24th April 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (24-04-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

Science and Technology: New type of host defence against Zika, dengue viruses revealed
Post-Independence History: Period between the third and fourth Lok Sabha elections – the era of Indira Gandhi
Economy: 26th World Energy Congress
Ecology and Environment: Tamil Nadu, Kerala to count Nilgiri tahrs in a first synchronised survey from April 29
Satellite imagery show significant changes in glacial lakes in Himalayas

 

New type of host defence against Zika, dengue viruses

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/new-type-of-host-defence-against-zika-dengue-infections-revealed/article68097589.ece#:~:text=The%20discovery%20of%20PS%2Dcoated,up%20avenues%20for%20further%20research.

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology, Viral Diseases)

 Context: Host defence against Zika and Dengue Virus

Why in news

  • Scientists have identified a novel defence mechanism the human body uses to prevent some viruses from transmitting via non-conventional routes

Key highlights

  • This fact has puzzled scientists for years, and now a research team has finally explained why.
  • On March 29, 2020, the World Health Organisation (WHO) posted a tweet that sparked concerns among scientists and prompted many to contact the WHO to say there was enough evidence to discredit the tweet’s contents, and suggest it steer clear of such assertions. The tweet was later proven to be factually incorrect but the WHO remained unconvinced for almost two years.
  • Transmission is a crucial event in a virus’s life cycle, yet studying it has been very tricky.
  • A virus that can’t transmit is of no consequence to anyone. Successful viruses have extraordinary adaptations selected through years of evolution to ensure they can jump to new hosts.

What does a virus do inside the body?

  • Most human viruses achieve this by ensuring they are present in bodily fluids that contact the outer environment, and subsequently, a new host.
  • Once inside the new host, a virus must be present at the correct location to infect new target cells.
  • Viruses are usually highly selective in the cells they infect. This phenomenon, called tropism, occurs because most viruses have special proteins on their outer surface that make contact with a receptor on the host cell.
  • Any cell-type that makes the receptor can be infected by the virus.
  • For example, the receptor for HIV is a protein called CD4. Only cells that make the CD4 protein,
  • such as T-cells and macrophages, can be infected by HIV. Similarly, SARS-CoV-2 uses a receptor called ACE2.
  • Cells of the respiratory tract and some cardiovascular cells all express ACE2, and are target cells for SARS-CoV-2.
  • HIV can’t infect respiratory cells, and SARS-CoV-2 can’t infect T-cells or macrophages.
  • Viral transmission is an outcome of a chase inside the host: between the virus making copies of itself and the immune system trying to destroy the virus and infected cells.
  •  The virus must transmit before the immune system beats it or the host dies.
  • One strategy viruses use to achieve this is by making proteins on the surface that have receptors on multiple cell-types. Such a strategy will allow them to infect different cell-types, allowing access to multiple body fluids, enabling faster transmission.

 

What is the PS receptor?

  • One such receptor is for a protein called phosphatidyl serine (PS). The PS protein is usually expressed by dying cells in the body, as a signal to the immune cells to destroy them.
  • The immune cells express the PS receptor and fuse themselves with these cells, quietly destroying them.
  • Viruses hijack this pathway with a process called apoptotic mimicry: by expressing the PS protein on their own surfaces, allowing them to infect the very cells that will destroy them.
  • The WHO’s tweet and its subsequent withdrawal exemplifies the difficulties of studying viral transmission.
  • The problem is especially challenging when we’re studying viruses that can use the PS receptor for entry. Since the PS receptor is expressed by many cells — apart from some cells of the immune system — the virus tends to be present in multiple compartments.
  • Yet, the mere presence of a virus in a given compartment wouldn’t guarantee transmission from that route.
  • For example, the Zika virus can be detected in semen, saliva, and breast milk but rarely spreads through these means despite the presence of target cells in the oral and genital cavities.
  • Zika transmits mainly via mosquitoes.

 

How does the body defend itself?

