Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (23-02-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| National: Supreme Court invokes Article 142 |
| Science and Technology: Guinea Worm Disease Eradication |
| Geography- Earth’s Early Evolution: Fresh Insights from Rocks Formed 3.5 billion Years Ago |
| Economy: Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) |
| 100% FDI to be allowed in space sector |
| Dairy sector in India |
Supreme Court invokes Article 142
Source: Indian Express
Context: Supreme Court overturn Chandigarh mayoral poll results using Article 142.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Indian constitution and policy)
Why in news
- A bench comprising Chief Justice of India (CJI) DY Chandrachud, Justice JB Pardiwala and Justice Manoj Mishra declared the election result, including the election process for Chandigarh Mayor, as “contrary to law” and declared Kuldeep Kumar as a “validly elected candidate”.
On what grounds did the court strike down the result
- The court used its power under Article 142 of the Constitution to do “complete justice” and protect the sanctity of electoral democracy.
- Allowing such a state of affair would be destructive of the most valued principles on which the entire edifice of democracy in our country depends.
- The Bench said It was evident that “while the petitioner is reflected to have polled 12 votes, the eight votes which are treated as invalid were wrongly treated to be so”, and “each of those…invalid votes were in fact validly cast…in favour of the petitioner”.
- “We accordingly direct that the result of the election as declared by the presiding officer shall stand quashed and set aside,” the court said.
Why was this mayoral election important
- After videos showed Returning Officer Anil Masih marking ballot papers so they could be declared invalid,
- CJI Chandrachud observed that it was obvious that Masih had defaced the ballots,
- The court said it was “appalled” at the “mockery” and “murder” of democracy.
Constitutional Status of Municipalities in India
- In order to strengthen and activate the local self-governance of municipalities in the cities, in 1992, the 74th Constitutional Amendment of the Constitution was passed by the Parliament and a law was made which came into force from 1 June 1993 and a new part – 9(A) added.
- It is entitled ‘The Municipalities and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
- In addition, the act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution.
- This schedule contains eighteen functional items of municipalities. It deals with Article 243-W.
- The act gave constitutional status to the municipalities.
- It has brought them under the purview of justiciable part of the Constitution.
- The act aims at revitalizing and strengthening the urban governments so that they function effectively as units of local government.
About Article 142
- Article 142 provides discretionary power to the Supreme Court.
- Subsection 1 of Article 142 states that the SC in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
- Any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India.
- If at times law did not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put an end to a dispute in a befitting manner.
- An order to do complete justice must be consistent with the fundamental rights and cannot be inconsistent with the substantive provisions of the relevant statutory laws.
- It is used in judgements related to cleaning of Taj Mahal, release of A.G. Perarivalan, Bhopal gas tragedy case, etc.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 1. Which of the following statements about the article 142 is incorrect?
A. It does not provide discretionary power to the Supreme Court. B. Article 142 has been criticized on the grounds of the separation of powers doctrine. C. There is no specific guideline or rule provided by the law which explains when, where, and under which circumstances the Apex Court can invoke the said article. D. The SC in 1991 ordered Union Carbide Corporation to pay $470 million in compensation for the victims of the tragedy using article 142.
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Q. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (UPSC Prelims 2021)
A. Article 14 B. Article 28 C. Article 32 D. Article 44
Answer: A
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| Ans 1 A
Explanation
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Guinea Worm Disease Eradication
Source: The Hindu
Context: World’s Race to Eradicate Guinea Worm Disease Nears the Finish Line
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Diseases, causes and treatment)
Why in news
- The world is on the cusp of a remarkable achievement in public health as it approaches the eradication of Guinea worm disease.
Key highlights
- From over 3.5 million cases in the 1980s, the numbers dwindled to just six reported cases in 2023, according to the World Health Organization’s (WHO) recent epidemiological report.
- This dramatic decline underscores the significant progress made in combating the disease.
Infection Cycle
- Guinea worm disease, caused by the Guinea worm (Dracunculus medinensis), is a parasitic infection characterized by painful blisters, usually on the lower limbs, followed by the emergence of the worm through the skin, releasing larvae into water sources.
