22nd April 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (22-04-2024)

 

News at a Glance

 

Andhra Pradesh: UNICEF and TCS teams laud establishment of Atal Tinkering Labs in AP
Andhra Pradesh among top states in implementing Aadhaar-based payment systems
Science and Technology: Llama 3 – Large Language Model of Meta
International Relations: India delivers Brahmos Missile to Philippines
 European Union in South-East Asia
Public Health: Added Sugars in Nestle’s Baby food Sold in African and Asian Countries
Appointments: CRPF ADG Nalin Prabhat appointed chief of NSG

 

UNICEF and TCS teams laud establishment of Atal Tinkering Labs in AP

Source: The Hindu

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Apr/20/unicef-and-tcs-teams-laud-establishment-of-atal-tinkering-labs-in-ap

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Atal tinkering lab, Science and Technology Education

Context: Atal tinkering labs set up in Andhra Pradesh schools, hubs, and spokes models, and STEM-based programmes implemented by the government were examined.

Why in news

  • Representatives of UNICEF and Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) appreciated that Andhra Pradesh is ahead of other States in the country in taking advantage of Atal Tinkering Labs.

Key highlights:

  • UNICEF representatives from New Delhi, UNICEF representatives from Hyderabad officials from TCS, AP UNICEF Consultant T Sudarshan, and others visited Movva and Penamaluru Zilla Parishad High Schools in NTR district.
  • Atal tinkering labs set up in schools, hubs, and spokes models, and STEM-based programmes implemented by the government were examined.
  • The representatives of UNICEF and TCS praised the active responsibilities undertaken by other officials.
  • the teams discussed how 21st-century skills and STEM-based education can be strengthened in the State. The UNICEF representatives said that they are making a documentary on the performance of Atal Tinkering Labs in the State.

Atal Tinkering Lab

  • Atal Tinkering Labs is a sub-mission of the government of India’s Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).
  • These labs are designed to facilitate activity-based learning in designated institutions nationwide, to “Cultivate one Million children in India as Neoteric Innovators”.
  • The objective of Atal Tinkering Laboratories is to develop young people’s imagination, creativity, and curiosity, as well as abilities like physical computing, computational thinking, adaptive learning, and design mentality.
  • AIM provides financial assistance to Atal Tinkering Labs.
  • Each school with a tinkering lab receives Rs 20 lakh – a one-time grant of Rs 10 lakh for establishing and operationalizing the lab as well as expenses of Rs 10 lakh for a maximum of five years.

 

Purpose

  • The key purpose is to help student understand STEM (science, technology, engineering, and math) principles.
  • To this end, the labs have educational kits and equipment on electronics, science, robotics, sensors, 3D printers, computers, and open-source microcontroller boards.
  • They can also support additional facilities such as video conferencing and meeting rooms, can be added to the labs.
  • Additional objectives of the program encompass fostering a design mindset, adaptive learning, computational thinking, physical computing, and more.

 

UNICEF

  • The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), originally known as the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 11 December 1946.
  • Its aim was to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II.
  • UNICEF is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to advocate for the protection of children’s rights, to help meet their basic needs and to expand their opportunities to reach their full potential..

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to ATAL Tinkering Lab:

1. Atal Tinkering Labs is a sub-mission of the government of India’s Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).

2. US government  provides financial assistance to Atal Tinkering Labs..

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer 1– A

Explanation

·         Atal Tinkering Labs is a sub-mission of the government of India’s Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).

·         These labs are designed to facilitate activity-based learning in designated institutions nationwide, to “Cultivate one Million children in India as Neoteric Innovators”.

·         So, statement 1 is correct.

·         The objective of Atal Tinkering Laboratories is to develop young people’s imagination, creativity, and curiosity, as well as abilities like physical computing, computational thinking, adaptive learning, and design mentality.

·         AIM provides financial assistance to Atal Tinkering Labs.

·         Each school with a tinkering lab receives Rs 20 lakh – a one-time grant of Rs 10 lakh for establishing and operationalizing the lab as well as expenses of Rs 10 lakh for a maximum of five years.

·         So, statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, correct answer is option A.

