Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (28-02-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| National: Lokpal chairperson appointment |
| Science and Technology: Garbhini-GA2 |
| Four astronauts announced for Gaganyaan mission |
| Economy: Introduction of ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ Regime |
| Bitcoin Halving |
| Important Days- National Science Day 2024 |
| International: NATO’s Steadfast Defender 2024 Military Exercise
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New Lokpal Chairperson Appointment
Source: The Hindu
Context: : A.M. Khanwilkar appointed Lokpal Chairperson
UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS 2 (Transparency & Accountability Issues Arising Out of Design & Implementation of Policies, Statutory Bodies)
Why in news
- Recently the President of India appointed former Supreme Court judge AM Khanwilkar as the chairperson of the Lokpal, an anti-corruption body in India.
Key Highlights
- Justice Khanwilkar retired from the Supreme Court in July 2022.
- A communique issued by the Rashtrapati Bhavan said that retired justices Lingappa Narayana Swamy, Sanjay Yadav and Ritu Raj Awasthi have been appointed as judicial members of the anti-corruption ombudsman.
- Sushil Chandra, Pankaj Kumar and Ajay Tirkey will be non-judicial members, the communique stated.
Important Facts
- Appointment: The decision was made by a high-level committee that includes Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, and Congress leader Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury.
- Term: The term of the Lokpal chairperson and members is five years or until they reach the age of 70.
- Salary: The chairperson’s salary, allowances, and other conditions of service are equivalent to the Chief Justice of India.
- Qualifications: A member of the Lokpal must have impeccable integrity, outstanding ability, and special knowledge and expertise in anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance, and law.
About Lokpal
- The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act of 2013 is an anti-corruption act that established the Lokpal at the center and Lokayuktas at the state level.
- The Lokpal is a multi-member body that consists of:
- Chairperson
- Either the former Chief Justice of India or the former Judge of Supreme Court
Members
- Maximum of 8 members, including:
- Half judicial members
- Minimum 50% of the Members will be from SC/ ST/ OBC/ Minorities and women
- The Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes the Prime Ministers, Ministers, Members of Parliament, and Groups A, B, C, and D officers and officials of the Central Government. The Lokpal will cover all categories of public servants, including the Prime Minister, but the armed forces do not come under the ambit of Lokpal.
- The Lokpal’s primary responsibility is to monitor corruption and maladministration of official bodies. It ensures the inquiry and prosecution of corruption cases against union officials.
- The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2013 was passed in both Houses of Parliament and came into force on January 16, 2014.
Background
- The concept of ombudsman originated in 1809 in Sweden.
- In India, the former law minister Ashok Kumar Sen became the first Indian to propose the concept of a constitutional Ombudsman in Parliament in the early 1960s.
- Further, Dr. L. M. Singhvi coined the term Lokpal and Lokayukta in 1963. Later in the year 1966, the First Administrative Reform Commission passed recommendations regarding the setting up of two independent authorities at the central and at the state level.
- After the recommendations from the First Administrative Reform Commission, the Lokpal bill was passed in Lok Sabha in 1968 but lapsed due to the dissolution of Lok Sabha. Since then, the bill was introduced many times in Lok Sabha but has lapsed.
- Later, in 2002, the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) recommended the appointment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas. In 2005, the 2nd Administrative Reform Commission (ARC) also recommended the same.
- The Anna Hazare movement, also known as India Against Corruption (IAC) movement, was led by social activist Anna Hazare, who began a hunger strike in April 2011 to demand the creation of an independent, effective anti-corruption body known as the Lokpal.
- As a result of the movement, the Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill was introduced in the Indian parliament and passed into law in 2013.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 1. According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013, which of the following statements about the Lokpal is/are correct?
1. The Lokpal is a single-member body headed by the Prime Minister. 2. The Lokpal consists of a chairperson, former Chief Justice of India, and four members. 3. The Lokpal is a multi-member body with a maximum of 8 members, including half judicial members. 4. The Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes the Prime Ministers, Ministers, Members of Parliament, and Groups A, B, C, and D officers and officials of the Central Government. Code A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 , 3 and 4 only C. 3 and 4 only D. All of the above
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Q. According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 the Lokpal shall consist of maximum members including the Chairperson. ( UPSC Prelims 2014)
A. Three B. Four C. Nine D. Eleven Answer: C
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| Ans 1 C
Explanation
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Garbhini-GA2
Source: The Hindu
Context: India-Specific Model Developed for Accurate Gestational Age Estimation of Foetus
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology and New innovations)
Why in news
- In a significant breakthrough, researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras and the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad, have unveiled the first India-specific artificial intelligence (AI) model.
