26th March 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (26-03-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

International: Dispersal out of Africa may have occurred during arid period
Science and Technology: Saksham App for Persons-With-Disability
2nd Landing Test of Pushpak in Karnataka
Ecology and Environment: Upscaled EV Manufacturing and Zero Emissions Mandate
Days and Events: World TB Day
Public Health: Impact of Falling total fertility rate in India

 

 

Dispersal out of Africa may have occurred during arid period

Source: The Hindu

Context: : Understanding how human ancestors survived cataclysmic events provides valuable insights into the evolution and migration of our species, Homo sapiens.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS 3 (Science and Technology, Human Evolution)

Why in news

  • A recent study published in the journal Nature suggests that the most recent and widespread migration of humans out of Africa, which occurred less than 100,000 years ago, may have taken place during a particularly arid period following the Toba super volcano eruption in Indonesia.

Key highlights

  • This challenges the traditional belief that human dispersals out of Africa occurred during humid periods that created ‘green corridors’ and facilitated movement.
  • Instead, the study proposes that humans may have dispersed during arid intervals along “blue highways” created by seasonal rivers, as indicated by evidence found at a site in northwest Ethiopia near the Shinfa River.

Key Observations of the Study

  • The researchers studied a site in northwest Ethiopia, near the Shinfa River, and found evidence of a human presence in the form of chipped stone from tool manufacturing and animal remains.
  • Chemical analysis of glass shards in sediment samples revealed they were from the Toba super-eruption, placing the presence of humans at this location at around 74,000 years ago, during the Middle Stone Age.
  • Oxygen isotopes from ostrich eggshells and fossil mammal teeth indicate that the environment at this time was particularly arid.
  • This increased aridity explains the increased reliance on fish at the site at this time, suggesting that as the river shrank in the dry season, fish were trapped in waterholes where they could easily be targeted by hunters, perhaps using bows and arrows.
  • The arid conditions might have triggered and necessitated movement, spurred along by the intrinsic attributes of seasonal rivers.

How Did Humans Survive the Mount Toba Eruptions

  • The study highlights the remarkable resilience and adaptability of early humans in the face of adversity.
  • At the Shinfa-Metema 1 site, humans adapted to the drier conditions by altering their diets and exploiting local resources.
  • Instead of relying solely on land animals for food, they turned to fish, which became easier to catch as shallow waterholes formed in the changing landscape.
  • This flexibility in diet proved crucial for survival.
  • Excavations also uncovered evidence of advanced tools, including stone points believed to be arrowheads, suggesting early humans were adept hunters, capable of innovation even in challenging environments.

Debates and Discoveries Related to the Toba Eruption

  • While the study offers compelling evidence, experts continue to debate the exact impact of the Toba eruption.
  • Nonetheless, it sheds light on the resourcefulness of early human populations in the face of adversity.

 

Implications for Understanding Human History

  • Understanding how our ancestors survived cataclysmic events provides valuable insights into the evolution and migration of our species, Homo sapiens.
  • The behavioral flexibility documented at the site, which helped these humans to survive the aftermath of the super-eruption, was probably critical for modern humans to prosper in the diverse climates and habitats that they encountered during their eventual dispersal out of Africa and expansion across the world.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Toba Super Volcano is located in the Toba Valley of Africa.

2. The Shinfa River flows in north-west Ethiopia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.

2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.

3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only One

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: A

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 1 B

Explanation

  • The Toba super volcano is located in the Barisan Mountains of north-central Sumatra, Indonesia.
  • The volcano’s most recent eruption occurred around 74,000 years ago, and was one of the largest known explosive eruptions in Earth’s history. The eruption had a volume of about 5,300 km3. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Shinfa River flows in northwestern Ethiopia. It is a tributary of the Blue Nile River and the Atbarah River.
  • The Shinfa River’s flow is seasonally moderated. During the wet season, rainfall produces bank-full flows, which then decrease and eventually stop during the dry season. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

Saksham App for Persons-With-Disability

Source: Hindustan Times

Context: Election Commission Launches Saksham App to Facilitate Easier Voting for Persons-With-Disability

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS- 2 (Indian Election, Election Commission)

Why in news

  • In a significant move to ensure accessibility and inclusivity in the electoral process, the Election Commission has introduced the Saksham App to facilitate easier voting for Persons-with-Disabilities (PWDs) and to provide a range of facilities at polling stations.

