Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (1-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
|
| National: Citizenship (Amendment) Act Rules Silent on Fate of Rejected Applicants |
| Economy: India’s Rapidly Expanding Gig Economy |
| Change in IT Act yet to benefit MSMEs |
| Science And Technology: X-Class Solar Flare |
| Nuclear energy as a climate solution |
| History: 100 years of Vaikom satyagraha |
Citizenship (Amendment) Act Rules Silent on Fate of Rejected Applicants
Source: The Hindu
Context: Citizenship (Amendment) Act Rules aims to expedite citizenship for undocumented migrants from specific non-Muslim communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who entered India before December 31, 2014.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS – 2 (Government Policies & Interventions India and its Neighbourhood)
Why in news
- On March 11, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the Citizenship Amendment Rules, 2024, enabling the implementation of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) passed by Parliament in December 2019.
Issues and Concerns
- Ambiguity Surrounding Rejected Applications
- The rules lack clarity regarding the fate of applications rejected by empowered committees, particularly concerning the Matua community in West Bengal.
- Potential Consequences for Affected Communities
- Rejected applicants, especially those from the Scheduled Caste community who migrated from Bangladesh without proper documentation, face the risk of detention centers.
- Review Process by Empowered Committees
- While the Citizenship Act 1955 allows for a review application before the Central government, the rules do not specify measures for rejected applications.
- Moreover, the empowered committees, tasked with reviewing rejections, pose concerns regarding impartiality.
- Gap in Rules and Documentation Requirement
- The rules do not outline procedures for rejected applications. Additionally, while the CAA targeted undocumented migrants, the rules emphasize the importance of documentation, raising concerns for those lacking proper paperwork.
About the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019?
- The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 seeks to amend the Citizenship Act, 1955.
- The CAA provides citizenship on the basis of religion to six undocumented non-Muslim communities (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians) from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before 31st December, 2014.
- It exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920.
- The two Acts specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits.
Way Forward
- Implementing the CAA necessitates clear guidelines, transparent processes, and mechanisms to address community concerns.
- Clarity on rejected applications, accommodations for those lacking documentation, and safeguards against statelessness are vital for ensuring fair and inclusive implementation.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to CAA Amendment Act 2019:
1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) of 2019, aims to grant citizenship to illegal migrants from Pakistan , Afghanistan and Bangladesh. 2. The citizenship laws in India derived their origins from the constitution under Articles 5-11 and the Citizenship Act of 1955. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
|
Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3 Ans: A
|
| Ans 1 D
Explanation
|
India’s Rapidly Expanding Gig Economy
Source: Business Standard
https://businessindia.co/magazine/rise-of-the-gig-economy
Context: India’s gig and platform economy, currently comprising 8 million workers, is set to burgeon to 23.5 million by 2029-30 (NITI Aayog, 2022).
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Indian Economy)
Why in news
- A 2023 study by FICCI and Randstad India shows that 42.24% of startups in India are increasingly hiring temporary and gig workers.
Gig Economy
- A Gig economy is a free market system in which temporary positions are common and organisations contract with independent workers for short-term engagements.
About Gig Worker
- Definition and Classification: Gig workers, as defined by NITI Aayog, are individuals engaged in livelihoods outside the traditional employer-employee arrangement.
- They are classified into platform-based and non-platform-based workers.
- Platform workers rely on online software apps or digital platforms to connect with customers and provide services, operating within the framework of online platforms.
- Non-platform gig workers typically work in conventional sectors as casual wage workers or own-account workers.
About Platform Worker
- Legal Framework and Definitions: Section 2(35) of the Code on Social Security, 2020, defines “gig worker” for the first time.
- Platform workers are defined under Section 2(61) of the same code, engaged in platform work facilitated by online platforms.
Challenges
- Lack of Protections and Benefits: Delays in drafting and implementing rules exacerbate challenges for gig and platform workers.
- They lack protections such as paid leave, health coverage, and pension despite significant contributions to the economy.
Solutions
- Legislative Measures: The Rajasthan Platform-Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Act serves as a model for improving working conditions and providing social security.
