Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (21-03-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| International: World Happiness Index 2024 |
| Science And Technology: In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) |
| Economy: Direct Tax Collections Surge By 18.74% In Financial Year 2023-24 |
| India’s Top 1% Income and Wealth Shares Reach Historical Highs |
| National: Understanding House Terms and Poll Schedules |
| Khelo India Initiative |
World Happiness Index 2024
Source: Indian Express
Context: : Finland topped the World Happiness Report for 2024
UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS – 2 (Important International Institutions)
Why in news
- The World Happiness Report for 2024 was released recently, noting that while the top 10 countries in the list have remained the same since before the Covid-19 pandemic.
Key highlights
- Finland topped the list for the seventh year in a row, followed by Denmark, Iceland and Sweden.
- Israel too made it to the top five of the ranking.
- Meanwhile, Afghanistan was deemed as the least happy country, after Congo, Sierra Leone, Lesotho and Lebanon.
- The United States fell in ranking from 16th spot last year to the 23rd spot this year.
- This year, Canada took the 15th spot while the UK was at the 20, Germany at 24 and France at 27.
- Among Middle Eastern nations, the UAE was ranked at 22 and Saudi Arabia at 28.
- Among Asian nations, Singapore was at 30, Japan at 50 and South Korea at 51.
- While China ranked 60th, Nepal at 93, Pakistan at 108, Myanmar at 118, Sri Lanka at 128 and Bangladesh at 129th spots.
- Worldwide, women were less happy than men in every region, with the gender gap widening as they aged.
The top 10 happiness rankings of countries
- Finland
- Denmark
- Iceland
- Sweden
- Israel
- Netherlands
- Norway
- Luxembourg
- Switzerland
- Australia
What Report says about India
- India ranked 126th in this year.
- The report observed that in India, older age is associated with higher life satisfaction. However, older Indian women reported lower life satisfaction than older men.
- Education and caste played key roles, with older adults with secondary or higher education and those of higher social castes reporting higher life satisfaction than their counterparts without formal education and those from scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
About The World Happiness Report
- It takes into account six variables —
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- GDP per capita,
- Healthy life expectancy,
- Having someone to count on,
- Freedom to make life choices,
- Generosity,
- And freedom from corruption.
- It is supported by taking the average life evaluation data gathered by the Gallup polls for the 2021-23 period.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by World Happiness Index 2024?
1. Freedom to make life choices 2. Undernourishment 3. Child mortality 4. Freedom from corruption 5. Child stunting Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 only B. 2 , 3 and 4 only C. 1 and 4 only D. All of these
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Q. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (UPSC Prelims 2017)
A. World Economic Forum B. UN Human Rights Council C. UN Women D. World Health Organization Ans: A
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| Ans 1 C
Explanation · The World Happiness Report is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network. · It takes into account six variables — 1. GDP per capita, 2. Healthy life expectancy, 3. Having someone to count on, 4. Freedom to make life choices, 5. Generosity 6. And freedom from corruption.
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In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF)
Source: India Today
Context: Only women between the ages of 21 and 50 are eligible to give birth through In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) in India presently
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 2 (Health Government Policies & Interventions Issues Related to Women)
Why in news
- The late Punjabi musician Sidhu Moose Wala’s parents welcomed a kid through In-Vitro Fertilization (IVF), however the Union Health Ministry has brought attention to this matter.
About In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF)
- It is a medical procedure used to assist individuals or couples who are facing fertility challenges in achieving pregnancy.
- IVF is the most common and effective type of assisted reproductive technology (ART).
Process:
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- IVF is a complex process that involves retrieving eggs from ovaries and manually combining them with sperm in a lab for fertilization.
- Several days after fertilization, the fertilized egg (now called an embryo) is placed inside a uterus.
- Pregnancy occurs when this embryo implants itself into the uterine wall.
- The procedure can be done using a couple’s own eggs and sperm. Or IVF may involve eggs, sperm or embryos from a known or anonymous donor.
- The success rate of IVF depends on a number of factors including reproductive history, maternal age, the cause of infertility, and lifestyle factors.