About Garbhini-GA2: Unveiling Precision in Foetal Age Estimation
- Named Garbhini-GA2, this innovative model marks a pioneering milestone in maternal healthcare.
- It stands as the first late-trimester gestational age estimation model developed and validated using Indian population data.
- Unlike conventional approaches reliant on formulas tailored for Western populations, Garbhini-GA2 fills the gap by offering accurate estimates suited to the Indian demographic.
Key Features and Significance
- Enhanced Accuracy: Garbhini-GA2 boasts a remarkable reduction in error, almost three times lower compared to existing methodologies.
- This precision is paramount in mitigating discrepancies inherent in foetal growth patterns among Indian mothers.
- Pivotal Application: While ultrasound dating remains the gold standard for early pregnancy, a considerable segment of Indian women undergoes their first ultrasound examination during the later stages. Garbhini-GA2’s deployment fills this void by furnishing tailored gestational age formulas, thereby bolstering pregnancy care with pinpoint accuracy.
- Impact on Healthcare: The ramifications of Garbhini-GA2’s introduction extend beyond individual pregnancies.
- By enhancing the accuracy of epidemiological estimates for pregnancy outcomes, it lays a robust foundation for evidence-based maternal and infant healthcare interventions nationwide.
- Contribution to Mortality Reduction: With maternal and infant mortality rates remaining persistent challenges in India, Garbhini-GA2 emerges as a potent tool in the arsenal of obstetricians and neonatologists.
- By refining the quality of care and streamlining interventions, it charts a course towards tangible reductions in mortality rates.
The Garbh-Ini Initiative: A Catalyst for Transformative Research
- Inception and Leadership: Launched in 2014 under the aegis of the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Garbh-Ini program underscores a collaborative endeavor to unravel the complexities of preterm birth (PTB).
- Spearheaded by THSTI, Faridabad, this interdisciplinary research program epitomizes concerted efforts to bridge the gap between theory and practice in maternal healthcare.
- Mission and Objectives: Embedded within the Atal Jai-Anusandhan Mission Programmes by the DBT, Garbh-Ini transcends conventional research paradigms.
- Its overarching goal encompasses the comprehensive exploration of both biological and non-biological determinants of PTB, underscoring a holistic approach to maternal well-being.
Conclusion
- As Garbhini-GA2 heralds a new era in gestational age estimation, its implications reverberate across the landscape of maternal and infant healthcare in India.
- With precision as its hallmark, this India-specific model epitomizes the fusion of cutting-edge technology and indigenous healthcare needs.
- Amidst the challenges posed by maternal and infant mortality, initiatives like Garbh-Ini stand as beacons of hope, driving transformative change and fostering a healthier, more equitable future for generations to come.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Garbhini-GA2:
1. Garbhini-GA2, the India-specific artificial intelligence (AI) model has been developed by researchers at IIT Madras and ISRO. 2. It is a collaborative effort to understand factors contributing to preterm birth.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Consider the following:
1. Aarogya Setu 2. COWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? (UPSC Prelims 2022) A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D
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| Answer 2– A
Explanation – · Garbhini-GA2, the India-specific artificial intelligence (AI) model has been developed by researchers at IIT Madras and THSTI, Faridabad to precisely estimate the age of a foetus during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. So, the statement 1 is incorrect. · Garbhini-GA2 boasts a remarkable reduction in error, almost three times lower compared to existing methodologies. · This precision is paramount in mitigating discrepancies inherent in foetal growth patterns among Indian mothers. · It is a collaborative effort to understand factors contributing to preterm birth. So, the statement 2 is correct. · Hence option A is correct answer.