- Proposed measures include establishing a welfare board, creating a registry for gig workers, and assigning unique IDs valid across platforms.
- law proposes a platform-based welfare cess on transactions to finance social security schemes.
India and Gig Economy
- In 2020, 7.7 million workers were engaged in the gig economy.
- The gig workforce is expected to expand to 23.5 million workers by 2029-30.
- At present about 47% of the gig work is in medium skilled jobs, about 22% in high skilled, and about 31% in low skilled jobs.
- Trend shows the concentration of workers in medium skills is gradually declining and that of the low skilled and high skilled is increasing.
- It may be expected that while the domination of medium skills would continue till 2030, gig work with other skills will emerge.
Steps Taken by Government of India for Gig Workers
- Code of Social Security, 2020: The Government has formulated the Code on Social Security, 2020 which envisages framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc. However, these provisions under the Code have not come into force.
- Platform workers are those whose work is based on online software apps or digital platforms. Non-platform gig workers are generally casual wage workers and own-account workers in the conventional sectors, working part-time or full time.
- e-Shram Portal: The Government has also launched e-Shram portal in 2021 for registration and creation of a Comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers including gig workers and platform workers.
- It allows a person to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, which is spread across around 400 occupations.
Way Forward
- Implementation of effective legislation can significantly improve working conditions and livelihoods for gig and platform workers.
- Focus should be on providing social security benefits and addressing issues like lack of paid leave and health coverage.
- NITI Aayog emphasizes the inclusion of mandatory points in new bills for skill development, financial support, and improved surveys.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Which of the following can be considered as part of the Gig Economy?
1. Gigs entail projects or assignments undertaken by professionals, with work executed within a specified timeframe. 2. Remuneration is based on deliverables achieved. 3. In a gig economy, temporary and flexible jobs are prevalent. 4. The gig economy disrupts the traditional model of full-time employment. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. All of these
|
Q. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B
|
| Answer 2– D
Explanation – · Project-Based Work: Gigs entail projects or assignments undertaken by professionals, with work executed within a specified timeframe. Remuneration is based on deliverables achieved. · Flexibility in Employment: In a gig economy, temporary and flexible jobs are prevalent. Companies often opt to hire independent contractors and freelancers instead of committing to full-time employees. · Shift from Traditional Employment: The gig economy disrupts the traditional model of full-time employment, where individuals typically remain in one position for extended periods, focusing on long-term careers. · Examples of Gig Jobs: Roles such as Ola drivers, freelancers, actors, and food delivery personnel exemplify temporary and flexible jobs prevalent in the gig economy. These positions often lack job security and social security benefits. · Therefore, option D is correct answer. |
Change in IT Act yet to benefit MSMEs
Source: The Hindu
Context: The new rule, which went into effect on April 1, 2024, requires companies to pay MSMEs within 15 days, or up to 45 days under an agreement.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Growth & Development Mobilization of Resources Industrial Policy)
Why in News
- The Finance Act 2023 added Section 43B(h) to the Income Tax Act, which allows companies to deduct any amount owed to Micro and Small enterprises (MSMEs) for goods supplied or services given within the 45-day deadline stipulated by the MSME Act, 2006.
Key highlights
- The goal of the new section is to ensure timely payments to MSMEs and maintain uninterrupted cash flow.
- However, if payments are not made within 45 days, the amount will be added to the company’s profit and taxed accordingly.
- The Tamil nadu Spinning Mills Association (TASMA) has written to the Finance and MSME ministries saying the clause has triggered a panic among suppliers and buyers in the textile value chain.
What is the new MSME rule?
- The new rule, which went into effect on April 1, 2024, requires companies to pay MSMEs within 15 days, or up to 45 days under an agreement. Companies that don’t pay MSMEs on time can’t deduct that expense from their taxable income, which could lead to higher taxes.
- The new rule also classifies MSMEs based on annual turnover, instead of “investment in plant and machinery”. This new classification aims to encourage MSMEs to grow and expand without losing the government’s benefits and incentives.
- Some businesses have requested a full financial year’s deferment of the rule, while others have requested that the 45-day time limit be extended.