Key highlights

  • The app offers various features to assist PWDs in registering to vote, finding their polling station, and casting their vote.
  • Notably, the app provides voice assistance, text-to-speech, and other accessibility features to cater to the diverse needs of PWDs.
  • The Election Commission has also announced that voters above 85 years of age and PWDs with a 40 percent benchmark disability can vote from home.
  • Additionally, volunteers and wheelchairs will be available at every polling station, and transport facilities will be arranged for PWDs and the elderly.
  • The Commission is also advocating for permanent Assured Minimum Facilities (AMF) in schools, which includes provisions such as drinking water, toilets, signage, ramps or wheelchairs, helpdesks, voter facilitation centers, sufficient lighting, and sheds.

Definition of Disability in India

  • According to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, a person with a disability in India is defined as someone who has a long-term impairment affecting their physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory abilities, which prevents them from fully and effectively participating in society.
  • The United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UN CRPD) further elaborates that persons with disabilities include those with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairments that, in interaction with various barriers, may hinder their full and effective participation in society on an equal basis with others.
  • The four main categories of disability are behavioral or emotional, sensory impaired disorders, physical, and developmental.

 

Status of Disability in India

  • According to various sources, including the World Bank, NSSO, and NFHS-5 survey, the prevalence of disabilities in India ranges from 2.2% to 4.52% of the population.
  • The 2011 Census reported that around 2.21% of India’s total population consists of persons with disabilities, with a significant portion residing in rural areas.
  • The disabilities are diverse, with movement, visual impairment, hearing impairment, and multiple disabilities being the most prevalent.

About the Election Commission of India

  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
  • Established in accordance with the Constitution on January 25, 1950, the ECI administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
  • The commission is not concerned with elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states, as separate State Election Commissions handle these.
  • The constitutional provisions related to the ECI are outlined in Part XV (Article 324-329) of the Indian Constitution, which deals with elections and establishes a commission for these matters.
  • These provisions include the superintendence, direction, and control of elections vested in the Election Commission, as well as the basis of elections on adult suffrage and the power of Parliament and State Legislatures to make provisions regarding elections.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Saksham App:

1. Recently NITI Aayog has introduced Saksham App.

2. This app is designed to facilitate an easy way for old women to vote.

Which of the above statements is are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Ans: D

 

 

 

Answer 2– C

Explanation –

  • In a significant move to ensure accessibility and inclusivity in the electoral process, the Election Commission has introduced the Saksham App to facilitate easier voting for Persons-with-Disabilities (PWDs) and to provide a range of facilities at polling stations. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Saksham app is designed to facilitate easier voting for Persons-with-Disabilities (PWDs) and to provide a range of facilities at polling stations. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 2nd Landing Test of Pushpak in Karnataka

Source: Business Standard

Context: ISRO Successfully Conducts 2nd Landing Test of Pushpak at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga, Karnataka, marks a crucial step forward in the development of reusable launch vehicles (RLVs).

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Space Technology, Science and Technology)

Why in News

  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has achieved a significant milestone in reusable launch vehicle technology with the successful landing experiment of the RLV LEX-02.

Key highlights

  • The RLV LEX-02 mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the reusable launch vehicle from challenging initial conditions after release from a helicopter.
  • The experiment was conducted at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga, Karnataka.
  • This achievement signifies a crucial advancement in the development of reusable launch vehicles.

