29th March 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (29-03-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

International: China’s Pledge to Develop Strategic Infrastructure in Sri Lanka
Science and Technology: H5N1 Bird Flu: A Global Threat to Birds and Mammals
Skyroot successfully test fires Stage-2 of Vikram 1 space launch vehicle
National: Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi Sworn in as Lokpal’s Judicial Member
Internal Security: Centre extends AFSPA in three districts, three police stations of Arunachal Pradesh for six months
Economy: Pioneer of Behavioral Economics, Daniel Kahneman
Art and Culture: Kerala Kalamandalam Opens Doors for Boys to Learn Mohiniyattam

 

 

China’s Pledge to Develop Strategic Infrastructure in Sri Lanka

Source: The Hindu

Context: China’s increasing footprints in the South Asian region is detrimental to India’s strategic hold in Sri Lanka.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS – 2 (India and its Neighbourhood Bilateral Groupings & Agreements Regional Groupings Effect of Policies & Politics of Countries on India’s Interests)

Why in news

  • Sri Lanka’s Prime Minister, Dinesh Gunawardena, announced China has committed to developing the island nation’s strategic deep-sea port and the capital’s airport following discussions with his Chinese counterpart in Beijing.

Key highlights

  • Chinese Assistance and Debt Restructuring: China, being Sri Lanka’s largest bilateral creditor, has pledged to “assist” in the restructuring of Sri Lanka’s external debt, a crucial requirement for maintaining a $2.9 billion IMF bailout.
  • Debt Restructuring Position: While Beijing’s stance on debt restructuring has not been publicly disclosed, Sri Lankan officials have indicated that China may be unwilling to accept a reduction in its loans but could consider extending the loan tenure and adjusting interest rates.
  • Infrastructure Development: Premier Li Qiang assured continuous assistance in Sri Lanka’s debt restructuring process and offered support for the development of Colombo International Airport and Hambantota port, with specific details yet to be revealed.
  • Geopolitical Implications: The development of Hambantota port, previously leased to a Chinese state-owned company for 99 years, has raised concerns from regional powers like India and the U.S. regarding potential implications for naval dominance in the Indian Ocean.

China’s Debt Trap Diplomacy

  • In a push to gain rapid political and economic ascendency across the globe, China dispenses billions of dollars in the form of concessional loans to developing countries, mostly for their large-scale infrastructure projects.
  • These developing nations, which are primarily low- or middle-income countries, are unable to keep up with the repayments, and China then gets a chance to demand concessions or advantages in exchange for debt relief.
  • China views Sri Lanka as a key player in its ambitious Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
  • Massive debt incurred towards China to build the strategic Hambantota Port has been cited by experts as an example of the” debt-trap diplomacy” being pursued by China.
  • After Sri Lanka defaulted the loan for the Hambantota Port, Colombo in 2017 was forced to lease out the port to a Chinese company on a 99-year lease.

China’s Pursuit in the Indian Ocean

  • China enjoys friendlier waters in South Asia and the Indian Ocean than it does in Southeast Asia and the Pacific.
  • China faces opposition from Taiwan, territorial disputes in the South China Sea and East Asia, and myriad frictions with the US and Australia.
  • Shifting Interests of Smaller Nations: Sri Lanka’s economic crisis may further push it to align its policies with China’s interests.

Counter initiatives taken by India in the Indo-Pacific region

  • Hosting HACGAM: India stands for open & rule-based maritime borders in the Indo-Pacific during 18th Heads of Asian Coast Guard Agencies Meeting (HACGAM) in New Delhi on October 15, 2022.
  • SAGAR initiative: SAGAR provides a mechanism for India to expand strategic partnerships with other Indian ocean region littorals in Asia and Africa.
  • Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD): Being a Track 1.5 event that aims to encourage discussions on public policy, the IPRD endeavors for a balanced representation of government and non-government agencies and institutions.
  • Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI): Pillars of cooperation with other countries include Maritime Security, Maritime Ecology, Maritime Resources, Capacity Building and Resource Sharing, Disaster Risk Reduction and Management, Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation, Trade, Connectivity, and Maritime Transport.
  • QUAD: India is a member of the Quadrilateral security dialogue promoting regional security and economic cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
  • Indo-Pacific Division in MEA: India has set up an Indo-Pacific division in the Ministry of External Affairs. The division will cooperate with all the matters related to the Indo-Pacific.