  • Now, scientists at the Institute of Molecular Virology at the Ulm University Medical Centre, Germany, have identified a novel defence mechanism the human body uses to prevent Zika and some other viruses from transmitting via non-conventional routes.
  • The study, published in the journal Nature Microbiology on March 25, explains how the body uses extracellular vesicles in these bodily fluids to inhibit viral infection.
  • Vesicles are small structures enclosed by fat that a cell uses to transport substances from one part of the cell to another. When they are secreted outside the cell, they’re called extracellular vesicles.
  • The researchers discovered that these extracellular vesicles are abundant in saliva and semen and contain the same PS proteins on their surface that viruses like Zika use for infection.
  • The team also discovered that the concentration of these extracellular vesicles that contain PS is low in the blood and high in saliva and semen.
  • Through a series of experiments, they demonstrated the PS-containing vesicles compete for the same receptors the viruses use for entry, thus crowding the latter out and preventing an infection.

What does the discovery portend?

  • The group also showed that all viruses that use the PS receptor for apoptotic mimicry — the dengue, chikungunya, West Nile, ebola, and the vesicular stomatitis viruses — are inhibited by the presence of extracellular vesicles.
  • The vesicles’ presence didn’t affect the infectivity of viruses that don’t use the PS receptor for entry, such as HIV and SARS-CoV-2.
  • The discovery of PS-coated vesicles for immunity represents a novel type of host defence against viral infection.
  • While it is too early to speculate on potential therapeutic applications from this discovery, it opens up avenues for further research.
  • One thought-provoking, but also far-fetched, notion arising from the study is the possibility that PS-containing vesicles in humans could have influenced the evolution of mosquito-borne viruses.
  • Perhaps these viruses were forced to look for an alternative when they couldn’t spread through saliva or semen, and, to paraphrase Michael Crichton.

 

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Zika virus:

1. The Zika virus, a mosquito-borne flavivirus, that is primarily spread by Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti.

2. The Zika virus has an DNA genome.

3. The first human cases were recorded in 1952 in Uganda and Tanzania.

Which of the above statement iss/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (2017)

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: C

 

Answer 1 B

Explanation

  • The Zika virus, a mosquito-borne flavivirus, that is primarily spread by Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Zika virus has an RNA genome, and thus a very high potential to accumulate mutations. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Discovered in 1947 in the Zika forest in Uganda from infected monkeys, the first human cases were recorded in 1952 in Uganda and Tanzania. So, statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

Period between the third and fourth Lok Sabha elections – the era of Indira Gandhi

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/lok-sabha-elections-after-wars-deaths-political-turmoil-the-era-of-indira-gandhi-9287333/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 1 (India after Independence)

Context: Indira Gandhi implemented significant reforms such as bank nationalization and abolition of royal families’ privy purses, apart from imposing emergency symbolising dark phase of democracy

Why in news

  • The period between the third and fourth Lok Sabha elections was marked by significant challenges for India. Various events left the young republic in a state of turmoil and uncertainty.

The Era of Indira Gandhi

  • Following the passing of Lal Bahadur Shastri, Indira Gandhi, daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru, emerged as a central figure in Indian politics.
  • She assumed the role of Prime Minister, navigating a political landscape fraught with tension and division.

A Changed Political Map

  • Based on the census of 1961, the fourth Lok Sabha election was held for 520 seats significantly higher than the 494 in 1962. Seventy-seven seats were reserved for SCs and 37 for STs. Votes were cast for 3,563 seats in state Assemblies (compared with 3,121 in 1962), of which 503 were reserved for SCs and 262 for STS.
  • India in 1967 was different in a few other ways too. The state of Nagaland had been established in 1963.
  • In 1966, Haryana became a separate state and Chandigarh was designated as a Union Territory (UT).
  • By 1967, many of the country’s 10 UTs – Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Goa, Daman and Diu, and Pondicherry Assemblies and Councils of Ministers. had Legislative

Turmoil in Politics

  • During his third term, Prime Minister Nehru grappled with severe drought, a food crisis, and soaring inflation rates.
  • These challenges tested the resilience of the nation and its leadership, setting the stage for a new era under the leadership of Indira Gandhi.