About Pushpak

  • The Pushpak RLV is designed as an all-rocket, fully reusable single-stage-to-orbit (SSTO) vehicle, incorporating several major elements such as the X-33 advanced technology demonstrator, the X-34 testbed technology demonstrator, and the upgraded DC-XA flight demonstrator.
  • Pushpak demonstrated autonomous landing capability from off-nominal initial conditions at release from a helicopter and performed difficult maneuvers with dispersions, correcting both cross-range and downrange to precisely land on the runway.
  • The mission successfully simulated the approach and high-speed landing conditions of an RLV returning from space.
  • The endeavor to launch RLV requires several state-of-the-art technologies, including accurate navigation hardware and software, a Pseudolite system, Ka-band Radar Altimeter, NavIC receiver, indigenous Landing Gear, Aerofoil honey-comb fins, and a brake parachute system.
  • The winged vehicle and all flight systems used in RLV-LEX-01 were reused in the RLV-LEX-02 mission after proper certification/clearances, demonstrating the reuse capability of flight hardware and flight systems.
  • Based on observations from RLV-LEX-01, the airframe structure and landing gear were strengthened to tolerate higher landing loads.
  • The mission was accomplished by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Liquid Propulsion System Centre (LPSC), and ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU), with collaboration from various agencies including the Indian Air Force (IAF), Aeronautical Development.

What is RLV

  • An RLV is a vehicle that is launched into space many times, which goes a long way in mitigating costs.
  • The idea of a re-usable landing vehicle was mooted to regain super expensive rocket boosters that are used for launching spacecraft.
  • It could be later used to refuel and reuse in space flights.

How are RLV LEX-01 and RLV LEX-02 similar to and different from each other

  • The flight systems and the wing body used in the first leg of RLV LEX were reused for RLV LEX-02.
  • After evaluating the results of the first experiment, ISRO made some improvements such as strengthening the airframe structure and landing gear so that Pushpak can tolerate higher landing loads during RLV LEX-02.
  • The difference between RLV LEX-01 and RLV LEX-02 is that in the first leg of the autonomous landing mission, Pushpak was released mid-air after certain predetermined conditions were achieved.
  • Meanwhile, for RLV LEX-02, Pushpak was subject to off-nominal conditions.
  • Therefore, ISRO not only successfully accomplished the autonomous landing of a reusable launch vehicle prototype but also demonstrated the reuse capabilities of flight hardware and flight systems.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to RLV LEX-02:

1. The launch of RLV LEX-02 by ISRO ensures the success of the reusable launch vehicle technology.

2. It has been launched from the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitra Durga, Karnataka.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news ? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

A. A mini satellite, launched by ISRO for promoting the distance educa­tion in India

B. The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan-II

C. A geoportal of ISRO with 3 D imaging capabilities of India

D. A space telescope developed by India

Answer: C

 

 

 

 

Answer 3 C

Explanation

·         The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has achieved a significant milestone in reusable launch vehicle technology with the successful landing experiment of the RLV LEX-02. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         The experiment, conducted at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga, Karnataka, marks a crucial step forward in the development of reusable launch vehicles (RLVs). So, statement 2 is correct.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 

Upscaled electric vehicle Manufacturing and Zero Emissions Mandate

Source: The Hindu

Context: EV manufacturing policy and proposal of an electric vehicle output quota for auto companies.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3 (Electric Vehicles and Application)

Why in News

  • The new electric vehicle (EV) policy aims to attract foreign investments amounting to a minimum of Rs 4,150 crore to set up manufacturing facilities within three years

New EV Policy and Its Implications

  • Two recent developments in the electric vehicle (EV) space have sparked significant interest.
  • One is the announcement of a proposal of an electric vehicle output quota for auto companies aimed at attracting global investments and promoting EV manufacturing with substantial value addition in the electric car segment.
  • The other development is the proposal of an electric vehicle output quota for auto companies, as suggested in the working paper of the Economic Advisory Council to The Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
  • The new EV policy aims to attract foreign investments amounting to a minimum of Rs 4,150 crore to set up manufacturing facilities within three years and achieve 50% domestic value addition in commercial production within five years.
  • Additionally, the policy includes a sharp reduction in customs duty on imported vehicles, with a minimum cost insurance freight value of $35,000 and above for five years.
  • It also allows the import of completely built EVs at a concessional duty, with a maximum allowance of 40,000 EVs over five years if the investment is $800 million.