- While not immediately lethal, the disease debilitates individuals, particularly in regions with limited access to clean water and healthcare resources.
Legs Most Susceptible
- More than 90% of Guinea worm infections affect the legs and feet, causing excruciating pain as the worm emerges through the skin.
- The open wound left behind is prone to secondary infections, exacerbating the suffering of those affected.
- The disease disproportionately affects impoverished communities where access to clean water is a luxury.
India’s Success
- India successfully eliminated Guinea worm disease in the 1990s through a comprehensive approach involving surveillance, water safety interventions, and education.
- This achievement highlights the effectiveness of community engagement and intersectoral coordination in disease eradication efforts.
Challenges and Progress
- Despite significant progress, challenges persist, including the recent discovery of Guinea worms in animal reservoirs, particularly dogs, in Chad.
- This underscores the ongoing threat posed by the disease and the importance of maintaining vigilance and adaptable public health strategies.
Interplay of Health and Peace
- Civil unrest and poverty continue to hinder eradication efforts in some regions, emphasizing the interconnectedness of health and stability.
- Addressing these socio-political challenges is crucial to ensuring the success of eradication initiatives and safeguarding the progress made thus far.
Significance of Eradication
- The eradication of Guinea worm disease would not only represent a victory over a debilitating parasitic infection but also a testament to global solidarity in addressing health disparities.
- It highlights the profound impact of concerted efforts in uplifting vulnerable communities and underscores the collective moral responsibility towards public health.
- As the world approaches the finish line in the race against Guinea worm disease, it serves as a reminder of what can be achieved when humanity comes together to confront common challenges.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Which parasitic infection is characterized by painful blisters on the lower limbs, followed by the emergence of the worm through the skin, releasing larvae into water sources?
A. Malaria B. Guinea worm disease C. Dengue fever D. Chikungunya
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Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct?(2019)
A. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. B. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. C. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. D. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Answer: B
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| Answer 2– B
Explanation –
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Earth’s Early Evolution: Fresh Insights from Rocks Formed 3.5 billion Years Ago
Source: Down To Earth
Context: Earth’s Early Evolution: Fresh Insights from Rocks Formed 3.5 billion Years Ago
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 1 (Important Geophysical Phenomena)
Why in News
- The Earth approximately 4.5 billion years old, holds a rich history of its early evolution.
Key Highlights
- Researchers have long studied the dynamics of our planet during its formative years, characterized by vast oceans, frequent volcanic eruptions, and an atmosphere devoid of free oxygen and an ozone layer.
- Despite significant knowledge, there are still gaps in understanding the geological processes that drove the formations of rocks 3.5 billion years ago.
Insights from Ancient Rocks
- Ancient volcanic and sedimentary rocks dating back to the Archaean age, between 4 billion and 2.5 billion years ago, provide crucial evidence for understanding early Earth processes.
- These rocks, found in cratons—the oldest parts of today’s continents—serve as archives offering insights into past geological operations.
- For instance, the Singhbhum Craton in India’s Odisha state hosts rocks dating back 3.5 billion years, providing a window into early Earth’s surface processes.
Key Findings
- Recent research compared the Singhbhum Craton with similar sites in South Africa and Australia, all dating to approximately 3.5 billion years ago.
- The study revealed common features, including widespread submarine volcanic eruptions, shedding light on early Earth’s geological activities.
- These findings contribute to unraveling the planet’s evolutionary history and understanding the conditions that may have supported life during different geological epochs.
Methodology
- The research involved field-based studies and uranium-lead radiometric dating of rock samples to establish geological timelines.
- Comparisons with sites in South Africa and Australia highlighted similarities in volcanic activity, enriching understanding of ancient geological processes.
Significance of Discoveries
- These discoveries offer insights into Earth’s early tectonic activities, atmospheric processes, and potential habitable conditions during the Archaean era.
- By comparing cratons globally, researchers aim to construct a comprehensive model of ancient geodynamic processes, crucial for understanding early Earth’s evolution.
Implications for Further Exploration
- The study underscores the importance of further exploration into the geological history of ancient cratons worldwide.