Political Endeavour

  • President of the INC: Indira Gandhi began her political career assisting her father and later served as the president of the Indian National Congress in 1960.
  • Tenure as Prime Minister: After her father’s death, she became the Prime Minister of India in 1966 and remained in power until 1977.
  • During her tenure, she implemented significant reforms such as bank nationalization and abolition of royal families’ privy purses.
  • Emergency: In 1975, she declared a state of Emergency in response to her conviction for an election offence, leading to widespread protests.
  • She called for elections in 1977 and lost, but she returned to power in 1980.
  • Liberation of Bangladesh: Gandhi supported the liberation movement in East Pakistan (resulting in the creation of Bangladesh) and led India to victory in the 1971 India-Pakistan War.
  • Operation Blue Star. In 1984, she ordered Operation Blue Star to remove extremists from the Golden Temple in Amritsar, which resulted in her assassination by her bodyguards who sought revenge for the bloodshed at Amritsar.
  • The Harmandir Sahib was then under the control of extremists led by Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale, who wanted an independent state for Sikhs.
  • Gandhi’s legacy is marked by her determination, political acumen, and significant contributions to India’s progress.

 

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. In the fourth Lok Sabha election in 1967, due to political uncertainty, no seats were reserved for SCs and for STs.

2. Based on the census of 1961, the fourth Lok Sabha election was held for 520 seats significantly higher than the 494 in 1962.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. The emergency declared by Indira Gandhi in 1975 comes under the purview of: (UPSC Prelims 2014)

A. Financial Emergency

B. State Emergency

C. Terrorist & Disruptive Activities Emergency

D. National Emergency

Answer: (D)

 

 

Answer 2– B

Explanation –

  • General elections were held in India between 17 and 21 February 1967 to elect 520 of the 523 members of the fourth Lok Sabha, an increase of 15 from the previous session of Lok Sabha. In the fourth Lok Sabha election in 1967, 77 seats were reserved for SCs and 37 for STs. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Based on the census of 1961, the fourth Lok Sabha election was held for 520 seats significantly higher than the 494 in 1962. Votes were cast for 3,563 seats in state Assemblies (compared with 3,121 in 1962), of which 503 were reserved for SCs and 262 for STs. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

26th World Energy Congress

Source: PIB

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2018624

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (India bilateral relationship) GS 3 (Energy resources)

Context: India is a country member of World Energy Council (WEC), with the aim of promoting sustainable supply and use of energy.

Why in news

  • India is showcasing its innovative technologies and power generation practices, at the 26th World Energy Congress, being held in Rotterdam, Netherlands, from 22nd April, 2024 to 25th April, 2024.

 

Key highlights

  • The India Pavilion at the Congress aims to be a hub for showcasing innovative technologies and power generation practices, reinforcing India’s commitment to environmental conservation on the global stage.
  • Central Public Sector Enterprises under the Ministry of Power, Ministry of New & Renewable Energy, Ministry of Coal and Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas are participating in the India Pavilion, giving a collective testimony to India’s leadership in global energy transition. About 26th World Energy Congress
  • The 26th World Energy Congress is expected to be a critical turning point for leadership on clean and inclusive energy transitions worldwide.
  • Themed ‘Redesigning Energy for People and Planet’, the four-day gathering marks the World Energy Council’s centenary in world energy.
  • According to the Council, the Congress seeks to explore the role of connected energy societies in driving forward global energy transitions in a world context which is less predictable, more turbulent and faster-shifting

 

About World Energy Council India

  • India is a country member of World Energy Council (WEC), a global body established in 1923, with the aim of promoting sustainable supply and use of energy.
  • WEC India is one of the earliest country members of World Energy Council, having joined the Council in 1924.
  • WEC India functions under the patronage of Ministry of Power, Government of India and with the support of the Ministries of Coal, New & Renewable Energy, Petroleum & Natural Gas and External Affairs.