Impact on Domestic and Foreign Players

  • The new policy has evoked a mixed reaction in the industry, with concerns over potential competition from foreign players and imported vehicle models.
  • The proposal to fix an EV output quota annually by the EAC-PM is seen as a potential game changer, but it awaits deeper support to become a reality.

Concerns and Speculations

  • There are speculations about the new competition, particularly in the expensive high-end car segment, which currently has a smaller market share in India.
  • The impact of targeted localization on the affordable car space and the mass market, which is dominated by domestic players, is not yet clear.
  • Domestic players are reportedly worried about the competition at this early stage of electrification, given the nascent EV production base, high cost curves, low volumes, and an immature market.

Regulatory Targets and Zero Emission Supply Mandate

  • The suggestion of the EAC-PM working paper to set an annual target or quota for EV sales for manufacturers is considered significant and important.
  • It is argued that relying solely on demand incentives is not adequate to create an assured, scalable market.
  • Therefore, a regulatory target for sustained fleet electrification and a zero emission supply mandate for EV manufacturers are seen as necessary.

Potential Benefits and Industry Acceptance

  • A supply mandate for manufacturers to produce and sell a certain share of their annual vehicle production as EVs is expected to put downward pressure on the cost curve, driving innovation, product diversification, and increasing choices for consumers.
  • This is seen as working in the interest of domestic manufacturers.
  • Surprisingly, a stakeholder opinion survey conducted in 2022 showed that original equipment manufacturers (OEM) are not unwilling to accept the zero emissions vehicle (ZEV) supply mandate, although they may have varying preferences for indicative targets across segments.

Conclusion

  • The proposed regulatory targets and zero emission supply mandate, along with stronger fuel economy standards and credit trading mechanisms, are expected to enable better leveraging of existing policies for quicker acceleration of the EV market.
  • This could lead to economies of scale, lower costs, and reduced subsidy burden, ultimately allowing the EV initiative to be more revenue neutral and accelerate supportive national battery development programs.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to new electric vehicle (EV) policy:

1. The announcement of the new EV policy aims to attract global investments and boost EV manufacturing with substantial value addition in the electric car segment.

2. The new EV policy aims to attract foreign investments amounting to a minimum of Rs 4,150 crore to set up.

Which of the above statements is/ are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Q. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Carbon monoxide

3. Nitrogen dioxide

4. Sulfur dioxide

5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: B

 

 

Answer 4 D

Explanation

  • The announcement of a new electric vehicle (EV) policy is aimed at attracting global investments and promoting EV manufacturing with substantial value addition in the electric car segment.
  • The new EV policy aims to attract foreign investments amounting to a minimum of Rs 4,150 crore to set up manufacturing facilities within three years and achieve 50% domestic value addition in commercial production within five years.
  • Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

 

World TB Day

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (India Health issue and government Initiatives)

Context: World TB Day: India’s Progress and Challenges in Eradicating Tuberculosis

Why in news

  • As India’s 2025 deadline to end tuberculosis (TB) approaches, the country faces both progress and challenges in achieving this ambitious goal.