- Understanding early Earth processes is essential for piecing together the planet’s evolutionary history and exploring the conditions conducive to life.
- This research opens avenues for deeper insights into Earth’s formative years and the emergence of life, highlighting the ongoing quest to understand our planet’s ancient geological wonders.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Archaean rocks geological period comprises the Peninsular region of India. 2. In India, Archaean rocks are found in eastern parts of Meghalaya. Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to the Geological Time Scale, which of the following statements is/are correct? ( 2015)
1. Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve. 2. Extinction of Dinosaurs happened in Jurassic period . 3. The Quaternary Period began with an ice age about 2 million years ago. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C
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| Answer 3 B
Explanation
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Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)
Source: DD News
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (MSP and Government welfare scheme)
Context: Cabinet Approves Increase in Sugarcane Prices for 2024-25 Season
Why in news
- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs greenlights hike in Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.
Key highlights
- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has given its stamp of approval to an upward revision in the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for the impending 2024-25 season.
- The newly sanctioned price is now fixed at Rs. 340 per quintal, with a designated sugar recovery rate set at 10.25%.
- This adjustment represents an approximate 8% surge compared to the FRP established for the ongoing season.
- The government’s decision is geared towards fortifying cane prices, thereby extending critical support to farmers, while simultaneously ensuring that sugar remains within affordable reach for consumers.
- This revamped FRP is anticipated to have a favorable impact on over 5 crore sugarcane farmers and their families, as well as thousands of other stakeholders associated with the sugar sector.
About Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)
- The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price that sugar mills must pay to farmers for their sugarcane.
- The FRP is set by the Union government’s Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
- The CCEA considers recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and feedback from the sugar industry and state governments.
- The FRP is set under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, which applies nationwide.
- The FRP is in the interest of sugarcane growers, ensuring they receive a guaranteed price for their produce.
- States also determine their own State Advised Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the FRP.
Significance of FRA
- The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price that sugar mills and factories must pay sugarcane farmers.
- It was introduced in 2009 and replaced the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP).
- The FRP is determined under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, and is applicable across the country.
- It ensures a guaranteed price to cane growers, regardless of whether sugar mills make a profit.
- The FRP is intended to alert farmers to the need to grow more or less cane in the next year.
- Some states, including Punjab, Haryana, Uttarakhand, UP, and TN, also announce a State Advised Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the FRP.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP):
1. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price that sugar mills must pay to farmers. 2. The FRP is determined under the MSP (Control) Order, 1966, and is applicable across the country.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses, and oil seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India. 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: D
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Answer 4: A Explanation: · The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price that sugar mills must pay to farmers for their sugarcane. It was introduced in 2009 and replaced the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP). It ensures a guaranteed price to cane growers, regardless of whether sugar mills make a profit. · So, statement 1 is correct. · The FRP is set by the Union government’s Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). · The FRP is determined under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, and is applicable across the country. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
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100% FDI to be allowed in space sector
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Internal security and Defence policies)
Context: New FDI policy allowing 100 % FDI can catalyze growth, innovation and global integration for India’s emerging new-space industry.
Why in news
- To capture larger share of global space economy, Prime Minister Narendra Modi-led Union Cabinet approved amendments to the existing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy on space sector.
Key highlights
- The liberalised entry routes under the amended policy are aimed to attract potential investors to invest in Indian companies in space,”.
- The amended policy extends the facility of up to 74% FDI under the automatic route for satellite manufacturing and operation, satellite data products and ground/user segment.
- Beyond 74%, these activities are under government route, Up to 49% FDI under the automatic route will be allowed for launch vehicles and associated systems or subsystems, and creation of spaceports for launching and receiving spacecraft.
- Beyond 49%, these activities will be under government route.
- Up to 100% FDI under the automatic route would be permitted for manufacturing of components and systems/sub-systems for satellites, ground segment and user segment.
FDI & it’s Impact the Space Sector
- FDI refers to investment in a country by foreign companies or entities.
- It is considered crucial for economic growth as it brings in capital, generates employment, facilitates transfer of technology, and integrates domestic companies into global value chains.
- It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
- In the space sector, increased FDI can provide Indian companies access to strategic capital and advanced technologies from global players.