IVF can be used to treat infertility in the following patients
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- Blocked or damaged fallopian tubes;
- Male factor infertility including decreased sperm count or sperm motility;
- Women with ovulation disorders, premature ovarian failure, uterine fibroids;
- Women who have had their fallopian tubes removed;
- Individuals with a genetic disorder;
- Unexplained infertility;
About Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
- It is defined as all techniques used to obtain a pregnancy by handling the sperm or egg cell outside the human body and transferring the embryo into the woman’s reproductive tract.
- These include – sperm donation, in-vitro-fertilisation (IVF) (where the sperm is fertilised in a lab), and gestational surrogacy (child is not biologically related to surrogate).
Salient Provisions of the Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act 2021
Rules for ART clinics & banks:
- Every ART clinic and bank must be registered under the National Registry of Banks and Clinics of India which will maintain a central database with details of such institutions.
- The registration of such clinics and banks is valid for five years and can be renewed for another five years.
- It may be cancelled or suspended if the institution violates the provisions of the Act.
Conditions for sperm donation & ART services
- A registered ART bank can screen, collect and store semen from men aged between 21 and 55 years. It can also store eggs from women aged between 23 and 35 years.
- Under Section 21(g) (i) of the Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021, the age limit prescribed for a woman going under ART services is between 21-50 years,
- A child born via an ART procedure will be deemed to be the couple’s biological child in the eyes of the law and is entitled to all such rights. The donor does not retain any parental rights over the child.
Consent and insurance coverage
- Such ART procedures require the written informed consent of both the couple and the donor.
- The couple seeking an ART procedure must provide insurance coverage for the female donor in case of loss, damage or death of the donor.
Regulation of ART processes
- The National and State Board formed under the Surrogacy Act 2021 are also expected to regulate ART services.
- These boards are to advise the government on policy, review and monitor implementation of the law, and formulate a code of conduct for ART clinics and banks.
Offences
- Offences under this Act include abandoning or exploiting children born through ART; sale, purchase, or trade of embryos; exploiting the couple or donor in any form; and transfer of an embryo into a male or an animal.
- Such offences are punishable with imprisonment up to 8 to 12 years and a fine up to Rs 10 to 20 lakhs.
- Clinics and banks are prohibited from advertising or offering sex-selective ART.
- Such an offence is punishable with imprisonment ranging between 5 to 10 years or/and a fine of Rs 10 to 25 lakhs.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding in vitro and in vivo fertilization?
1. In vitro fertilization involves fertilization outside the body, while in vivo fertilization occurs inside the female reproductive system. 2. In vitro fertilization involves fertilization inside the body, while in vivo fertilization occurs outside the female reproductive system. 3. In vitro fertilization is a form of artificial insemination, while in vivo fertilization relies on internal assistance to achieve fertilization. Code A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. Consider the following statements about In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): (UPSC Prelims 2019)
1. The name in vitro fertilization refers to the fact that the egg is fertilized by the sperm in the laboratory and not in the woman’s reproductive tract. 2. Fertility therapies are collectively called Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART). Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C
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| Answer 2– A
Explanation –
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Direct Tax Collections Surge By 18.74% In Financial Year 2023-24
Source: Business Today
Context: Direct tax is governed and administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Mobilization of Resources), GS – 2 (Government Policies & Interventions)
Why in News
- Gross direct tax collections in FY24 grew at 18.74 per cent for the Financial Year 2023-24.
Key highlights
- Net Direct Tax collections for the FY 2023-24 grow at over 19.88%
- Advance Tax collections for the FY 2023-24 stand at Rs. 9,11,534 crore which shows a growth of 22.31%
About Direct taxes in India
- Direct tax is levied on the income or profits of people. For example, a taxpayer pays the government for different purposes, including income tax, personal property tax, Fringe Benefits Tax, etc.
- The burden has to be borne by the person on whom the tax is levied and cannot be passed on to someone else.
- Direct tax is governed and administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
Major types of Direct taxes
Income tax
- It is a type of tax that is imposed on the profits and income earned during the year. Income tax is the most common example of direct tax. As the term “income tax” suggests, it is a tax levied by the Central government on income generated by individuals and businesses in a particular financial year.
- However, the amount payable for your income tax depends on how much money you earn under different heads of income.
- Additionally, for the financial year of 2023-2024, income tax is applicable to those with an annual income exceeding Rs 3 lakh per annum.