What is the significance of Sri Lanka to India

  • Strategic location: Sri Lanka’s location in the Indian Ocean region makes it a strategically important hub for India’s security interests.
  • Military significance: Sri Lanka is strategically important to India’s navy, as the switching of naval fleets from the Bay of Bengal to the Arabian Sea and vice versa have to take a round of Sri Lanka.
  • Economic ties: India is one of Sri Lanka’s key trading partners and both countries have strong economic ties.
  • India and Sri Lanka are traditional trade partners, with India being the largest trading partner in the country in South Asia, and Sri Lanka being one of India’s largest in the SAARC.
  • In 2021, the two countries had a total merchandise trade of $5.45 billion, with Sri Lanka importing from India $4.63 billion in 2022.
  • Geopolitical importance: Sri Lanka’s location makes it important for India’s Indian Ocean strategy and for networking with partners for its aim of establishing an Indian Ocean Rim Community.
  • China’s presence: India is also concerned about China’s increasing presence in Sri Lanka through investments in ports, which could potentially be used for military purposes.

About Hambantota Port

  • It is located on the southern tip of Sri Lanka within 10 nautical miles from the world’s busiest maritime lanes.
  • It is ideally located at the intersection of the major international shipping routes.
  • Strategic importance: Hambantota is close to the Asian and European international shipping routes the Suez Canal and the Strait of Malacca.
  • Approximately 200 to 300 ships sail through this route daily.
  • This port was handed over to China Merchants Port Holdings (CMPort) on a 99-year lease by the Sri Lankan government with a payment of US$1.12 billion as the island nation couldn’t pay back the funding capital debt to China.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. What term describes China’s strategy of extending large-scale concessional loans to developing countries, leading them into debt and allowing China to demand concessions or advantages?

1. Economic facilitation

2. Debt diplomacy

3. Strategic collaboration

4. Infrastructure bonding

Code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. None

 

Q. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2011)

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs.

2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the Cold War.

3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 1 B

Explanation

·         Critics refer to China’s strategy of providing large-scale loans to developing countries, which the IMF says has led to the most indebted countries in the world, as “debt-trap diplomacy”.

·         In this strategy, China deliberately provides loans to countries it knows can’t pay, in the hope of gaining political leverage.

·         A debt trap is when someone is forced to take new loans to repay existing debt obligations, which can lead to a spiral out of control.

·         China’s government has two preferential facilities to support developing countries with concessional funding: government concessional loan and preferential export buyers’ credit.

·         Therefore option B is correct answer .

 

 

 

H5N1 Bird Flu: A Global Threat to Birds and Mammals

Source: The Indian Express

Context: The impact of H5N1 on animals has been severe, affecting both farm and wild birds.

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Health , Science and Technology)

Why in news

  • Since 2020, a highly pathogenic type of bird flu, H5N1, has been spreading across the globe, posing an existential threat to birds and wildlife.

Key highlights

  • The virus has infected birds in more than 80 countries and resulted in the culling of millions of chickens and turkeys at commercial poultry farms.
  • It has also affected numerous species of wild birds, such as gulls and terns, resulting in significant mortality among these populations.
  • However, the most concerning development is the rapid spread of the flu among mammals, including seals, sea lions, foxes, pumas, skunks, bears, and marine mammals like sea lions and dolphins.
  • The infection has even infiltrated mainland Antarctica for the first time in history.

What is Bird Flu

  • Bird flu, also known as avian flu, is an infectious viral illness that primarily infects and spreads among poultry and some wild birds.
  • The currently circulating type of H5N1 is a highly pathogenic flu virus that has evolved from a virus that caused an outbreak on a goose farm in Guangdong, China, in 1996.
  • This new version of H5N1 first emerged in Europe in 2020 and has since rapidly spread to Europe, Africa, Asia, North America, South America, and even mainland Antarctica.

Impact on Animals

  • The impact of H5N1 on animals has been severe, affecting both farm and wild birds.
  • It has resulted in high morbidity and mortality among domestic and wild birds, posing a real threat to animals and a potential threat to humans.
  • The virus has also been detected, on rare occasions, in mammals, including humans.
  • The spread of the virus among mammals, especially marine mammals, has been particularly alarming, with tens of thousands of sea lions and a handful of dolphins dying in Chile and Peru, and reports of deaths of seals on the east and west coasts of the US.
  • The virus has also affected endangered species such as the California condors, with at least 21 of them dying from the virus in 2023 alone.
  • The spread of the virus among mammals is especially concerning as it increases the risk of viral reassortment and potential adaptation to spread more readily between species.