- It can boost Innovation in space applications, infrastructure development, and manufacturing.
- By enabling partnerships with overseas investors and companies, India can enhance its capabilities and competitiveness in the global space economy.
Why Has India Liberalized Its FDI Policy for the Space Sector
- Capture larger share of $440 billion global space economy
- Enhance private sector participation for Atmanirbhar Bharat.
- Access advanced technologies and manufacturing expertise.
- Integrate Indian industry into global supply chains.
- Develop cutting-edge space products and infrastructure.
- Generate employment and growth across space value chain.
The New FDI Policy Affect the Indian Space Industry
- The liberalized FDI norms can profoundly impact India’s commercial space industry in these three key ways:
- Market Growth and Investment:
- Attract strategic and financial investors to emerging space startups
- Provide capital for developing launch vehicles, satellites and ground infrastructure
- Expand domestic space industry market size from $8.6 billion currently to $44 billion by 2033
- Innovation and Technology Development:
- Access cutting-edge technologies from global partners through joint ventures and tech transfers
- Boost R&D for space products tailored for commercial markets
- Foster a thriving space-tech startup ecosystem
- Global Integration and Competitiveness:
- Enable Indian space companies to collaborate with global majors
- Integrate domestic players into global supply chains
- Enhance cost competitiveness relative to international vendors
- Increase global market share across commercial space segments.
- Thus, the new FDI policy can catalyze growth, innovation and global integration for India’s emerging new-space industry.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 5. Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign Investment of 10% or more in a listed Indian company is considered as Foreign Direct Investment. 2. Foreign Investment in an unlisted Indian company (irrespective of threshold) is considered as FDI. 3. Entities from countries which share a land border with India are permitted to invest only under approval route. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only
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Q Consider the following: (2021)
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3. Global depository receipts 4. Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments? A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 3 only C. 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4 Ans: A
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| Answer 5– D
Explanation · According to the guidelines issued by the Government, foreign investment of less than 10% in a listed Indian Company is considered as Portfolio Investment. · Foreign Investment of 10% or more in a listed Indian company is considered as Foreign Direct Investment. · Further, Foreign Investment in an unlisted Indian company (irrespective of threshold) is considered as FDI. · FDI leads to both ownership and management control of a company, while FPI provides for only ownership in accordance with the shareholding. · According to the new regime, entities from countries which share a land border with India will now be permitted to invest only under approval route. · This means that the FDI proposal from bordering countries will now require government clearance, even if foreign investments for that sector is placed under approval route. |
Dairy sector in India
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Economy of Animals rearing)
Context: Role of dairy and livestock sector in Indian economy, Related issues and Initiatives taken to promote the sector
Why in news
- Recently Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF) or Amul has completed its golden jubilee.
About Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF)
- The GCMMF is the largest food product marketing organisation in India.
- As the apex organisation of the dairy cooperatives of Gujarat, it is the exclusive marketing organisation for products under the brand name Amul and Sagar.
Background
- Tribhuvandas Kishibhai Patel founded the organisation in 1946 and served as its chairman until his retirement in the 1970s.
- He hired Verghese Kurien in 1949, initially as the general manager, where Kurien guided the technical and marketing efforts of the cooperative.
- Kurien briefly became the chairman of Amul following Patel’s death in 1994, and is credited with the success of Amul’s marketing.
- Amul spurred India’s White Revolution, which made the country the world’s largest producer of milk and milk products, and has since ventured into overseas markets.
- In 1970, the cooperative spearheaded the “White Revolution” of India.
- To combine forces and expand the market while saving on advertising and avoiding competing against each other, the Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd., an apex marketing body of these district cooperatives, was set up in 1973.
- The Kaira Union, which had the brand name Amul with it since 1955, transferred it to GCMMF. Technological developments at Amul have subsequently spread to other parts of India.
- In 1999, it was awarded the “Best of All” Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award.
Dairy Sector in India
- The Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries (DADF) is responsible for dairy development in India.
- India is the world’s largest producer of milk and buffalo meat, and the second largest producer of goat meat.