Transfer taxes
- A transfer tax is a charge levied on the transfer of ownership or title to property from one individual or entity to another. A transfer tax may be imposed by a state or municipality.
Entitlement tax
- This type of direct tax is the reason why people enjoy social programs like Medicare, Medicaid, and Social Security. The entitlement tax is collected through payroll deductions and is collectively grouped as the Federal Insurance Contributions Act.
Property tax
- Property tax is charged on properties such as land and buildings and is used for maintaining public services such as the police and fire departments, schools and libraries, as well as roads.
- Capital gains tax
- This tax is charged when an individual sells assets such as stocks, real estate, or a business. The tax is computed by determining the difference between the acquisition amount and the selling amount.
Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT)
- It is a tax owed by an employer on certain benefits provided to employees. These benefits can be in the form of financial or non-financial rewards and can include things like company cars, private healthcare, and educational benefits.
- FBT was abolished in India from 2009 onwards. However, companies still need to pay tax on certain types of employee benefits, such as health insurance and housing allowance.
About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
- It is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
- The CBDT is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance.
Functions
- Its functions include formulation of policies, dealing with matters relating to levy and collection of direct taxes, and supervision of the functioning of the entire Income Tax Department.
- CBDT also proposes legislative changes in direct tax enactments and changes in rates and structure of taxation in tune with the policies of the Government.
Structure
- The CBDT is headed by Chairman and also comprises of six members, all of whom are ex-officio Special Secretary to the Government of India.
- The Chairman Is the co-ordinating head, and each of the members has been assigned a specialized function.
- The Chairman and Members of CBDT are selected from Indian Revenue Service (IRS)
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Direct tax:
1. Direct tax collection in the financial year 2023-24 has shown increase of 18.74%. 2. Direct tax is imposed on the income or profits of the people. 3. Income tax, personal property tax, goods and services tax etc. come under this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, and 2 only
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Q. Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India? (UPSC Prelims 2021)
A. Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing. B. Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc. C. Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism. D. Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion. Ans: D
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| Answer 3 D
Explanation · Net Direct Tax collections for the FY 2023-24 grow at over 19.88% Advance Tax collections for the FY 2023-24 stand at Rs. 9,11,534 crore which shows a growth of 22.31%. So, statement 1 is correct. · Direct tax is a form of collecting taxes applicable on the general public by the means of their personal income and wealth generated. Direct tax is levied on the income or profits of people. So, statement 2 is correct. · Examples of direct tax include Income tax, corporation tax, minimum alternate tax, capital gain tax, securities transaction tax, commodities transaction tax, alternate minimum tax, estate duty, wealth tax, gift tax, and fringe benefit tax. · Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax for the entire nation. It results from the Combination of the Central and state indirect taxes. So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Therefore, option D is correct answer. |
India’s Top 1% Income and Wealth Shares Reach Historical Highs
Source: Indian Express
Context: India’s Top 1% Income and Wealth Shares Reach Historical Highs: World Inequality Lab
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS -3 (Income Inequality and Inclusive Growth)
Why in News
- According to a paper released by the World Inequality Lab, India’s top 1% income and wealth shares have reached historical highs and are among the highest in the world.
Key highlights
- In 2022-23, the top 1% income share in India was 22.6%, while the top 1% wealth share rose to 40.1%. These figures place India’s top 1% income share higher than that of South Africa, Brazil, and even the United States
- The paper, co-authored by economists Nitin Kumar Bharti, Lucas Chancel, Thomas Piketty, and Anmol Somanchi, highlights the growing inequality in India.
- It states that the “Billionaire Raj” led by India’s modern bourgeoisie is now more unequal than the British Raj led by colonial forces.
- The concentration of wealth and income among the top 1% in India has surpassed historical levels.
- The report also suggests that the Indian tax system may be regressive when viewed from the perspective of net wealth.
- It calls for a restructuring of the tax code, including the implementation of a “super tax” of 2% on the net wealth of the 167 wealthiest families.
- This measure could generate 0.5% of national income in revenues and create fiscal space for investments in areas such as health, education, and nutrition.
- The paper emphasizes the need for a comprehensive approach to address income and wealth inequality in India.
- It recommends a restructuring of the tax code to account for both income and wealth, as well as broad- based public investments in health, education, and nutrition.