About MSMEs
- MSME (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise) are regulated under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006.
- Earlier, MSMEs were categorized based on the amount invested in plant and machinery/equipment.
- With revised regulations effective from July 2020, annual turnover has also been added as a criteria.
What is the limit of micro, small, and medium enterprises
- The new MSME classification defines micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) based on investment and turnover:
- Micro enterprises: Less than ₹1 crore investment, less than ₹5 crore turnover
- Small enterprises: ₹1–10 crore investment, ₹1–25 crore turnover
- Medium enterprises: ₹10–50 crore investment, ₹25–250 crore turnover
- MSMEs can be proprietorship, partnership firms, companies, trusts, or societies. The classification applies to both manufacturing enterprises and enterprises that provide services.
Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) status
- Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) are the backbone of the Indian economy, contributing to 27% of the country’s GDP, 50% of exports, and one-third of manufacturing output. As of June 2023, there are 20.09 million MSMEs registered on the Udyam portal, including 19.4 million micro enterprises, 554,000 small enterprises, and about 52,000 medium-sized enterprises. MSMEs also generate jobs in the following sectors:
- Manufacturing: 360.41 lakh jobs
- Trade: 387.18 lakh jobs
- Other services: 362.82 lakh jobs
Recent Government Initiatives Related to MSMEs:
- Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) Scheme
- Credit Guarantee Trust Fund for Micro & Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
- A Scheme for Promoting Innovation, Rural Industry & Entrepreneurship (ASPIRE)
- Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC)
- Credit Linked Capital Subsidy for Technology Upgradation (CLCSS)
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between `15 crore and `25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
|
Q. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth? (UPSC Prelims 2011)
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups 2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 3. Implementing the Right to Education Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: D
|
| Answer 3 B
Explanation · In May 2020, the Atmanirbhar Bharat package announced a revision in the definition of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India, increasing the limits for investment and turnover. · Following this, the Government of India further revised the definition on June 1, 2020, raising the limits for medium enterprises to Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. · Contrary to statement 2, all bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) qualify under the priority sector. Both manufacturing and service sector MSMEs are eligible for classification under the priority sector based on certain criteria. · For manufacturing enterprises, classification is based on investment in plant and machinery, while for service enterprises, it is based on investment in equipment as per the MSMED Act, 2006. · Therefore, statement 2 is correct. So, correct answer is option B.
|
X-Class Solar Flare
Source: Live Science
Context: X-Class Solar Flare event underscores the significance of solar activity and its potential implications for terrestrial systems.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Science and Technology )
Why in News
- Earth recently experienced the impact of a potent X-class solar flare, leading to disruptions in radio communication over the Pacific Ocean.
Solar Flares: Explained
- Solar flares are immense explosions occurring on the surface of the sun when twisted magnetic-field lines suddenly snap, emitting large bursts of electromagnetic radiation.
- These eruptions are considered the most significant explosive events in our solar system and are observed as bright areas on the sun.
Effects on Earth
- The intense radiation emitted during solar flares can disrupt satellite communications, interfere with radio signals, and pose risks to astronauts in space.
- Moreover, heightened solar radiation can trigger geomagnetic storms, impacting power grids and causing auroras at lower latitudes.
Understanding X-Class Solar Flares
- Solar flares are categorized based on their strength, with X-class flares representing the most powerful eruptions.
- Each letter class signifies a ten-fold increase in energy output, akin to the Richter scale for earthquakes.
- X-class flares, occurring most frequently during solar maximum, are the largest explosions in our solar system.
Geomagnetic Storms
- Geomagnetic storms, major disturbances of Earth’s magnetosphere, stem from variations in the solar wind.
- These storms result in significant alterations in Earth’s magnetosphere, driven by sustained periods of high-speed solar wind and southward-directed solar wind magnetic fields.
- The most severe storms often accompany solar coronal mass ejections (CMEs), where billions of tons of plasma, along with embedded magnetic fields, impact Earth.
Classification
- X-class Flares (Big): They are major events that can trigger radio blackouts around the whole world and long-lasting radiation storms in the upper atmosphere.