- India’s milk production has grown from 146.31 million tonnes in 2014-15 to 230.58 million tonnes in 2022-23.
- The livestock sector grew at a compound annual growth rate of 13.36% from 2014-15 to 2021-22.
- Export of poultry products in the fiscal year 2022-23 touched notable 664,753.46 Metric Tonnes with a total worth of $134.04 Mn to over 57 countries.
- India’s exports of Animal Products in 2022-23 was $4,062.15 Mn which include the major products like Buffalo Meat ($3194.70 Mn), Sheep/ Goat Meat ($66.92 Mn), Other Meat ($2.18 Mn), Poultry Products ($134.04 Mn), Dairy Products ($284.65 Mn), Animal Casing ($40.87 Mn), Processed Meat ($1.47 Mn), Casein ($101.19 Mn), Albumin Eggs & Milk ($33.06 Mn), and Natural Honey ($203.07 Mn).
- Buffalo meat dominated the exports with a contribution of over 78.65% in total Animal Products export from India in 2022-23.
- The contribution to total Livestock GVA (at constant prices) was 30.19% of Agricultural and Allied Sector GVA and 5.73% of Total GVA in 2021-22.
- India ranks 5th in the world in terms of meat production. The total meat production in the country is 9.77 Mn Tonnes in the year 2022-23
Livestock Population
- There are about 303.76 million bovines (cattle, buffalo, mithun and yak), 74.26 million sheep, 148.88 million goats, 9.06 million pigs and about 851.81 million poultry as per 20th Livestock Census in the country.
Animal Husbandry and Dairying Schemes
- RASHTRIYA GOKUL MISSION: For development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds.
- Major Achievements/Interventions of Rashtriya Gokul Mission
- Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme- As on date 6.21 crore animals have been covered, 7.96 crores Artificial Insemination have been performed and 4.118 crores farmers benefitted under the programme.
- Promotion of IVF Technology in the country: As on date 19124 viable embryos have been produced out of this 10331 embryos transferred and 1621 calves born under the programme.
- Sex sorted semen production: Sex sorted semen production has been introduced in the country for production of only female calves up to 90% accuracy.
- Under the programme, subsidy of Rs 750 or 50% of the cost of sorted semen on assured pregnancy is available to farmers.
- DNA based Genomic selection: National Dairy Development Board has developed INDUSCHIP for selection of elite animals of indigenous breeds and 28315 animals have been genotyped using the chip for creating referral population.
- For the first time in the World, BUFFCHIP has been developed for genomic selection of buffaloes and so far, 8000 buffaloes have been genotyped for creating referral population.
- Animal Identification and traceability: 53.5 crore animals (cattle, buffalo, sheep, goats and pigs) are being identified and registered using polyurethane tags with 12 digit UID No.
- Progeny testing and Pedigree selection: Progeny Testing Programme has been implemented for Gir, Shaiwal indigenous breed of cattle and Murrah, Mehsana indigenous breed of buffalo.
- National Digital Livestock Mission: Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying has taken up a digital mission, “National Digital Livestock Mission (NDLM) with NDDB.
- This will help in improving the productivity of the animals, control diseases that affect both animals and humans, ensure quality livestock and livestock both for domestic and export markets.
- Breed Multiplication Farms: Subsidy of 50% (up to Rs 2 crore per farm) on capital cost (excluding land cost) is provided to private entrepreneurs under this scheme for establishment of breed multiplication farms.
- As on date the Department has approved establishment of 111 Breed Multiplication Farm.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the world’s largest producer of milk. 2. Verghese Kurien founded the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF) in 1946.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 |
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2014)
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: B
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| Answer 6– A
Explanation · The Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries (DADF) is responsible for dairy development in India. · India is the world’s largest producer of milk. India’s milk production has grown from 146.31 million tonnes in 2014-15 to 230.58 million tonnes in 2022-23. So, statement 1 is correct. · Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF)- Tribhuvandas Kishibhai Patel founded the organisation in 1946 and served as its chairman until his retirement in the 1970s. · He hired Mr. Verghese Kurien in 1949, initially as the general manager, where Kurien guided the technical and marketing efforts of the cooperative. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
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