- These measures aim to ensure that the benefits of globalization are accessible to all Indians, not just the elites.
Background
- The study also analyses the distribution of top income earners in India from 1922 to 2020 based on annual tax tabulations. It reveals that the share of national income going to the top 10% fell from 37% in 1951 to 30% by 1982.
- However, since the early 1990s, the top 10% share has steadily increased, reaching nearly 60% in recent years.
- In contrast, the bottom 50% of the population only received 15% of India’s national income in 2022-23.
Recent data
- The paper provides further insights into the income disparities in India. It states that the top 1% earns, on average, Rs 5.3 million, which is 23 times the average income of an Indian.
- Meanwhile, the average incomes for the bottom 50% and the middle 40% stand at Rs 71,000 and Rs 1,65,000, respectively.
- The concentration of wealth is also evident within the top 1%. In 2022-23, the top 1% wealth share accounted for 39.5% of total wealth, with the top 0.1%, top 0.01%, and top 0.001% holding 29%, 22%, and 16% of that share, respectively.
- The paper highlights the potential consequences of extreme income and wealth inequality. It suggests that such concentration of wealth can lead to disproportionate influence on society and government, particularly in contexts with weak democratic institutions.
- The authors express concern about the integrity of key institutions in India and the possibility of the country sliding towards plutocracy. They emphasize the importance of closely monitoring and challenging income and wealth inequality in India.
- In conclusion, the World Inequality Lab’s paper reveals that India’s top 1% income and wealth shares have reached historical highs, surpassing even countries like South Africa, Brazil, and the United States.
- The study calls for a restructuring of the tax code, broad-based public investments, and measures to ensure that the benefits of globalization are accessible to all Indians. It emphasizes the need to closely track and challenge income and wealth inequality in India.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to the report released by the World Inequality Lab:
1. The wealth share held by the top 1 percent in India has increased to 22.6%. 2. India has the highest share of top income after South Africa, Brazil and the United States. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following: (UPSC Prelims 2010)
A. Reduction of poverty B. Extension of employment opportunities C. Strengthening of capital market D. Reduction of gender inequality Ans: C
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| Answer 4 D
Explanation
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Understanding House Terms and Poll Schedules
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 2 (Parliament, Indian Constitution)
Context: The ECI announced a change in the counting date for Assembly seats in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh to June 2, instead of June 4.
Why in news
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) has advanced the date of counting for Assembly elections in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh to June 2, adjusting the poll schedule in response to the imminent expiration of the Legislative Assemblies’ terms.
Original Schedule
- Assembly elections in Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim were scheduled to be notified on March 20.
- Nominations could be filed until March 27, with withdrawal allowed until March 30.
- Voting for both Assembly and Lok Sabha elections was planned from April 19.
- Lok Sabha elections were set to be conducted in seven phases, culminating on June 1.
- Counting for all seats in Lok Sabha and the four Assemblies was initially planned for June 4.
Revised Schedule
- The ECI announced a change in the counting date for Assembly seats in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh to June 2, instead of June 4.
- This adjustment was made to align with the end of the Legislative Assemblies’ terms.
Constitutional Provisions
- According to the Constitution, state Assemblies and Lok Sabha have terms lasting five years from their first sitting.
- Article 172(1) states: “Every Legislative Assembly of every State, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as a dissolution of the Assembly”.
- For Lok Sabha, Article 83(2) states: “The House of the People, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as a dissolution of the House.”
- The term may be extended by Parliament during a Proclamation of Emergency.
- The Assemblies of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, inaugurated on June 3, 2019, will conclude on June 2, 2024.
Factors Considered by ECI
- The ECI evaluates various factors such as weather, festivals, and examinations when fixing election schedules.
- Logistics, including the availability of school buildings and teachers for election duty, are also considered.
- The date of expiry of the legislature’s term is a crucial determinant in scheduling elections.
Past Instances:
- While adjustments in poll schedules are not uncommon, altering the counting date after announcement is rare.
- In 2004, the Assembly term in Andhra Pradesh coincided with the counting date for Lok Sabha and other states, prompting the ECI to reschedule counting in Andhra Pradesh to May 11.