Factors Behind the Large-Scale Spread

  • The exact factors behind the large outbreaks of bird flu are still largely unknown.
  • However, some scientists suggest that climate change may be a contributing factor.
  • Soaring global temperatures impact the behavior of birds, forcing them to move into new territories and mix with species that they usually don’t interact with, potentially boosting the chances for the virus to spread even further.
  • Higher sea surface temperatures might also play a role, as warmer sea temperatures near northern Chile have led to a fall in the forage fish population, making sea lions weaker and more susceptible to disease.

Types of Influenza Viruses

  • Influenza viruses are categorized into four types: **influenza A, B, C, and D .

Overview of each type

  • Influenza A and B
  • Influenza A viruses are further divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus: hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).
  • There are 18 different hemagglutinin subtypes and 11 different neuraminidase subtypes.
  • The current subtypes of influenza A viruses that routinely circulate in people include A(H1N1) and A(H3N2).
  • Influenza B is typically only found in humans and is not further divided into subtypes.
  • It can be broken down further into specific viral lineages and strains.
  • Influenza C
  • Influenza C mainly occurs in humans but has been known to also occur in dogs and pigs.
  • Influenza D
  • Influenza D is found mainly in cattle and is not known to infect or cause illness in humans yet.

Avian Influenza Type A Viruses

  • Avian influenza viruses cause bird flu and are classified based on two proteins on their surfaces: Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
  • There are about 18 HA subtypes and 11 NA subtypes. Several combinations of these two proteins are possible, such as H5N1, H7N2, H9N6, H17N10, H18N11, etc.
  • All known subtypes of influenza A viruses can infect birds, except subtypes H17N10 and H18N11, which have only been found in bats.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to H5N1:

1. It is also known as avian flu.

2. It is a highly contagious viral infection that generally transmits from birds to human.

3. The current version of H5N1 first emerged in Europe in 2020.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (UPSC Prelims 2015)

A. AIDS

B. Bird flu

C. Dengue

D. Swine flu

Ans: D

 

 

 

Answer 2– A

Explanation –

·         Avian influenza, is also known as bird flu (H5N1). Human infections with the HPAI A(H5N1) virus have been reported in 23 countries since 1997. In about 50% of cases, the virus results in severe pneumonia and death.  So, statement 1 is correct.

·         It is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects birds.  Transmission of the virus from birds to humans is rare, and sustained human-to-human transmission of the H5N1 virus has not yet been established.

·         However, people working closely with poultry must take precautionary measures and maintain proper personal hygiene. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         In 1996, the highly pathogenic avian influenza H5N1 virus was first identified in domestic waterfowl in Southern China.

·         The current version of H5N1 first emerged in Europe in 2020 and has since spread to Africa, Asia, North America, and South America. In February 2024, the virus spread to mainland Antarctica. So, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option A is correct answer.

 

 Skyroot successfully test fires Stage-2 of Vikram 1 space launch vehicle

Source: The Hindu

Context: Skyroot successfully test fires Stage-2 of Vikram 1 space launch vehicle at its Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Space Technology, Science and Technology)

Why in News

  • Skyroot Aerospace, the leading space-tech company, has successfully test-fired the Stage-2 of Vikram-1 space launch vehicle, called Kalam-250, at the propulsion testbed of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

Key highlights

  • Space launch vehicles consist of multiple stages: main stage followed by subsequent ones.
  • Stage-2 is a critical stage in the ascent of the launch vehicle, as it propels it from atmospheric phase to the deep vacuum of outer-space.
  • Vikram-1 launch is a landmark event for the Indian space sector as it is the first private orbital rocket launch, and it follows the suborbital space launch of India’s first private rocket- the Vikram-S by Skyroot in November 2022.
  • The test which lasted 85 seconds recorded a peak sea-level thrust of 186 kilonewtons (kN), which will translate to a fully expanded vacuum thrust of around 235kN in flight.