 

 

 Andhra Pradesh among top states in implementing Aadhaar-based payment systems

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-among-top-states-in-implementing-aadhaar-based-payment-systems/article68088712.ece

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Digital payment infrastructure, Aadhaar, Financial Inclusion

Context : Women’s participation in employment under NREGA in A.P. consistently exceeded their demographic share.

Why in news

  • Andhra Pradesh is one of the top states in the implementation of Aadhaar-based payment systems (ABPS) with 99.1% of all registered workers and 99.8% of active workers eligible for it.

Key highlights

  • With only 1.07 lakh registered and 0.2 lakh active workers remaining to be eligible, the State stands out a leader in ABPS compliance nationwide, says a report titled ‘Navigating MGNREGA: Assessing Implementation and Impact in AP (2019-2024)‘ by the public policy watchdog group LibTech India.
  • In contrast, national-level figures show a lower eligibility rates, with only 69% all registered workers and 92% active workers being eligible for the ABPS.
  • As many as 7.9 crore registered workers and 1.04 crore active workers are yet to comply with ABPS requirements.

Aadhaar Payments Bridge System (APBS)

  • Under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS, APBS is in use since 2017.
  • After almost universal availability of Aadhaar number to every adult population, now Government of India decided to extend APBS for beneficiaries under the scheme.
  • The payment will land through APBS only to the account associated with APBS.
  • Despite the Andhra Pradesh State’s remarkable performance in ABPS eligibility, however, the mandatory implementation of the ABPS has brought about authentication hurdles and exclusionary practices, as per report.
  • These challenges have exacerbated administrative complexities and hindered workers’ access to timely wages.

MGNREGA in state

  • Report offers insights into the employment landscape shaped by the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) in Andhra Pradesh over five years.
  • In line with national trend, a notable 6% decrease was recorded in registered households from 89.76 lakh in financial year (FY) 2019-20 to 67.71 lakh in FY 2023-24, with occasional increases during the COVID-19 period.
  • Despite this decline, there has been a 15.2% increase in households engaged in work—from 40.4 lakh to 46.55 lakh.
  • However, there has been a consistent decline in the number of employed workers since FY 2020-21.
  • Moreover, there has been a significant 27.6% rise in person-days, rising from 2,002.25 lakh person-days in FY 2019-20 to 2,554.88 lakh person-days in FY 2023-24.

Weaker section participation

  • Aligning with national trends, SC and ST populations in A.P. secured a larger share of the NREGA employment, reflecting the State’s commitment to inclusivity.
  • Women’s participation consistently exceeded their demographic share, emphasising their crucial role in the workforce.

Technology

  • The report discusses the impact of technological interventions, particularly those of the National Informatics Centre (NIC).
  • These led to the removal of worker-friendly features and centralisation of control.
  • Discontinuing summer allowances to workers and the introduction of dual muster system were among the changes contributing to the challenges faced by workers and local officials, the report says.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. As per the current report,

1. Aadhaar Based Payment System is facing authentication hurdles in implementing MGNREGA in Andhra Pradesh.

2. Women’s participation in MGNREGA employment is less than their demographic share in A.P.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer 2– B

Explanation

·         Under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS, Aadhaar Based Payment System is in use since 2017.

·         Despite the Andhra Pradesh State’s remarkable performance in ABPS eligibility, however, the mandatory implementation of the ABPS has brought about authentication hurdles and exclusionary practices, as per a report titled ‘Navigating MGNREGA: Assessing Implementation and Impact in AP (2019-2024)‘ by the public policy watchdog group LibTech India.

·         These challenges have exacerbated administrative complexities and hindered workers’ access to timely wages. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Aligning with national trends, SC and ST populations in A.P. secured a larger share of the NREGA employment, reflecting the State’s commitment to inclusivity.

·         Women’s participation consistently exceeded their demographic share, emphasising their crucial role in the workforce. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, correct answer is option B.

 

 

Llama 3 – Large Language Model of Meta

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/what-is-llama-3-metas-most-sophisticated-and-capable-large-language-model-9280994/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life)

Context: Meta will be integrating its latest language model into its proprietary virtual assistant Meta AI.