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Four astronauts announced for Gaganyaan mission
Source: The Hindu
Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre in Thiruvananthapuram
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (India Space policies and Achievements)
Why in News
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the names of four astronauts who were selected for ISRO’s ambitious maiden manned space mission Gaganyaan.
Key Highlights:
- Group Captains Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, Angad Prathap, Ajit Krishnan and Wing Commander Shubanshu Shukla have been selected as astronaut-designates for the Gaganyaan human spaceflight programme, the country’s India’s first crewed mission to space.
- The astronaut-designates have been giving extensive training in Russia and various centres of ISRO, for the scheduled launch next year.
About Gaganyaan human spaceflight programme:
- The Gaganyaan Mission is India’s ongoing project to send a 3-day manned mission to the Low Earth Orbit (LEO) of 400 km with a crew of 4 members and bring them safely back to Earth.
- As part of this program, two unmanned missions and one manned mission are approved by the Government of India.
- The first manned spaceflight is expected to take place in 2024-2025.
- The success of the Gaganyaan Mission will put India in the elite group of nations (US, Russia, and China) having human space flight capability.
Objectives of Gaganyaan Mission:
- The Gaganyaan Mission is an ambitious and co-ordinated project of ISRO in collaboration with other agencies, such as various research labs, Indian academia, and industries, with the following objectives:
- Its immediate aim is to demonstrate indigenous capability to undertake human space flights.
- In the long run, it will lay the foundation for a sustained Indian human space exploration programme.
- Components – Crew module (CM) and the service module (SM), which together will form the orbital module.
- Crew Module- It is the habitable space with Earth like environment in space for the crew and is designed for re-entry to ensure safety of the crew during descent till touchdown.
- Service Module- It is an unpressurized structure that will be used for providing necessary support to CM while in orbit.
Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3) and Human Rated LVM3:
- LVM3 – It is the heaviest rocket of ISRO.
- It was earlier called Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk III).
- It consists of 3 stages – solid, liquid and cryogenic stage.
- HLVM3– All systems in LVM3 launch vehicle are re-configured to meet human rating requirements and christened Human Rated LVM3.
- It consists of Crew escape system powered by a set of quick acting, high burn rate solid motors which ensures that Crew Module along with crew is taken to a safe distance in case of any emergency.
- Other features – For Gaganyaan, ISRO signed an agreement with Russia’s Glavkosmos to select and train Indian astronauts.
- The US has also offered to provide advanced training to the astronauts selected for the Gaganyaan.
- The second phase of this mission will involve the launch of Vyommitra, a female spacefaring half humanoid robot that will function as a prototype for the Gaganyaan missions.
- Astronaut training facility is established in Bengaluru.
Tests to be conducted under the mission:
- Integrated Air Drop Test – This involves dropping a simulated crew module from an aircraft and deploying a parachute to slow its descent and land safely in the ocean.
- Test vehicle mission- involves launching a single-stage liquid propulsion rocket, equipped with a crew module and a crew escape system.
- Recently Test Vehicle Abort Mission-1 (TV-D1) was successfully demonstrated by ISRO.
- Pad Abort Test (PAT) – This is a test of a launch escape system, designed to quickly move the crew and spacecraft away from the rocket in case of an emergency on the launch pad.
- Uncrewed mission – Its purpose is to study technology demonstration, safety and reliability validation and system performance before crewed flight.
- Manned flight mission – It has human crew members who operate its controls and perform various tasks.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following Statements with reference to Gaganyaan mission:
1. It is India’s first manned space mission. 2. The mission will be launched by XL variant of ISRO’s PSLV. 3. The mission will be placed in Low Earth Orbit. 4. With the success of this mission, India will become the 4th country to send humans to space after the USA, Russia, and China.
Which of the above given statements are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2016)
The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission 2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after the USA 3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C
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| Answer 3 C
Explanation · Statement 1 is correct: Gaganyaan is India’s first manned space mission which the ISRO aims to launch by 2024-25. Gaganyaan will be the Indian crewed orbital spacecraft intended to be the basis of Indian Human Space Flight Program. The target is to launch it before the 75 year celebration of India’s independence. · Statement 2 is incorrect: GSLV Mk III (Now known as LVM3), the three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the necessary payload capability. The mission will have a payload of 7 ton. It will be launched by India’s biggest rocket GSLV Mk 3 from Sriharikota. · Statement 3 is correct: It will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from earth for approx 3 days. · Statement 4 is correct: With the successful launch of Gaganyaan, India will become only the 4th country after Russia, the USA and China to send humans to space.