About Vikram-1 space launch vehicle (Kalam-250)

  • The Kalam-250 is a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor, which uses solid fuel and a high-performance Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) Thermal Protection System (TPS).
  • The stage-2houses a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle, which helps the rocket achieve the desired trajectory.
  • This test also had an important contribution from another centre of ISRO, the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), which supplied its proprietary head-mounted safe arm (HMSA) for the test, used for the safe operation of the rocket stage.
  • The solid propellant in Kalam-250 was processed by Solar Industries at their Nagpur facility.
  • Skyroot had previously tested Kalam-100, the third stage of Vikram-1, which was test-fired successfully in June 2021.

About Skyroot Aerospace

  • Skyroot Aerospace is the national-award winning startup.
  • It has built India’s first privately built space launch vehicles.
  • The firm, founded by former scientists of the Indian Space Research organization (ISRO), is a 150 plus member strong team actively developing their flagship Vikram series of space launch vehicles, named after ISRO founder Vikram Sarabhai.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Stage-2 in a space launch vehicle:

1. It provides the necessary thrust for the rocket to ascend beyond the Earth’s atmosphere.

2. The solid propellant for the Kalam-250 stage-2 rocket was processed by Solar Industries at their Nagpur facility.

3. The stage-2 houses a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

 

 

Q. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 3 only

Ans: A

 

 

 

 

Answer 3 D

Explanation

·         Stage-2 is crucial in propelling the rocket from the atmospheric phase to the deep vacuum of outer space. It provides the necessary thrust for the rocket to ascend beyond the Earth’s atmosphere. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Hyderabad-based Skyroot Aerospace, a private-sector rocket maker and space-tech start-up, achieved another milestone on, 27 March, by test-firing Kalam 250 — the stage-2 of Vikram-1 space launch vehicle at the propulsion testbed of ISRO. The Kalam-250 stage-2 rocket motor utilizes high-strength carbon composite material. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         The stage-2 houses a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle, which helps the rocket achieve the desired trajectory. So, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

 

Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi Sworn in as Lokpal’s Judicial Member

Source: PIB

Context: Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, who had been serving as the Chairperson of the 22nd Law Commission of India since November 2022, was sworn in as Lokpal’s Judicial Member.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2 (Statutory Bodies- Lokpal and Lokayukta )

Why in News

  • Recently Former Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court, Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, was administered the oath of office as one of the three judicial members of Lokpal at the Lokpal of India office.

Swearing in of New Members

  • In addition to Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, Pankaj Kumar and Ajay Tirkey also took oath as Lokpal members on the same day.
  • The swearing-in ceremony was held at the Indian Lokpal Office in New Delhi.
  • This follows the completion of the tenures of existing judicial members and other members of Lokpal on March 26, 2024.

Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013

  • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, is an anti-corruption legislation enacted by the Parliament of India. It establishes the institution of Lokpal at the central level and Lokayuktas at the state level.
  • The main objective of this act is to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries and take necessary action.

Origin and History of Lokpal and Lokayukta Act

  • The Ombudsman institution originated in Sweden in 1809 and later evolved dramatically in the twentieth century after World War II.
  • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in December 2013, four decades after the original Bill was introduced, following a public campaign for a Jan Lokpal Bill led by Anna Hazare and others.
  • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provided for establishing Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayukta in states.
  • These are statutory bodies without any constitutional status and perform the function of an “ombudsman” to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.

Powers and Functions of Lokpal and Lokayukta

  • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas have the power to conduct independent investigations into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
  • They have jurisdiction over specific public functionaries at the central and state levels and can receive complaints related to corruption from individuals or through any other source.
  • These bodies can conduct preliminary inquiries, initiate full-fledged investigations, summon witnesses, examine evidence, initiate prosecution, recommend disciplinary action, and suggest measures to improve transparency and accountability in public administration.

Structure of the Lokpal

Chairman: The person to be appointed as the chairperson of the Lokpal must be either:

  • The former Chief Justice of India; or
  • The former Judge of the Supreme Court; or
  • An eminent person with impeccable integrity and outstanding ability, who must possess special knowledge and a minimum experience of 25 years in matters relating to:
  • Anti-corruption policy;
  • Public administration;
  • Vigilance;
  • Finance, including insurance and banking;
  • Law and management

Members

  • The maximum number of members must not exceed eight. These eight members must constitute:
  • Half of the members to be judicial members;
  • A minimum of 50% of the Members should be from SC/ ST/ OBC/ minorities and women.
  • The judicial member of the Lokpal must be either:
  • A former Judge of the Supreme Court or;
  • A former Chief Justice of the High Court.