Why in News

  • Meta has recently introduced its most capable Large Language Model and image generator, which updates pictures in real-time.

What is Llama?

  • Llama or Large Language Model Meta AI is a family of LLMs introduced by Meta AI in 2023.
  • The first version of the model was released in four sizes — 7B, 13B, 33B, and 65 billion parameters.
  • Parameters measures the size and complexity of an AI model. The 13B model of Llama outperformed OpenAI’s GPT-3 which had 135 billion parameters.
  • A significantly upgraded version of its first LLM was later released in 2023. Llama 2 was released in 7B, 13B, and 70B parameters and it was trained on 40 per cent more data when compared to its predecessor.

Features of Llama 3:

  • It is claimed to be most sophisticated model with significant progress in terms of performance and AI capabilities.
  • Llama 3, which is based on the Llama 2 architecture, has been released in two sizes, 8B and 70B parameters.
  • Both sizes come with a base model and an instruction-tuned version that has been designed to augment performance in specific tasks.
  • The model is equipped with Instruction-tuned version which enables AI chatbots to hold conversations with users.
  • It is the best open-source models that are on par with the best proprietary models available today.
  • It has also embraced an open-source ethos of releasing early and enabling the dev community to get access to the models while they are still in development.
  • For now, company has released text-based models in the Llama 3 collection of models. However, the company has plans to make Llama 3 multilingual and multimodal, accept longer context, all while continuing to improve performance across LLM abilities such as coding and reasoning.
  • All models of Llama 3 support context lengths of 8,000 tokens, allowing for more interactions, and complex input handling.
  • More tokens here mean more content input or prompts from users and more content as a response from the model.
  • The model is equipped with safety tools like Llama Guard 2, Code Shield, and CyberSec Eval 2.

Superiority of Llama 3 model:

  • It has improved capabilities like reasoning, code generation, and instruction making Llama 3 more steerable.
  • In benchmark evaluations, Llama 3 8B surpassed other open-source AIs like Mistral 7B and Gemma 7B.
  • It has outperformed Google’s Gemma 7B and Mistral’s Mistral 7B, Anthropic’s Claude 3 Sonnet in benchmarks such as MMLU 5-shot (Massive Multitask Language Understanding), GPQA 0-shot (A Graduate-Level Google-Proof Q&A Benchmark), HumanEval 0-shot (a benchmark for evaluating the multilingual ability of code generative models), GSM-8K 8-shot and Math 4-shot, CoT (maths and word problems).

Large Language Models:

  • Large language models (LLMs) are advanced artificial intelligence systems that process and generate human-like text based on vast amounts of data.
  • These models, like GPT (Generative Pre-trained Transformer) series, are trained on extensive datasets to understand and generate text in natural language.
  • They are a special class of Generative AI.
  • They utilize deep learning architectures, particularly transformer models, to learn patterns, relationships, and semantics in language.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following pairs

       LLM                                      Organisation

1.       Llama                :                Meta

2.       BERT                 :                Microsoft

3.       Gemma            :                Google

4.       ChatGPT          :                 OpenAI

Which among the following pair/pairs is correctly matched?

A.      Only 1

B.      Only 2

C.      Only 3

D.      All

 

Q. Consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2022)

1.       Aarogya Setu

2.       CoWIN

3.       DigiLocker

4.       DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2,3 and 4 only

C.      1,3 and 4 only

D.      1, 2 , 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

 

Answer 3 C

Explanation

·         Large language models (LLMs) represent a cutting-edge class of artificial intelligence systems capable of comprehending and producing human-like text through the analysis of extensive datasets.

·         They harness deep learning techniques, particularly transformer architectures, to discern patterns, understand semantics, and generate coherent language across various contexts.

·         Llama or Large Language Model Meta AI is a family of LLMs launched by Meta AI in 2023. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

·         BERT, short for Bidirectional Encoder Representations from Transformers, is a language representation model developed by Google. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.