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Introduction of ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ Regime
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Indian Economy)
Context: The Competition Regulator’s latest addition to the ‘whistle-blower’ mechanism to trace cartels
Why in news
- In a bid to fortify the whistleblower mechanism within the Competition Act, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has introduced the ‘Lesser Penalty’ Regulations, 2024, ushering in the ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ regime.
Understanding the New Regime
- The ‘Lesser Penalty’ provisions in Section 46 of the Competition Act encourage enterprises involved in cartelization to provide crucial information to the CCI, aiding in the investigation of potential cartel conduct.
- Building upon this framework, the ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ regime incentivizes existing leniency candidates to disclose information about additional cartels, leading to further reductions in penalties.
Operational Dynamics
- Under the ‘Lesser Penalty’ application, enterprises must divulge details of their involvement in the cartel, including specifics such as goods or services, entities involved, geographical scope, and the impact on Indian markets.
- The ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ applicants, meanwhile, are required to provide insights into any similarities or differences between the disclosed cartel and subsequent ones.
Assessment Criteria
- The benefits conferred under these regimes are evaluated based on two primary parameters: priority status and significant added value.
- Priority status is determined by the timing of the disclosure, emphasizing the importance of early reporting. Significant added value focuses on the qualitative nature of the evidence provided, emphasizing its usefulness in bolstering the CCI’s case against cartels.
Practical Implementation
- Applicants are eligible to apply for leniency during the investigation phase, before receiving the regulator’s report.
- The reduction in penalties varies based on the applicant’s priority status, with the first applicant potentially receiving up to a 100% reduction.
- Additionally, ‘Leniency Plus’ offers further reductions, enhancing the incentive for early disclosure.
Global Parallels
- Similar leniency programs exist worldwide, including in the United States, European Union, and Brazil, where they have proven effective in uncovering hidden cartels and prosecuting offenders.
Evaluating Incentivization
- While the ‘Lesser Penalty’ and ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ regimes provide significant incentives for self-reporting, concerns remain regarding their effectiveness.
- The potential for substantial penalties underscores the importance of leniency programs, which leverage the concept of game theory to encourage early disclosure.
Ensuring Confidentiality
- Maintaining confidentiality regarding the identity of leniency applicants until the conclusion of proceedings is crucial.
- While concerns regarding reputation and potential backlash exist, the benefits of availing leniency outweigh these risks, as highlighted by industry experts.
- In essence, the introduction of the ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ regime represents a proactive step towards enhancing cartel detection and enforcement mechanisms, aligning with global best practices while addressing challenges unique to the Indian market.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Lesser Penalty Plus’ regime has been introduced by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. 2. Section 46 of the Competition Act encourages enterprises involved in cartelization to provide crucial information to the Competition Commission of India (CCI). Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
Which of the above statements is/are A. 1 only
Answer A |
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Answer 4: C Explanation: · The primary objective of the ‘Lesser Penalty Plus’ is to incentivize industry participants to disclose information about additional cartels, introduced by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. · So, statement 1 is correct. · Section 46 of the Competition Act encourages enterprises involved in cartelization to provide crucial information to the Competition Commission of India (CCI). · So, statement 2 is correct.
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Bitcoin Halving
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Cryptocurrency, IT & Computers Mobilization of Resources)
Context: The Bitcoin Halving signifies a 50% reduction in the reward granted to Bitcoin miners for validating cryptocurrency transactions on the blockchain
Why in news
- Just as sports enthusiasts eagerly anticipate the Olympics every four years, the cryptocurrency community gears up for its own quadrennial event – the Bitcoin Halving.
About Bitcoin Halving
- The Bitcoin Halving signifies a 50% reduction in the reward granted to Bitcoin miners for validating cryptocurrency transactions on the blockchain.
- Miners, utilizing advanced computer equipment, engage in complex mathematical puzzles through a process called ‘Proof of Work’ to sustain Bitcoin’s ecosystem.