Non-Judicial members

  • The non-judicial member of the Lokpal needs to be an eminent person with flawless integrity and outstanding ability.
  • The person must possess special knowledge and an experience of a minimum of 25 years in matters relating to:
  • Anti-corruption policy;
  • Public administration;
  • Vigilance;
  • Finance, including insurance and banking;
  • Law and management.

Lokpal (Complaint) Rules, 2020

  • The Lokpal (Complaint) Rules, 2020, were issued under Section 59 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
  • These rules provide the framework for filing complaints with the Lokpal, the anti-corruption ombudsman.

Proof of Identity

  • A complainant is required to provide a valid proof of identity as specified in the complaint forms. Foreign nationals are also allowed to lodge complaints, and they can submit a copy of their passports as proof of identity.

Filing Methods

  • Complaints can be filed electronically, by post, or in person. If a complaint is filed electronically, a hard copy must be submitted to the Lokpal within 15 days.

Language of Complaint

  • A complaint may ordinarily be made in English, but the Lokpal may also entertain a complaint in any of the languages referred to in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.

Additional Documentation

  • Apart from details of the accused official(s), allegations, and evidence relied upon, the complainant or the authorized signatory must also submit an affidavit.
  • If the complaint is made on behalf of an organization, the registration/incorporation certificate of the organization and a copy of the authorization certificate in favor of the signatory must be furnished.

Protection of Identity

  • The identity of the complainant or the accused official will be protected by the Lokpal until the conclusion of the inquiry or investigation.
  • However, this protection will not apply if the complainant reveals their identity to any other office or authority while making the complaint to the Lokpal.

Disposal of Complaints

  • Complaints that are illegible, vague, trivial, frivolous, do not contain any allegation, are not filed within the limitation period of seven years, or are pending before any other court, tribunal, or authority, must be disposed of within 30 days.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to Lokpal in India:

1. Recently Former Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court, Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi join office as one of the three judicial members of Lokpal at the Lokpal of India office.

2. The Chairperson and Members shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee.

3. The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. None

 

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2014)

1. The Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of 6 members.

2. The Prime Minister has also been brought under the ambit of Lokpal.

3. NGOs that receive foreign donations in excess of Rs 10 lakhs per year are included in its ambit.

Which of the above are correct in the context of Lokpal in India?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

 

 

Answer 4 D

Explanation

·         Former Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court, Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, was administered the oath of office as one of the three judicial members of Lokpal at the Lokpal of India office. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Appointment of Chairperson and Members on recommendations of Selection Committee.

·         The Chairperson and Members shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of the

·         Prime Minister—Chairperson;

·         the Speaker of the House of the People—Member;

·         the Leader of Opposition in the House of the People—Member;

·         the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him—Member;

·         one eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members to be nominated by the President—Member. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years. Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament, Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of Central Government.

·         So, statement 3 is correct.

  • Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

 

Centre extends AFSPA in Arunachal Pradesh

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 3 (Internal Security, North East Insurgency, Left Wing Extremism)

Context: Centre extends AFSPA in three districts, three police stations of Arunachal Pradesh for six months

Why in news

  • The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) on March 28 extended Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, in three districts — Tirap, Changlang and Longding — and in the jurisdiction of Namsai, Mahadevpur, and Chowkham police stations in Namsai district of Arunachal Pradesh along the Assam border for another six months, declaring them as ‘disturbed areas’ with effect from April 1, 2024, unless withdrawn earlier.

Key highlights

  • Tirap, Changlang, and Longding districts in Arunachal Pradesh and the areas falling within the jurisdiction of Namsai, Mahadevpur, and Chowkham police stations in Namsai district of Arunachal Pradesh, bordering the State of Assam, are declared as ‘disturbed areas’ under Section 3 of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, for a period of six months with effect from April 1, 2024, unless withdrawn earlier.
  • The step has been taken after review of the security of these districts of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Earlier, the Central Government, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 3 of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (28 of 1958), declared Tirap, Changlang, and Longding districts in Arunachal Pradesh and the areas falling within the jurisdiction of Namsai and Mahadevpur police stations in Namsai district of Arunachal Pradesh, bordering the State of Assam, as ‘disturbed areas’ for six months from October 1, 2023.
  • The AFSPA empowers security forces to arrest a person without a warrant, and enter or search premises without a warrant, along with some other actions.

About Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA)

  • It is a law enacted by the Parliament in 1958 which gives the armed forces special powers and immunity to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”.
  • It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under section 2 of the Act.
  • An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or disputes among different religious, racial, language, or regional groups or castes or communities.

Who declares an area as disturbed

  • The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory, can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
  • It can be Invoked in places where “the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary”.

The ‘special powers’ of armed forces under AFSPA are

  • They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
  • If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
  • Any person arrested or taken into custody may be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station along with a report detailing the circumstances that led to the arrest.
  • These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanction to the prosecuting agencies.

Where is AFSPA in force now

  • Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Manipur except Imphal.

Why is the AFSPA being opposed

  • The Act has been called draconian as it gives sweeping powers to the armed forces. It allows them to open fire’, even causing death, against any person in contravention to the law or carrying arms and ammunition.
  • It gives them powers to arrest individuals without warrants, based on “reasonable suspicion”, and also search premises without warrants.
  • The Act further provides blanket immunity to security personnel involved in such operations: There can be no prosecution or legal proceedings against them without the prior approval of the Centre.

Points in favor of the AFSPA

  • The AFSPA is applied to an area only when the ordinary laws of the land are found to be inadequate to deal with the extraordinary situation perpetrated by insurgents spreading terror.
  • Insurgent movements in India have more or less been proxy-wars being waged against India by external actors and this makes the deployment of armed forces in a counter-insurgency role with enhanced legal protection necessary.
  • The army has, repeatedly, made it clear that it cannot operate without the AFSPA as it needs special powers to tackle home-grown and as well as foreign terrorists.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, AFSPA:

1. AFSPA is a 1958 act that gives special powers to armed forces in disturbed areas.

2. The act allows the governor of a state or union territory to declare an area as “disturbed”.

3. Once an area is declared disturbed, the central government can deploy armed forces to assist civilian authorities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. With reference to Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

1. Governor

2. Chief Minister

3. Central Government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

 

 

Answer 5– D

Explanation

  • AFSPA is a 1958 act that gives special powers to armed forces in disturbed areas.
  • The act allows the governor of a state or union territory to declare an area as “disturbed”. Once an area is declared disturbed, the central government can deploy armed forces to assist civilian authorities.
  • AFSPA grants special powers to army officers in disturbed areas to use force, including lethal force, against individuals who violate the law or are suspected of doing so.
  • The act also gives security forces the power to arrest people who have committed or attempted to commit any knowable offense without any arrest warrant.
  • Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

Pioneer of Behavioral Economics, Daniel Kahneman

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 3 (Economics Branches and Theories)

Context: Behavioral economics is the study of how psychology affects the economic decision-making of individuals and institutions.

Why in news

  • Renowned psychologist Daniel Kahneman, a Nobel Prize winner in economics for his groundbreaking insights into the influence of ingrained neurological biases on decision-making, passed away on Wednesday, March 27, 2024, at the age of 90.

Daniel Kahneman: Key highlights

Nobel Prize and Contributions

  • Daniel Kahneman, a psychologist, was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 2002 for his research on prospect theory, which revolutionized the understanding of human judgment and decision-making.
  • His work challenged traditional economic assumptions, highlighting that people are not always fully rational and self-interested, and that mental biases can significantly distort their judgments.

Work significance

  • Kahneman’s work, in collaboration with Amos Tversky, significantly reshaped the field of economics, challenging the traditional assumption of people as “rational actors” capable of objectively evaluating choices.
  • Their research focused on the impact of subconscious quirks and mental shortcuts on decision-making processes, shedding light on the irrational yet predictable ways in which our thoughts can be distorted.

Contributions to Economics and Behavioral Psychology

  • Kahneman and Tversky’s pioneering research delved into the intricacies of human judgment and decision-making, challenging long-standing economic assumptions.
  • Their work led to the development of prospect theory, a new branch of economics that revolutionized the understanding of decision-making under uncertainty.
  • Notably, their findings revealed that people react more intensely to losses than equivalent gains, a concept known as “loss aversion,” which has profound implications for decision-making processes and preferences.