 

About the World Energy Congress

  • It is the World Energy Council’s global flagship event.
  • It offers a unique platform for global energy leaders to explore new energy futures, critical innovation areas, and new strategies.
  • Held every three years and positioned as the flagship event of the World Energy Council, the Congress is the longest-running and most influential energy event in the world.

 

About World Energy Council

  • Formed in 1923, the Council is the UN-accredited global energy body, representing the entire energy spectrum, composed of more than 3,000 member organisations located in over 90 countries and drawn from governments, private and state corporations, academia, NGOs and energy- related stakeholders.
  • Roles: Informs global, regional and national energy strategies by hosting high-level events, publishing authoritative studies, and working through its extensive member network to facilitate the world’s energy policy dialogue.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. The 26th World Energy Congress, is being held in India.

2. The theme of the 26th World Energy Congress is ‘Redesigning Energy for People and Planet’.

3. India is a country member of World Energy Council (WEC).

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. only 3

D. 1.2 and 3

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (2016)

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.

2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A

 

 

 

Answer 3 B

Explanation

  • The 26th World Energy Congress, is being held in Rotterdam, Netherlands, from 22nd April, 2024 to 25th April, 2024. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The 26th World Energy Congress is expected to be a critical turning point for leadership on clean and inclusive energy transitions worldwide.
  • Themed ‘Redesigning Energy for People and Planet’, the four-day gathering marks the World Energy Council’s centenary in world energy. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • India is a country member of World Energy Council (WEC), a global body established in 1923, with the aim of promoting sustainable supply and use of energy. So, statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

Tamil Nadu, Kerala to count Nilgiri tahrs in a first synchronised survey from April 29

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/tamil-nadu-kerala-to-count-nilgiri-tahrs-in-first-synchronized-survey-from-april-29/article68098525.ece#:~:text=Five%20months%20after%20the%20launch,census%20starting%20from%20April%2029.

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 (Ecology and Environment, Conservation)

Context: Massive exercise of its kind doing for the first time in the country for the Nilgiri tahr.

Why in News

  • Five months after the launch of the Project Nilgiri Tahr, Tamil Nadu is all set to estimate the population of its State animal.

Key Highlights

  • Forest Departments of Tamil Nadu and Kerala will jointly count the population of the mountain ungulate in a three-day synchronised census starting from April 29.
  • Bounded count and double observer methods would be used to estimate the population of the species.
  • The survey would be carried out by 700 people.
  • The Eravikulam and Silent Valley National Parks of Kerala, which are contiguous with the tahr habitats in Tamil Nadu, would be covered.

Nilgiri Tahrs

  • Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats known for their “gravity-defying skills” in climbing steep cliff.
  • There are multiple references to Nilgiri Tahr in the Sangam Tamil literature. Two epics — Silappathikaram and Sivakasindamani — mention descriptions of the Nilgiri Tahr and its habitat.
  • Nilgiri tahrs prefer montane grasslands, with steep and rocky terrains at an altitude between 300 and 2,600 metres above sea level.
  • A little over 3,100 Nilgiri tahrs were believed to be living in highly fragmented habitats in the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, ranging between the Nilgiris in the north and the Kanniyakumari hills in the south, as per a 2015 study by WWF-India.
  • WWF-India, the Wildlife Institute of India and the Nature Conservation Foundation are involved in formulating scientific and accurate technique of population enumeration.

 

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Project Nilgiri Tahr was launched by Tamil Nadu government.

Statement 2: There are no references to Nilgiri Tahr in the Sangam Tamil literature.

 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

C.      Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

 

Q. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (UPSC Prelims 2020)

A.      Corbett

B.      Ranthambore

C.      Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

D.      Sunderbans

 

Answer C

 

 

Answer 4 C

Explanation

·         Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats known for their “gravity-defying skills” in climbing steep cliff.