- M-class Flares (Medium-Sized): They generally cause brief radio blackouts that affect Earth’s polar regions. Minor radiation storms sometimes follow an M-class flare.
- C-class Flares: Compared to X- and M-class events, C-class flares are small with few noticeable consequences here on Earth.
- The smallest ones are A-class (near background levels), followed by other flares.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Which type of solar flare is characterized by major events that can trigger radio blackouts around the whole world and long-lasting radiation storms in the upper atmosphere?
A. A-class Flares B. C-class Flares C. M-class Flares D. X-class Flares
|
Q. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only B. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only C. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Ans: C
|
| Answer 4 D
Explanation · X-class flares are the most intense type of solar flare, characterized by major events that can trigger radio blackouts around the whole world and long-lasting radiation storms in the upper atmosphere. · They are the largest and most powerful solar flares. · Therefore, option D is correct answer.
|
Nuclear energy as a climate solution
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 3 (Nuclear Energy)
Context: Brussels recently hosted a Nuclear Energy Summit, which was described as the most high-profile international meeting on nuclear energy to date.
Why in news
- Brussels Nuclear Energy Summit held recently brought together representatives from 30 countries, including heads of state, to discuss the role of nuclear energy in addressing global challenges such as climate change and energy security.
Key highlights
- The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) organized the event, considering it a “landmark” and a “turning point” in efforts to expand the use of nuclear energy for clean electricity generation.
- The summit aimed to build momentum and increase acceptance of nuclear energy, as many countries still have concerns about its use
Nuclear energy as a clean and low-carbon source of electricity
- Nuclear energy is being promoted as a potential substitute for fossil fuels, particularly for electricity generation, due to its minimal carbon footprint.
- The process of generating electricity from nuclear energy releases negligible emissions, resulting in a low greenhouse gas footprint.
- When considering the entire life cycle of nuclear energy, including activities such as reactor construction, uranium mining, waste disposal, and storage, the greenhouse gas emissions are estimated to be around 5 to 6 grams per kilowatt-hour.
- This is over 100 times lower than coal-fired electricity and about half the average of solar and wind generation.
- Nuclear energy also offers the advantage of being available consistently, unlike solar or wind power, which are dependent on seasonal or time variations.
- This makes nuclear energy suitable for baseload electricity generation.
Nuclear energy’s contribution to reducing greenhouse gas emissions
- Nuclear energy is already playing a significant role in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
- According to the IAEA, nuclear power generation helps avoid emissions of more than 1 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent annually.
- Over the past five decades, this has resulted in a cumulative avoidance of approximately 70 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent.
- The potential of nuclear energy to contribute to decarbonization pathways has been recognized by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and other organizations.
- Nuclear energy is prominently featured in many suggested decarbonization pathways, highlighting its importance in achieving global climate change goals.
Challenges and limitations of nuclear energy
- Despite the advantages of nuclear energy, there has been a lack of enthusiasm for its accelerated deployment.
- Currently, only 31 countries use nuclear energy for electricity generation, and the number of operational nuclear reactors has decreased over the past 20 years.
- One of the reasons for the slow growth of nuclear energy is safety concerns, particularly following incidents like the Fukushima accident in 2011.
- Additionally, nuclear power is currently the costliest form of electricity generation, requiring high investments, long construction times, and compliance with various regulations.
- Unlike solar and wind technologies, which have experienced significant cost reductions in recent years, nuclear technology has not seen similar breakthroughs.
- The development of small modular reactors, often discussed as a potential solution, is still in its early stages.
Nuclear energy gaining recognition at climate conferences
- In recent years, nuclear energy has gained visibility at annual climate conferences, such as the Conference of the Parties (COP).
- The IAEA has actively participated in these conferences, organizing side events and discussions on the potential of nuclear energy.
- During the COP28 conference in Dubai, representatives from 22 countries committed to working together to triple global nuclear energy installed capacity by 2050.
- This ambitious goal aligns with some pathways projected by the IPCC for achieving global net-zero emissions by 2050.
- The recognition of nuclear energy as a zero or low-emission technology in the final outcome of the Dubai conference was a significant milestone.