About Behavioural Economics Concept

  • Behavioral economics is the study of how psychology affects the economic decision-making of individuals and institutions.
  • It aims to provide an alternative to conventional economic theory, which assumes that all humans are rational and that their decisions are always optimal.
  • Behavioral economics uses psychological experimentation to develop theories about human decision making.
  • It has identified a range of biases as a result of the way people think and feel.
  • Behavioral economics focuses on people’s economic decision-making and its consequences on different aspects of the economy.
  • It combines and relates the elements of economics and human psychology to understand human behavior.
  • Behavioral economics recognizes that people often deviate from rationality and traditional economic models.
  • Instead, they exhibit predictable patterns of behavior influenced by cognitive biases and social factors.
  • For example, a person is more likely to go home with pens or an eraser from their office than the money in cash of equivalent value.
  • Most people tend to rationalize their behavior by arranging it as doing something (in this case, taking) rather than stealing.
  • Behavioral economics can help various stakeholders guide the masses into choosing what they desire through encouragement such as free products and reminders.

What are the three foundational concepts in behavioral economics

  • Three foundational concepts in behavioral economics are overconfidence, loss aversion, and self-control.

Behavioral economics can be separated into three main themes

  • Heuristics: Cognitive biases that help us make quicker and more consistent decisions.
  • Framing: The principle that information is not static, but fluid based on how, when, and where it is communicated.
  • Market inefficiencies

Other concepts in behavioral economics include

  • Bounded rationality: Based on the premises that information is limited and often unreliable, human cognitive capacity to evaluate and process information is limited, and time and resources that can be invested in decision-making is limited.
  • Confirmation bias: When investors have a bias toward accepting information that confirms their already-held belief in an investment.
  • Loss aversion: The idea that the pain of losing is psychologically about twice as powerful as the pleasure of gaining.
  • Endowment effect : A contradiction of the classical economic idea that people always behave rationally.
  • Framing effect: The principle that information is not static, but fluid based on how, when, and where it is communicated.
  • Herd behaviour: The tendency of people to mimic what everyone else is doing and follow the general consensus.

Criticism of this Theory

  • One of the criticisms of this theory is that it lacks psychological explanations for the process it talks about.
  • The criticism comes from other psychologists who notes that factors such as human emotional and affective responses that are important in the decision-making process are absent in the model.
  • Critics also point out that the theory inadequately explains why actors generate the frames they use. Decision-makers often need to deal with competing frames across various issues.

Applying Behavioral Economics in India

  • Behavioral economics, particularly through “nudge” policies, can significantly impact decision-making in the Indian context.
  • These policies gently guide individuals toward positive behaviors while respecting their freedom to choose.

Nudge Theory and Implementation

  • According to nudge theory, people benefit from reminders and positive reinforcement to sustain socially desirable behaviors, aligning with the cultural context of India.
  • Over 202 government institutions globally, including in India, have embraced behavioral insights in policy formulation and implementation.

Examples of Nudge Policies in India

  • Increasing Tax Compliance : Citizens can receive tailored text messages illustrating how their taxes contribute to public services, leveraging emotional connections to promote compliance.
  • Reducing School Drop-Out Rate: Informing parents about the potential income gains from their children’s education can encourage them to keep their children in school, addressing the dropout issue in impoverished families.
  • Boosting Savings Rate: Offering specially designed savings accounts that lock up funds until individuals meet their self-specified savings targets can encourage a culture of saving and financial security.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Which of the following is/are the foundational concepts in behavioural economics?

1. Overconfidence

2. Loss aversion

3. Confirmation bias

4. Self-control

Code

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. All of these

 

Q. Nobel Prize winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in which area? (UPSC Prelims 2008)

A. Metallurgy

B. Meteorology

C. Environmental protection

D. Genetics

Ans: D

 

 

 

Answer 6– D

Explanation

Foundational concepts in behavioral economics include overconfidence, loss aversion, Confirmation bias and self-control.

Concepts in behavioral economics

·         Bounded rationality: Based on the premises that information is limited and often unreliable, human cognitive capacity to evaluate and process information is limited, and time and resources that can be invested in decision-making is limited.

·         Confirmation bias: When investors have a bias toward accepting information that confirms their already-held belief in an investment.