·         Gemma is the most recent lineup for LLMs developed as part of the Gemini Models initiative. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

·         ChatGPT exemplifies a large language model (LLM), developed by OpenAI. It belongs to the category of transformer-based neural networks renowned for their proficiency in forecasting the subsequent word within a sequence of words. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

·         Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

 

India delivers Brahmos Missile to Philippines

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/brahmos-missiles-philippines-development-9280055/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 ( International Relations), GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology; Indigenization of Technology and Developing New Technology)

Context: Brahmos missile acquired from India would be deployed along the West Philippine Sea by Philippines, a move seen as a counter to China’s expansionist strategies.

 Why in News

  • India completed its first major defence equipment export order by delivering the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines as a part of a $375 million deal signed by the two countries.

 

India-Philippines Brahmos Deal:

  • The Philippines has entered into an agreement with BrahMos Aerospace Private Ltd. to procure a shore-based anti-ship version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
  • Under the contract, three missile batteries will be supplied, accompanied by comprehensive training for operators and maintainers, along with the essential Integrated Logistics Support (ILS) package.

 

Features of Brahmos:

  • BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine.
  • Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then gets separated.
  • The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in cruise phase.
  • The missile has a very low radar signature, making it stealthy, and can achieve a variety of trajectories.
  • The ‘fire and forget’ type missile can achieve a cruising altitude of 15 km and a terminal altitude as low as 10 m to hit the target.
  • Cruise missiles such as BrahMos, called “standoff range weapons”, are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire.
  • The BrahMos has three times the speed, 2.5 times flight range and higher range compared to subsonic cruise missiles.

 

Variants of BrahMos:

  • Land-Based: 
  • The land-based BrahMos complex has four to six mobile autonomous launchers, each with three missiles on board that can be fired almost simultaneously.
  • The upgraded land attack version, with capability of cruising at 2.8 Mach, can hit targets at a range up to 400 km with precision.
  • The ground systems of BrahMos are described as ‘tidy’ as they have very few components.
  • Ship-Based: 
  • The Naval version has been successful in sea-to-sea and sea-to-land modes.
  • The BrahMos can be launched as a single unit or in a salvo of up to eight missiles, separated by 2.5-second intervals.
  • These can target a group of frigates with modern missile defence systems.
  • Air Based:
  • BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30s, which have a range of 1,500 km at a stretch without mid-air refuelling.
  • Submarine-Launched: 
  • This version can be launched from around 50 m below the water surface.
  • The canister-stored missile is launched vertically from the pressure hull of the submarine, and uses different settings for underwater and out-of-the-water flights.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Brahmos:

1.       BrahMos is a medium range supersonic ballistic missile with indigenous propulsion system.

2.       Currently, it can operate from Land and Air borne surface only.

3.       Philippines is a first country to procure Brahmos from India.

Which among the following statement/s is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      3 only

D.      None

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

1.       Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.

2.       Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (D) 

 

 

Answer 4– C

Explanation –

  • BRAHMOS is a medium range supersonic cruise missile featuring various indigenous components. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • BrahMos has variants which can be launched from air based, land based as well as submarine-based surface. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Under the agreement with BrahMos aerospace private limited, Philippines became first country to purchase BrahMos from India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

 

European Union in South-East Asia

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/eu-image-failing-southeast-asia-9279961/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and Agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.

Context: As per the recent study, Israel-Hamas war has been by far the most “damaging” issue for the EU over the past 12 months.

Why in News

  • As per recent survey conducted by ISEAS-Yusof Ishak Institute in Singapore, the European Union reputation appears to have taken a hit in Southeast Asia.

Key Highlights of the Survey:

  • The researchers gathered the data by questioning some 2,000 representatives of academia, business, government and civil society.
  • The respondents come from Singapore, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Thailand, Vietnam, Cambodia, Myanmar, Laos and Brunei.
  • Less than 14% of the respondents see the EU as the leading champion of the global free trade agenda, down from almost 22% in last year’s survey.
  • Last year, the EU ranked second as the country or bloc Southeast Asians trusted the most to uphold the international rules-based order and international law.
  • However, in this year’s survey, the EU slipped into third place with its percentage score dipping to nearly 17% from 23%.
  • The bloc was behind the United Sates and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

EU supporting Israel:

  • As per the study, Israel-Hamas war has been by far the most “damaging” issue for the EU over the past 12 months.
  • Many in Southeast Asia see EU’s support for Israel and the carnage against Palestinians in Gaza as unacceptable.
  • Southeast Asians ranked the Gaza conflict as the most important geopolitical issue, beating the region’s own concerns, such as tensions in the South China Sea and a civil war raging in Myanmar.