- It marked the first time nuclear energy was mentioned in any COP outcome, indicating a changing attitude towards nuclear energy in the context of climate change mitigation.
India’s position on nuclear energy
- India acknowledges the role of nuclear energy in its decarbonization plan and is planning for rapid expansion in the coming years. Currently, India has 23 operational nuclear reactors with a combined installed capacity of 7,480 MW.
- The country is constructing ten more reactors, with the aim of tripling the capacity to 22,480 MW by 2031-32.
- However, even after expansion, nuclear energy’s share in India’s total electricity generation capacity is expected to remain modest, likely not exceeding 5 percent.
- India’s focus on nuclear energy expansion alignswith its commitment to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and achieving its climate change goals.
Conclusion
- Overall, the push for nuclear energy as a climate solution is gaining momentum, with efforts to highlight its potential in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and providing a consistent and low-carbon source of electricity.
- However, challenges such as safety concerns and high costs continue to hinder its widespread adoption.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of nuclear energy in recent climate conferences?
1. Nuclear energy has remained largely unnoticed at annual climate conferences, such as the Conference of the Parties (COP). 2. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) has not been actively involved in discussions on the potential of nuclear energy at climate conferences. Code A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
|
Q. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
A. Some use uranium and others use thorium B. Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies C. Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises D. Some are State-owned and others are privately owned Ans: B
|
| Answer 5– D
Explanation · The statements given in the question inaccurately represent the role of nuclear energy at recent climate conferences. · In fact, nuclear energy has gained visibility at such conferences, with the IAEA actively participating in discussions and organizing events on its potential. · The correct answer is D as both statements are false. |
100 years of Vaikom satyagraha
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS I (Indian Freedom struggle and Revolt)
Context: Vaikom satyagraha- marked the dawn of temple entry movements across India
Why in news
- India’s one of the most supported and widely accepted protests, ‘Vaikom Satyagraha’, is celebrating 100 years.
About Vaikom Satyagraha
- Vaikom is a serene town in Kottayam, Kerala.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched on March 30, 1924 against the ban imposed on members of marginalized communities in the surroundings of Vaikom Mahadevar Temple.
- It marked the dawn of temple entry movements across India.
- It was launched by leaders in Kerala such as T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon and George Joseph, on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi.
- A march comprising of ‘upper caste’ Hindus who supported the reform commenced in Vaikom and ended at the capital of Trivandrum.
- They marched with 25,000 signatures of ‘forward caste’ Hindus, for opening the Vaikom’s temple roads to all castes.
- Large-scale participation of women was witnessed for the first time during the Satyagrata, marking the passage of women into the socio-political consciousness of the country.
- The protest sustained itself for more than one and a half years, leading to many arrests and satyagrahis being jailed.
- Even the Akalis from Punjab travelled to Vaikom to supply food to the protesters.
The role of Periyar
- Leaders such as Neelakandan Nampoothiri and George Joseph requested Periyar to lead the protest.
- Periyar accepted the request and led the protest making the protest successful. Thiru. Vi. Kalyanasundaram conferred the title Vaikom Veerar (Hero of Vaikom) on Periyar. Tamil Nadu played a pivotal role in Vaikom Satyagraha, which symbolised a struggle by the untouchables.
- Emperumal Naldų and Sivathanų Pillai were prominent leaders in Nagercoll, Tamil Nadu.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Vaikom Satyagraha:
1. It was launched by Veersalingam Pantulu in Andhra Pradesh. 2. It demanded the entry of untouchables in Hindu temples. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of the above
|
Q. In the of Indian history, which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Vaikom Satyagraha? (UPSC Prelims 2014)
1. It was a satyagraha against untouchability and caste discrimination. 2. Mahatma Gandhi participated in this Satyagraha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C
|
| Answer 6– B
Explanation · The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched in Kerala in 1924 and was led by K.P. Kesava. · The Vaikom Satyagraha created enthusiasm all over the country and volunteers began to arrive from different parts of India. So, statement 1 is incorrect · Vaikom Satyagraha demanded the opening of Hindu temples and roads to the untouchables. So, statement 2 is correct · Therefore, option B is correct answer.
|