·         Five months after the launch of the Project Nilgiri Tahr, Tamil Nadu is all set to estimate the population of its State animal.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • There are multiple references to Nilgiri Tahr in the Sangam Tamil literature. Two epics — Silappathikaram and Sivakasindamani — mention descriptions of the Nilgiri Tahr and its habitat.

·         Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

·         Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

 

 

 Satellite imagery show significant changes in glacial lakes in Himalayas

 

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/satellite-imagery-covering-the-catchments-of-indian-himalayan-river-basins-show-significant-changes-in-glacial-lakes/article68094828.ece  

UPSC Relevance: GS -3 (Climate Change, Ecology and Environment

Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) long-term satellite imagery covering the catchments of Indian Himalayan river basins from 1984 to 2023 have shown significant changes in glacial lakes.

Why in News

  • According to the ISRO, of the 2,431 lakes larger than 10 hectares identified during 2016-17, 676 glacial lakes have notably expanded since 1984.

Key Highlights

  • As per ISRO, 130 of Himalayan glacial lakes are situated within India, with 65, seven, and 58 lakes located in the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra River basins, respectively.
  • Of these lakes 601 lakes (89%) have expanded more than twice, 10 lakes have grown between 1.5 to 2 times and 65 lakes 1.5 times
  • The ISRO said that the elevation-based analysis reveals that 314 lakes are located in the 4,000 to 5,000 m range and 296 lakes are above 5,000 m elevation.

Glacial lakes

  • The glacial lakes are categorised based on their formation process into four broad categories, namely
  • Moraine-dammed (water dammed by moraine),
  • Ice-dammed (water dammed by ice),
  • Erosion (water dammed in depressions formed by erosion), and
  • other glacial lakes.
  • Among the 676 expanding lakes, the majority of them are Moraine-dammed [307] followed by erosion [265], other [96], and Ice-dammed [8] glacial lakes, respectively.

Relevance of study

  • Satellite-derived long-term change analyses provide valuable insights for understanding glacial lake dynamics.
  • Glacial lake changes are essential for assessing environmental impacts.
  • These studies will help in developing strategies for Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOF) risk management and climate change adaptation in glacial environments.

Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOF)

  • GLOFs are disaster events caused by the abrupt discharge of water from glacial lakes — large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier.
  • As a glacier withdraws, it leaves behind a depression that gets filled with meltwater, thereby forming a lake.
  • The more the glacier recedes, the bigger and more dangerous the lake becomes.
  • Such lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris.
  • In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas — this is referred to as a GLOF event.

Risk Assessment

  • The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which operates under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, has identified 188 glacial lakes in the Himalayan states that can potentially be breached because of heavy rainfall.
  • Thirteen of them are in Uttarakhand.
  • Rising surface temperatures across the globe, including India, have increased the risk of GLOFs.
  • Studies have shown that around 15 million people face the risk of sudden and deadly flooding from glacial lakes, which are expanding and rising in numbers due to global warming.

 

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following pairs:

 

  Organisation        Operates under
1. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Union Ministry of Defence
2. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Ministry of Science and Technology
3. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) Union Ministry of Home Affairs

 

Which among the above pairs is/are not correctly matched?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      All of the above

 

Q. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2021)

1.       The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.

2.       The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.

3.       The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      1,2 and 3

Ans: (D) 

 

 

 

Answer 5– D

Explanation

·         The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), operates under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

·         Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was established in August 1969. The Government of India constituted the Space Commission and established the Department of Space (DOS) in June 1972 and brought ISRO under DOS in September 1972. The Department of Space (DoS) is an Indian government department that is responsible for the Indian space program. The Prime Minister of India directly oversees the DoS. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

·         The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is the premier agency under the Department of Defence Research and Development in Ministry of Defence of the Government of India, charged with the military’s research and development, headquartered in Delhi. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

 

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