Conflict with Malaysia and Indonesia:

  • the EU had been locked in a spat with Malaysia and Indonesia, the world’s two largest palm oil producers, over Brussels’ deforestation legislation.
  • As per the legislation, The EU plans to ban the import of goods that can be traced to deforestation.
  • Several Southeast Asian states say this unfairly impacts their agricultural sectors and doesn’t recognize the climate efforts they are making.

EU as a Third Front:

  • Although, EU’s position overall has weakened slightly, the overall assessment of the EU’s role remains strong and positive.
  • It has maintained its leading position as ASEAN’s preferred strategic partner in hedging against US-China rivalry.
  • EU is ASEAN’s fourth most important dialogue partner, after China, the US and Japan.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding European Union:

1.       The Maastricht treaty is associated with European Union.

2.       Schengen Area, is a specific area in Europe where one can move without visa/ passport checks.

3.       Only European Union countries are part of Schengen area.

Which among the following statement/s is/ are correct?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      All of the above

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union

2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities

3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

A.    Only one

B.    Only two

C.    All three

D.    None

Answer A

 

Answer 5 A

Explanation

·         The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 27 member states located primarily in Europe.

·         The Maastricht Treaty (also called the Treaty on European Union) was signed in 1992 by the members of the European Community further European integration. Among other it provides for established of various financial institutions established with European Union. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

·         The Schengen Area is a zone of countries within Europe that have abolished passport and other types of border controls at their mutual borders. It allows for the free movement of people within the area without the need for passport checks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·         Non-EU countries like Iceland, Norway, Switzerland, Liechtenstein are also the members of European Union. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

 

Added Sugars in Nestle’s Baby food Sold in African and Asian Countries

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/nestle-sugar-baby-food-india-asia-africa-harmful-9278215/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 (Issues Relating to Development and Management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources)

Context: World’s biggest baby cereal brand Cerelac, reportedly contained added sugars that averaged nearly 3 grams per serving when sold in Indian markets.

Why in News

  • According to the recent report published by Public Eye, a Swiss organisation, Nestlé’s products for babies in Asia, Africa and Latin America were found to contain added sugars, while the same products sold in Europe did not have it.

Findings:

  • The report faulted Nestlé for employing different nutritional standards in its offerings, depending on the country it served.
  • Nestlé also did not make the quantity of sugar content clear on the products’ packaging.
  • In Switzerland, Nestlé promotes its biscuit-flavoured cereals for babies aged from six months with the claim ‘no added sugar’, while in Senegal and South Africa, Cerelac cereals with the same flavour contain 6 grams of added sugar per serving,
  • Currently, Nestlé controls 20 percent of the baby-food market, valued at nearly $70 billion, according to Public Eye.

Why are Added Sugar Harmful for Children?

  • Free sugar or added sugar is added separately to a food item during preparation or processing.
  • It can “include natural sugars such as white sugar, brown sugar and honey, as well as other caloric sweeteners that are chemically manufactured (such as high fructose corn syrup).
  • Excessive consumption can lead to increased overall energy intake in a person’s overall diet.
  • It may be at the cost of food items having nutritionally adequate calories, eventually leading to an unhealthy diet.
  • The risks of contracting non-communicable diseases, such as diabetes, obesity and heart-related ailments, are then increased.
  • The excess sugar consumption by children is unnecessary and highly addictive. Children get used to the sweet taste and start looking for more sugary foods, starting a negative cycle that increases the risk of nutrition-based disorders in adult life.