- The halving event ensures a controlled release of new bitcoins, thus enhancing the asset’s scarcity.
Simplified Explanation
- Imagine a group of grocery store cashiers competing to bill the same set of items, with the fastest and most accurate cashier winning a prize of gold coins.
- The halving event reduces the prize from ten to five gold coins after a certain period.
- The efficiency of the cashiers and the value of the prize are analogous to Bitcoin mining and its rewards.
Why Does it Matter to Crypto Investors
- The Bitcoin Halving impacts supply dynamics, making the asset more scarce and potentially driving up prices.
- With over 19 million bitcoins already mined, halvings prolong the time required to mine the remaining coins.
- While this event occurs every four years, its consequences vary based on market conditions and investor sentiments.
Impact on the Crypto Market
- Predicting the market response to the Bitcoin Halving remains speculative.
- While some investors anticipate price spikes, past halvings have demonstrated unpredictable outcomes influenced by diverse factors such as regulatory changes, geopolitical events, and investor psychology.
Conclusion
- As the crypto community anticipates the next Bitcoin Halving, it underscores the dynamic nature of digital asset markets.
- While some investors strategize to capitalize on potential price movements, others approach with caution, recognizing the inherent uncertainty.
- Ultimately, the halving serves as a reminder of Bitcoin’s unique economic model and its enduring appeal to enthusiasts and investors alike.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 5. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bitcoin Halving affect:
1. It increases the total supply of Bitcoin in circulation. 2. It decreases the total supply of Bitcoin in circulation. 3. It has earlier increase and then decrease the total supply of Bitcoin. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. With reference to “Blockchain Technology”, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls. 2. The structure and design of the blockchain are such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on the basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 only D. 1 and 3 only Answer: D
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| Answer 5– A
Explanation · The Bitcoin Halving signifies a 50% reduction in the reward granted to Bitcoin miners for validating cryptocurrency transactions on the blockchain. · Miners, utilizing advanced computer equipment, engage in complex mathematical puzzles through a process called ‘Proof of Work’ to sustain Bitcoin’s ecosystem. · The halving event ensures a controlled release of new bitcoins, thus enhancing the asset’s scarcity.
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National Science Day 2024
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus relevance: Prelims (Importance days and Events), GS 3 (General Science and Technology)
Context: The theme for “National Science Day 2024” is “Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat”.
Why in news
- National Science Day (NSD) is an annual celebration observed on 28 February to honor the discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’.
About National Science Day 2024
- Aim: To draw awareness to people about the significance of science in our daily life and to encourage people by popularising Science and Technology.
- The theme for “National Science Day 2024” is “Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat”, the theme reflects a strategic focus on promoting public appreciation for Science, Technology, and Innovation.
- It also highlights the accomplishments of Indian scientists in addressing challenges through home-grown technologies for overall well-being.
- The theme not only marks a new era but also presents an opportunity for the public and scientific fraternity, both domestically and internationally, to collaborate and work together.
- The goal is to contribute to the well-being of India and humanity as a whole.
- While emphasizing the importance of making India Atmanirbhar (self-reliant) through science, it underscores the need to address subjects that hold significance for humanity as a whole.
Historical context- National Science Day
- National Science Day is celebrated in India on 28th February each year to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Indian physicist Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman on 28th February 1928.
- The Raman Effect Is the phenomenon of the scattering of light when it passes through a transparent material, leading to a change in its wavelength and energy.
- This discovery was a significant contribution to the field of physics and earned Sir C.V. Raman the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930, making him the first Indian to receive this prestigious award in science.
- The Government of India officially designated 28th February as National Science Day in 1986 to honour Sir C.V. Raman’s contribution to science and to promote scientific temper and knowledge among the people of India.
- The theme of National Science Day changes every year, and various events, workshops, exhibitions, and competitions are organized across the country to celebrate the day and to encourage scientific thinking and innovation among students and the general public.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the following phenomena is concerned with the Raman Effect?