·         Loss aversion: The idea that the pain of losing is psychologically about twice as powerful as the pleasure of gaining.

·         Endowment effect : A contradiction of the classical economic idea that people always behave rationally.

·         Framing effect: The principle that information is not static, but fluid based on how, when, and where it is communicated.

·         Herd behaviour: The tendency of people to mimic what everyone else is doing and follow the general consensus.

·         Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

Kerala Kalamandalam Opens Doors for Boys to Learn Mohiniyattam

Source: The Times of India

 

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 1 (Art and Culture))

Context: The decision taken unanimously in the governing council meeting of the Kalamandalam of Kerala to open Mohiniyattam doors for boys as well.

Why in news

  • In a historic move, the Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has lifted gender restrictions to learn Mohiniyattam.

About Mohiniyattam

  • Mohiniyattam is a classical dance style from Kerala state and one of the eight principal Indian classical dances.
  • It is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
  • The dance form belongs to the Lasya style, which is feminine, tender, and graceful. It is traditionally a solo dance performed by women after extensive training, though nowadays men can also perform the dance.
  • The repertoire of Mohiniyattam includes music in the Carnatic style, singing, and acting a play through the dance, where the recitation may be either by a separate vocalist or the dancer themselves.
  • The song is typically in Malayalam-Sanskrit hybrid called Manipravalam. The dance form incorporates different rhythms and lyrics, and the music style is Carnatic.
  • Instruments played during a Mohiniyattam performance usually comprise Kuzhitalam or cymbals, Veena, Idakka, an hourglass-shaped drum, and Mridangam, a barrel-shaped drum with two heads.

Elements

  • Indian classical dance forms incorporate both tandava (vigorous/ masculine) and lasya (soft/ feminine), offering a balance of cosmic energies — male/female, yin/yang — in their exposition.
  • The tandava aspect is characterised by sharp, forceful movements that aim to capture the essence of the underlying bhava (sentiment).
  • The lasya elements are represented by movements that are soft, fluid, and seem to merge into one another in a graceful blur with no sharp edges.
  • Mohiniyattam belongs to the Lasya style, which is feminine, tender, and graceful.

Salient Features of Mohiniyattam

  • Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
  • The most characteristic element of the “form” component of Mohiniattam is the circular or spiral movement of all the limbs of the body, giving it a swaying effect which resembles the movement of a pendulum, and thus it is called aandolika.
  • The footwork is not terse and is rendered softly.
  • Importance is given to the hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya with subtle facial expressions.
  • Mohiniyattam lays emphasis on acting, with the dancer identifying herself with the character and sentiments existing in the compositions like the Padams and Pada Varnams, which give ample opportunity for facial expressions.
  • The hand gestures, 24 in number, are mainly adopted from Hastalakshana Deepika, a text followed by Kathakali. Few are also borrowed from Natya Shastra, Abhinaya Darpana, and Balarambharatam.
  • The gestures and facial expressions are closer to the natural (gramya) and the realistic (lokadharmi) than to the dramatic or rigidly conventional (natyadharmi).

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to Mohiniyattam traditional dance:

1. Mohiniyattam used to be performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in temples during the rule of the Chera kings from 9 to 12 C.E.

2. It belongs to the tandava style, characterised by sharp, forceful movements that aim to capture the essence of the underlying bhava (sentiment).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC Prelims 2014)

1. Garba – Gujarat

2. Mohiniattam – Odisha

3. Yakshagana – Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

 

 

Answer 7– A

Explanation

  • Mohiniattam, or Mohiniyattam, is an Indian classical dance form that evolved in the state of Kerala.
  • Its roots date back to the age-old Sanskrit Hindu text on performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’.
  • Mohiniyattam used to be performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in temples during the rule of the Chera kings from 9 to 12 C.E. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • Indian classical dance forms incorporate both tandava (vigorous/ masculine) and lasya (soft/ feminine), offering a balance of cosmic energies — male/female, yin/yang — in their exposition.
  • The tandava aspect is characterised by sharp, forceful movements that aim to capture the essence of the underlying bhava (sentiment).
  • The lasya elements are represented by movements that are soft, fluid, and seem to merge into one another in a graceful blur with no sharp edges.
  • Mohiniyattam belongs to the Lasya style, which is feminine, tender, and graceful. So , statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option A is correct answer.

 

 

 

 

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