State-wise Data about TB in India

  • India’s TB cure rate stands at 27.8 percent, with 11 states having rates lower than the national average, according to the India TB Report 2023.
  • These laggard states account for a third of India’s notified patients, with the majority residing in the Bimaru states (Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh).
  • The Bimaru states, known for lagging in key economic and health indicators, account for two-thirds of the population in states with cure rates below the national average.
  • Bihar reports the lowest cure rate at 12.2 percent, followed by Madhya Pradesh at 21 percent, Uttar Pradesh at 23 percent, and Rajasthan at 25.9 percent. Additionally, states like Goa and Maharashtra also exhibit low cure rates.
  • Among the 25 states with cure rates exceeding the national average are Lakshadweep, West Bengal, Sikkim, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and Gujarat, among others.

India’s TB Program

  • India aims to eradicate TB by 2025, five years ahead of the global sustainable development goal targets.
  • The National Strategic Plan for TB 2017-25 sets yearly targets for TB impact indicators, aiming to reduce the TB incidence rate and mortality rate by 2025.
  • The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) and PM-Nikshay focus on early diagnosis, ensuring patients complete treatment, and providing nutritional support, contributing to higher cure rates and reduced TB spread.
  • The availability of drugs, including costly medicines like bedaquiline, aids in curing many cases of multidrug-resistant TB (MDR TB).
  • Ongoing research on newer drugs and shorter treatment regimens aims to improve patient compliance and reduce the risk of drug resistance.

India’s TB Current Status

  • TB targets for 2023 were set at an incidence rate of 49-185 and a mortality rate of 5-7 relative to the population.
  • By the end of 2022, India’s TB incidence stood at 199, with a mortality rate of 24, showing improvements in cure rates and treatment success rates inching closer to the national target of 85 percent.
  • India still accounts for a third of global TB cases and deaths, with TB causing approximately 342,000 deaths in India in 2022.

Conclusion

  • MDR TB remains a concern, but the development of newer drugs is underway.
  • The National Strategic Plan for TB 2017-25 sets ambitious targets for TB impact indicators, reflecting India’s commitment to eliminating TB by 2025.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to tuberculosis:

1. India has set a deadline of 2030 to eliminate tuberculosis (TB).

2. India’s TB cure rate stands at 27.8 percent, with 11 states having rates lower than the national average, according to the India TB Report 2023.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. The monkeypox disease is caused by which of the following? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Protozoa

Answer: B

 

 

 

 

Answer 5– B

Explanation

  • India has pledged to end tuberculosis (TB) by 2025, five years earlier than the global Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) target of 2030.
  • This means there should be less than one case of TB for every 10 lakh people. However, the government has stated that 2025 is too short a time to eliminate TB from India. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • India’s TB cure rate stands at 27.8 percent, with 11 states having rates lower than the national average, according to the India TB Report 2023. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

Impact of Falling total fertility rate in India

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 1 (Population and Associated Issues), GS 3 (Public Health)

Context: What falling total fertility rate will mean for India.

Why in news

  • India’s total fertility rate is (TFR) projected to decline to 1.29 by 2050 and slip further to 1.04 by 2100, according to a study published in The Lancet, a weekly medical journal.

Key highlights

  • A survey carried out by the government had similarly estimated that India’s TFR was already below the replacement rate.
  • The fifth round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) carried out between 2019 and 2021 estimated the country’s TFR at 2, with the rate for urban areas at 1.6 and for rural areas at 2.1.
  • A declining TFR means fewer babies will be born in future, and that results in a slower growth of the population before it begins to decline.
  • The article in The Lancet, based on a study by the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation, a population health research organization based at the University of Washington School of Medicine, estimates that the number of live births in India in 2050 at 13.03 million, against 22.39 million in 2021. And, the numbers will decline further to 3.79 million in 2100.

Why is TFR an important population metric

  • Since it is an indicator of the number of children likely to be born to a female, it helps policymakers and demographers to make projections of how the population of a community, region and nation will change over a period of time.
  • It is an important input for deciding policy interventions that will be required to alter the pace of population growth and also for planning for the creation of infrastructure and production of food crops.
  • It also helps countries estimate changes that would occur in the labour force and in deciding policies towards migrants.
  • For instance, a region with high TFR will need to create more schools and education institutions to ensure that the coming generations are educated and skilled to contribute to economic development.
  • A region with falling TFR and an ageing population will need to be more migrant friendly or may need to step up investment in healthcare for seniors.