Conclusion
- Understanding the intricacies of house terms and poll schedules highlights the meticulous planning and considerations undertaken by the Election Commission to ensure the smooth conduct of elections and adherence to constitutional provisions.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 172(1) of the Indian Constitution specifies the term duration of state Legislative Assemblies. 2. The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by President during the proclamation of emergency. Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 2. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: D
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| Answer 5– B
Explanation · Article 172(1) of the Indian Constitution states that every Legislative Assembly of every state will continue for five years from the date of its first meeting. If the assembly is dissolved before the end of its full term, new elections will be held. So, statement 1 is correct. · The Parliament can extend the term of a state Legislative Assembly by one year during a national emergency. This extension can last up to six months after the emergency has ended. · the Parliament can extend the term of the Lok Sabha during a proclamation of emergency. · The Lok Sabha is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament. · The term of the Lok Sabha is five years from the date of its first meeting, unless it is dissolved. However, during a proclamation of emergency, Parliament can extend the term for up to one year at a time. · This extension can’t extend beyond six months after the emergency has ended. · The President of India can also dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister. · At the end of its five-year term, the House automatically dissolves, even if the President doesn’t issue a formal order of dissolution. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option B is correct answer.
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Khelo India Initiative
Source: DD NEWS
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 2 (Government Policies & Interventions Sports & Affairs)
Context: SAI Releases Over Rs 30.83 Cr Under New Khelo India Scheme
Why in news
- The Sports Authority of India (SAI) recently allocated funds of more than Rs. 30.83 crore for the financial year 2023-24, with an Out-of-Pocket Allowance (OPA) of INR 7,71,30,000 for 2571 Khelo India athletes.
Key highlights
- Top Indian athletes hailed this initiative by SAI, calling it a ‘true game-changer’.
- Under the long-term development program, approximately 3000 athletes have been identified as Khelo India athletes.
- These athletes receive an out-of-pocket allowance of ₹1,20,000 per annum per athlete, along with an additional ₹5 lakh allocated for each athlete towards training and competition expenses.
- The talented athletes who are a part of the Khelo India scheme receive a total annual scholarship of Rs 6.28 lakhs, which covers their training, coaching, diet, kitting, medical insurance, kits, and out-of-pocket allowance.
About Khelo India initiative
- This initiative was introduced by the Indian government in 2017 and serves as a dynamic platform to nurture sports talent and revive the sporting culture of India.
It encompasses the
- Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) (commenced 2018): Annual national competition for youngsters representing states.
- Khelo India University Games (KIUG) (commenced 2020): Showcases university students’ talent in sports.
- Khelo India Winter Games (Commenced 2020): Promotes winter sports in India.
About Khelo India Youth Games
- It is a national-level, multi-disciplinary sports competition for school and college students in India.
- The games are held annually in January or February and are part of the government’s Khelo India initiative.
- It aims to promote sports culture and identify sporting talent at the grassroots level.
- The previous 5 editions of the Youth Games have been held in Delhi, Pune, Guwahati, Panchkula and Bhopal.
- It is held in two categories, namely under-17-year-old school students and under-21 college students.
- The sixth edition of Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) was held in Tamil Nadu from 19 January to 31 January 2024.
Sports Authority of India (SAI)
- The Sports Authority of India (SAI) is an autonomous body established in 1984 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, under the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, Government of India.
- It is the apex national sports body responsible for the development of sport in India at all levels.
- SAI is an autonomous body established under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Functions of SAI
- To allot funds for the development of sports in India,
- To appoint coaches and administrators,
- To train athletes for international competitions.
- SAI does not have the power to enforce any laws or regulations relating to sports in India.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the other competitions is/are included under the Khelo India initiative?
1. Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2. Khelo India University Games (KIUG) 3. Khelo India summer Games Code A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. 2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. 3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: C
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| Answer 6– A
Explanation · Khelo India initiative was introduced by the Indian government in 2017 and serves as a dynamic platform to nurture sports talent and revive the sporting culture of India. · It encompasses the- · Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) (commenced 2018): Annual national competition for youngsters representing states. So, statement 1 is correct. · Khelo India University Games (KIUG) (commenced 2020): Showcases university students’ talent in sports. So, statement 2 is correct. · Khelo India Winter Games (Commenced 2020): Promotes winter sports in India. So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Therefore, option A is correct answer.
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