclipse. There are just two to five times a year in the Earth’s orbit when there is a possibility of a total solar eclipse. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • A partial solar eclipse takes place when the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape.
  • During both partial and annular eclipses, the regions outside the area covered by the Moon’s umbra — the middle and the darkest part of the lunar shadow — will see a partial solar eclipse.
  • Partial solar eclipse is the most common type of solar eclipse, whereas hybrid solar eclipse is the rarest type of solar eclipse. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.

·         In this scenario, the Moon covers the Sun in such a way that only the periphery of the Sun remains visible — looking like a ring of fire. So, statement 4 is correct.

 

 

RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) keeps the benchmark policy repo rate unchanged

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/wayward-elephant-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-rbis-rate-decision/article68039433.ece#:~:text=Price%20stability%20must%20remain%20non%2Dnegotiable&text=The%20RBI’s%20Monetary%20Policy%20Committee,target%20on%20a%20durable%20basis. UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Banking sector, Reserve Bank of India)

Context : Headline inflation and food price inflation have remained stubbornly unpredictable.

Why in news

  • The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has opted to keep the benchmark policy repo rate unchanged at 6.5% for a seventh consecutive.

Key Highlights

  • The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), led by Governor Shaktikanta Das, has decided to maintain the status quo on both policy rate and stance for the seventh consecutive time.
  • This decision is driven by the central bank’s commitment to ensuring last-mile disinflation, with RBI Governor indicating that there is no need to start reducing interest rates until inflation reaches the target of 4 per cent.
  • The resolutions on rate and stance were supported by five members, with external member Jayanth Varma voting for a rate cut of 25 basis points and a change in the stance to neutral from the withdrawal of accommodation.
  • The six-member MPC headed by Governor Das also decided to maintain the policy stance at ‘withdrawal of accommodation’.
  • The RBI has projected India’s real GDP growth rate for FY25 at 7%. CPI inflation for FY25 is estimated at 4.5%.

 

Policy Measures:

  • Repo rate kept – unchanged at 6.5%. Repo Rate is the interest rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to commercial banks.
  • Policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’ maintained.
  • An accommodative stance means the central bank is prepared to expand the money supply to boost economic growth.
  • Withdrawal of accommodation will mean reducing the money supply in the system which will rein in inflation further.
  • Monetary Policy Stances are namely Dovish, Hawkish, and Accommodative & Neutral.
  • GDP growth forecast for FY25 at 7%. The quarterly projections are – Q1 at 7.1%; Q2 at 6.9%; Q3 at 7% and Q4 at 7%.
  • CPI inflation forecast for FY25 at 4.5%.
  • Detailed inflation forecast: Q1 at 4.9%; Q2 at 3.8%; Q3 at 4.6% and Q4 at 4.5%

 

Non-policy measures:

  • Scheme for trading of sovereign green bonds at IFSC to be announced
  • Introduction of a mobile app to access RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme for participation in GSec market
  • Draft circular for LCR framework for banks to be issued shortly
  • Dealing in rupee interest rate derivate products for all small finance banks
  • Enabling UPI for Cash Deposit Facility
  • UPI access for Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) through third-party applications
  • Distribution of CBDCs through Non-bank Payment System Operators.

 

RBI widens door for foreign participation in green bond

  • Foreign investors operating within the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) can now invest in Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs).
  • This decision unlocks a new avenue for financing eco-friendly projects in the country.
  • Based on an announcement in the Union Budget for 2022-23, the government issued Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) in January 2023.
  • Subsequently, SGrBs were issued as part of the government borrowing calendar in 2023-24.

 

Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs)

  • The International Capital Market Association (ICMA) defines a green bond as explicitly used to finance or refinance eligible green projects, resulting in environmental benefits.
  • Previously, only Indian investors could buy SGrBs.
  • Now, with foreign investors in the IFSC on board, the pool of potential investors significantly expands.
  • This translates to potentially more funds available for India’s green projects.
  • The government had set a target of raising ₹20,000 crore via the issuance of SGrBs in FY24, and it plans to borrow ₹12,000 crore through the sale of the bonds in the first six months of FY25.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q8. In the recently held Monetary Policy Committee meet led by RBI Governor, which of the following policy stances has been taken by the committee?

1. Hawkish

2. Withdrawal of Accommodation

3. Neutral

4. Calibrated tightening

Code:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. Only 4

D. Only 3

 

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy

Committee (MPC)? (UPSC Prelims 2017)

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.

2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.

3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer A

 

 

Answer 8– B

Explanation

·         Policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’ has been maintained by RBI Governor led MPC.

·         Prominent Monetary Policy Stances are namely- Hawkish, Accommodative, Neutral and Calibrated tightening.

·         An accommodative stance means the central bank is prepared to expand the money supply to boost economic growth.

·         Withdrawal of accommodation will mean reducing the money supply in the system which will rein in inflation further.

·         A ‘neutral stance’ suggests that the central bank can either cut rate or increase rate. This stance is typically adopted when the policy priority is equal on both inflation and growth. During neutral policy, the central bank doesn’t commit to hike rates or cut.

·         A hawkish stance indicates that the central bank’s top priority is to keep the inflation low. During such a phase, the central bank is willing to hike interest rates to curb money supply and thus reduce the demand.

·         A hawkish policy also indicates tight monetary policy. A rate cut is nearly certain during such a period.

·         Calibrated tightening means during the current rate cycle, a cut in the repo rate is off the table. But, the rate hike will happen in a calibrated manner. This means the central bank may not go for a rate increase in every policy meeting but the overall policy stance is tilted towards a rate hike.

 

 

 

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