A. Reflection of light B. Refraction of light C. Scattering of light D. Absorption of light
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Q. The International Day of Yoga is observed every June 21. Which of the following statements about the International Day of Yoga is not correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. The observation of International Day of Yoga started from the year 2016. 2. The idea to have an UN-mandated day for celebrating Yoga was put forward by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. 3. This Day was incepted in UN General Assembly in 2015. 4. June 21 was selected as Yoga Day because it is the longest day of the year in the Southern Hemisphere. Code A. 2 , 3 and 4 B. 3 and 4 C. 1 , 2 and 4 D. 1 , 2 and 3 Answer: B
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| Answer 6– C
Explanation · The Raman effect involves scattering of light by molecules of gases, liquids, or solids. The Raman effect consists of the appearance of extra spectral lines near the wavelength of the incident light. The Raman lines in the scattered light are weaker than the light at the original wavelength. · Therefore, correct answer is option C.
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NATO’s Steadfast Defender 2024 Military Exercise
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International Organisation and its impact)
Context: NATO’s Steadfast Defender 2024 Military Exercise: Significance and Implications
Why in news
- Amidst escalating tensions in Eastern Europe, NATO has initiated its largest military exercise since the Cold War era – the Steadfast Defender 2024.
Key highlights of the Military Exercise
- Commencing at the end of January, this exercise underscores NATO’s commitment to collective defense and serves as a strategic response to Russia’s aggression, notably its invasion of Ukraine.
- Steadfast Defender 2024 unfolds in two phases, spanning several months. The initial phase, focusing on maritime reinforcement, commenced in January and extends until mid-March.
- Activities during this phase concentrate on bolstering naval capabilities across the Atlantic and in the Arctic region.
- The subsequent phase, from mid-February to the end of May, will witness deployed reinforcements engaging in multi-domain exercises across Europe.
Why is it significant?
- Symbol of Unity and Strength: With over 90,000 troops from 31 NATO allies, including Sweden, participating, Steadfast Defender 2024 underscores NATO’s solidarity and resolve to safeguard its members’ security and uphold international norms.
- The sheer scale of the exercise, featuring a formidable fleet of naval units, aircraft, and combat vehicles, underscores NATO’s collective military might.
- Deterrence Against Russian Aggression: Against the backdrop of Russia’s incursion into Ukraine, the exercise serves as a potent deterrent, signaling NATO’s preparedness to counter any further Russian expansionism.
- By showcasing its readiness and capability, NATO aims to dissuade Russia from escalating tensions in the region.
Support to Ukraine:
- Steadfast Defender 2024 is not only a display of military prowess but also a tangible expression of support for Ukraine.
- The financial aid pledged by NATO member states, including the recent commitments by the U.S., France, and Germany, underscores the alliance’s commitment to bolstering Ukraine’s defenses against Russian aggression.
Geopolitical Significance:
- The strategic deployment of the exercise across European countries, particularly those bordering the Baltic Sea, holds geopolitical significance.
- These countries, including Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, and Poland, serve as frontline states facing Russian aggression.
- NATO’s Enhanced Forward Presence in these regions further underscores the alliance’s commitment to deterring Russian threats.
Conclusion
- As NATO’s Steadfast Defender 2024 unfolds, it represents a pivotal moment in European security.
- Beyond a mere military exercise, it symbolizes NATO’s unwavering commitment to collective defense, solidarity with Ukraine, and deterrence against Russian aggression.
- By leveraging a comprehensive approach encompassing land, air, sea, cyber, and space operations, NATO reaffirms its relevance in a rapidly evolving geopolitical landscape.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to NATO’s Steadfast Defender 2024 military exercise:
1. The primary objective of the exercise is to deter further Israel’s aggression and demonstrate solidarity with Middle East. 2. Steadfast Defender 2024 is a military exercise conducted by NATO and India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. The military exercise ‘SADA TANSEEQ’ involves the participation of troops from which pair of countries? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
A. India and United Arab Emirates B. India and Saudi Arabia C. Saudi Arabia and Yemen D. Iran and Pakistan Answer: B
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| Answer 7– D
Explanation · Steadfast Defender 2024 is NATO’s biggest exercise in decades, and it will test the alliance’s new defense plans and ability to deploy forces quickly. · Its primary objective is deterring further Russian aggression and demonstrate solidarity with Ukraine. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · Steadfast Defender 2024 is a military exercise conducted by NATO in 2024. India does not participate in this. · So, statement 2 is incorrect.
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