Guidelines for Sugar Consumption:

  • WHO in its 2015 guideline recommended that “adults and children reduce their daily intake of free sugars to less than 10% of their total energy intake.”
  • It would be even healthier to consume less than 5% (roughly 25 grams per person a day) of free sugars.
  • WHO advises against the introduction of added sugars before the age of 2. A 2019 WHO study on baby foods also found that many products have “inappropriately high levels of sugar”.
  • However, the use of sugar is permitted under national legislation (of some countries) despite the fact that they go against World Health Organisation guidelines.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following Statements

1.       World Health Organisation (WHO) mandates that the consumption of sugar must be below 5% of total energy take per day.

2.       The legislation in India strictly prohibits the use of the added sugars in children food.

3.       FSSAI is the authority responsible for maintaining food quality standards in the country.

Which among the following statement/s is/are correct?

A.      2 and 3 only

B.      1 and 2 only

C.      1 only

D.      3 only

 

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      1 and 3

D.      2 and 3

 

Ans: C

 

 

Answer 6 D

Explanation

·         WHO in its 2015 guideline recommended that “adults and children reduce their daily intake of free sugars to less than 10% of their total energy intake.”

·         It would be even healthier to consume less than 5% (roughly 25 grams per person a day) of free sugars. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

·         There is not law specifying or prohibiting the added sugar content in children food in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

·         Food Safety and Standards authority of India is an autonomous statutory body responsible to maintain food quality standards in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

 

CRPF ADG Nalin Prabhat appointed chief of NSG

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/crpf-adg-nalin-prabhat-appointed-chief-of-nsg-9280534/

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 (Various Security Forces and Agencies and their Mandate)

Context: National Security Guard (NSG) was established in 1984 to handle high-risk situations

Why in News

  • Senior IPS officer Nalin Prabhat has recently been appointed as the Director-General of National Security Guard (NSG), the country’s counter-terrorism force.

What is National Security Guard?

  • The National Security Guard (NSG) is an elite counter-terrorism unit in India that operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • It was established in 1984 following the recommendation of the Justice M. P. Jain Commission, which was created in response to the 1984 anti-Sikh riots and the Operation Blue Star.
  • It is the second line of defence for the nation.
  • The motto of the organisation isSarvatra Sarvottama Suraksa.
  • It is designed to be employed as a specialised counter-terrorism force “only in exceptional situations.
  • It cannot to take over functions of the State Police Forces or other paramilitary forces.

Units of NSG

  • The NSG, made up of three units is accessible to a wide selection of the most cutting-edge weapons in the world:
  1. Special Action Group (SAG), which has candidates only from Indian Army soldiers for counter-terrorist as well as anti-hijacking operations
  2. Special Ranger Groups (SRG), which has candidates both from the border guarding forces like BSF, ITBP and SSB and Internal Security Forces such as CRPF, CISF, and Assam Rifles for strictly counter-terrorist operations
  3. Special Composite Group (SCG), which consists of personnel both from Army and CAPFs for counter-terror operations.
  • The electronic support group (ESG), positioned in Manesar, offers informational and technological assistance in addition to the three units mentioned above. A Group Commander-level official on assignment is in charge of the team.
  • Established in 1988, the National Bomb Data Centre (NDBC) aims to conduct research in the area of explosive engineering.
  • It deals with tracking, documenting, and studying each terrorist incident that occurs in the nation.

Role Of NSG:

  • The primary role of the NSG is to handle counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations, including hostage rescue, anti-hijacking operations, and combating other forms of terrorism.
  • The NSG is specifically trained and equipped to handle high-risk situations, and its personnel undergo rigorous training in marksmanship, close-quarters combat, explosives handling, and tactical operations.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding “National Security Guards”:

1. National Security Guard is a colonial era counter-terrorism organisation.

2. It is the second line of defence for India.

3. The power of NSG is overriding on state police force and other security forces.

Which among the following statement/s is/are not correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Q. Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2014)

(1). It is a surface-to-surface missile.

(2). It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.

(3). It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer  A

 

Answer 7– C

Explanation

·         The National Security Guard (NSG) is an elite counter-terrorism unit in India established in 1984. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

·         NSG is the second line of defence of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·         NSG is designed to be employed as a specialised counter-terrorism force “only in exceptional situations.

·         It cannot to take over functions of the State Police Forces or other paramilitary forces. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

·         Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

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