What causes the TFR decline

  • The TFR tends to fall with a rise in the education level of girls and greater participation of women in paid work.
  • An increase in the number of years in school and enrolment in higher education delays the age of marriage, which then leads to a delay in motherhood.
  • When the age at which a woman has her first child rises, there is a decline in the number of children she is likely to have.
  • The rising empowerment of women has lowered the TFR across the world.
  • The cost of raising a child has also contributed to the decline of the TFR.
  • The study by the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation notes that the global fertility rates have halved between 1950 and 2021 from 4.84 to 2.23.
  • Global annual live births peaked in 2016 at 142 million and then declined to 129 million in 2021.

What does India’s official data say about TFR

  • India’s TFR declined from 3.4 in 1992-93 when the first round of NFHS was carried out to 2 when data for NFHS-5 was collected.
  • All states reported a decline in the TFR, and it is above the replacement rate in just a few states such as Bihar (2.98), Uttar Pradesh (2.35) and Jharkhand (2.26).
  • The NFHS-5 found that women without any schooling, on average, had 2.8 children compared with 1.8 children for women with 12 or more years of schooling.
  • Falling infant mortality rates and urbanization have also contributed to the decline of the TFR.

Where does falling TFR hurt

  • For nations with small population, a falling TFR is a cause for concern.
  • This is because there will be fewer and fewer young people joining the labour force.
  • A shrinking labour force can negatively affect the economic growth of a nation if it does not open up to allow immigrants to take up jobs for which it does not have enough workers.
  • After all, machines cannot replace humans in many activities.
  • Many European nations as well as rich East Asian economies such as Japan and South Korea are seeing their population shrink. South Korea’s TFR is below 1.
  • Eventually invert the demographic pyramid of a nation – there will be more older people than younger ones.
  • That poses another set of challenges including pressures on the health infrastructure and a decline in contributions to social security programmes.
  • The global study estimates that there will be just 49 countries with TFR above the replacement rate in 2050, and many of them will be in Africa.
  • By 2100, only six countries are expected to have TFR above the replacement rate.

Benefits

  • A lower TFR can be beneficial too. As the population growth slows and eventually shrinks, the pressure on the earth’s resources will reduce.
  • The pressure to grow more food could ease and carbon emissions might reduce.

 Impact on India

  • As the world’s most populous country, and a young one, a gradual decline in the TFR is desirable.
  • India has been nudging its people to restrict the number of children per family to two since the early years of Independence.
  • While the TFR has declined, the country’s population is set to rise for several more years before it starts shrinking.
  • The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs has estimated that India’s population in 2050 will be about 1.67 billion.
  • Within the country, some states may see the TFR fall more sharply than others.
  • But that’s unlikely to be a big worry as internal migration and mobility of labour would prevent labour shortages.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to total fertility rate is (TFR) in India:

1. The study published in the Lancet projected India’s TFR to decline to 1.04 by the year 2100.

2. The NFHS-5 estimated the TFR for urban areas in India to be 1.6, as per the survey carried out between 2019 and 2021.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. The total fertility rate is: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

A. The birth of women divided by the total female population

B. The number of births divided by the total population

C. The number of children a woman will likely bear in her lifetime

D. The births to women of a given age divided by the total number of women at that age

Answer: C

 

 

 

 

 

Answer 6– C

Explanation

  • India’s total fertility rate (TFR) is projected to decline to 1.29 by 2050 and slip further to 1.04 by 2100, according to a study published in The Lancet, a weekly medical journal. So, statement 1 is correct.

•         The fifth round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) carried out between 2019 and 2021 estimated the country’s TFR at 2, with the rate for urban areas at 1.6 and for rural areas at 2.1. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Therefore, option C is correct.

 

 

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top