18th March 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (18-03-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

National: Govt Approves E-Vehicle Policy
Environment And Ecology: Methane Emissions from Fossil Fuels Remain High: IEA
International: India and Belarus relations

 

Economy: Is India’s poverty rate really at 5%?
Employment status or wages in 10 years
Science and Technology: The HbA1C test
Awards: T M Krishna gets Sangita Kalanidhi award

 

 

Govt Approves E-Vehicle Policy

Source: The Hindu

Context: : Govt Approves E-Vehicle Policy To Boost Domestic Manufacturing Of Electronic Vehicles

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS – 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology Mobilization of Resources) GS-2 (Government Policies & Interventions )

Why in news

  • The Union government has recently introduced an e-vehicle policy aimed at encouraging and boosting domestic manufacturing of e-vehicles.

Key Features of the E-Vehicle Policy

  • The policy is designed to attract investments in the e-vehicle space, allowing Indian consumers access to the latest technology while supporting the Make in India initiative.
  • By promoting healthy competition among EV players, the policy aims to enhance the volume of production and economies of scale, ultimately reducing imports of crude oil, lowering trade deficits, and decreasing air pollution.
  • The policy requires companies to make a minimum investment of 4,150 Crore Rupees, with no cap set on maximum investment. Companies will have three years to set up manufacturing facilities and commence commercial production of e-vehicles.
  • Additionally, the policy limits the import of EVs to not more than 8,000 per year under this scheme.
  • The investment commitment made by the company must be backed up by a bank guarantee in lieu of the custom duty forgone.
  • Reasons for Introducing the E-Vehicle Policy
  • The introduction of India’s E-Vehicle Policy is driven by several pressing concerns.
  • India heavily relies on crude oil imports for its transportation fuel needs, leading to a significant trade deficit and exposure to global oil price fluctuations.
  • Furthermore, the increasing number of fossil fuel-powered vehicles has contributed to alarming levels of air pollution in Indian cities, posing serious health risks to the population.
  • The global trend towards electrification of transportation and India’s commitment to sustainable development have further necessitated the shift towards EVs.

Benefits of the E-Vehicle Policy for India

  • The E-Vehicle Policy holds immense potential to benefit India in multiple ways. By attracting global EV manufacturers, the policy is expected to lead to high volume production of EVs in the country, resulting in economies of scale and lower production costs.
  • This will make EVs more affordable for Indian consumers. The increased adoption of EVs will significantly reduce air pollution in cities, leading to positive impacts on public health and the environment.
  • Additionally, the growth of the EV industry will create new job opportunities and contribute to India’s economic growth.

Global EV Trends and India’s Position

  • The global EV market has experienced significant growth, with electric car sales exceeding 10 million in 2022, a 55% increase relative to 2021.
  • China has been at the forefront of this surge, contributing substantially to the increase in electric car sales.
  • India is still in the early stages of EV adoption, with the country’s large population, growing middle class, and increasing environmental consciousness presenting a huge opportunity for EV manufacturers.
  • However, India also faces several challenges such as inadequate charging infrastructure, high upfront costs of EVs, and limited domestic manufacturing capabilities.

Future Prospects of Electric Vehicles in India

  • The future of electric vehicles in India looks promising, with the government’s supportive policies and increasing consumer interest in EVs.
  • The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME) scheme aims to achieve sales penetration of 30% for private cars, 70% for commercial vehicles, and 80% for two and three-wheelers by 2030, laying a solid foundation for the EV market’s expansion in India.
  • To achieve these goals, India needs to focus on developing a robust charging infrastructure, incentivizing local manufacturing of EV components, and investing in research and development to improve EV technology.
  • Collaboration between the government, industry stakeholders, and academia will be crucial in realizing the full potential of EVs in India.

Various Initiatives to Promote E-Vehicles

  • The Indian government has implemented several schemes to Promote the use of electric vehicles
  • Including the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME I & II) scheme,
  • The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP),
  • Tax benefits, the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme,
  • The National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM),
  • Setting up of battery manufacturing units, promoting e-vehicles in public transport,
  • Ensuring last-mile connectivity, and the Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP).

About Electric Vehicles

  • An electric vehicle (EV) is a type of vehicle that uses one or more electric motors for propulsion instead of an Internal Combustion Engine (ICE).
  • EVs can beicles, EVs produce fewer emissions and are more energy-efficient, potentially saving money on fuel and maintenance costs.

Types of electric vehicles available

  • Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV): Fully powered by electricity. These are more efficient compared to hybrid and plug-in hybrids.
  • Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV): The vehicle uses both the internal combustion (usually petrol) engine and the battery-powered motor powertrain.
  • The petrol engine is used both to drive and charge when the battery is empty. These vehicles are not as efficient as fully electric or plug-in hybrid vehicles.
  • Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV): Uses both an internal combustion engine and a battery charged from an external socket (they have a plug). This means the vehicle’s battery can be charged with electricity rather than the engine.
  • PHEVs are more efficient than HEVs but less efficient than BEVs.
  • Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV): Electric energy is produced from chemical energy. For example, a hydrogen FCEV.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statement with reference to electric vehicles:

1. The government has set a target to achieve 30% electric vehicle penetration in the country by 2030.

2. To promote electric vehicle in country, National Electric Mobility Mission Plan was launched in 2024.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.

2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2ºC or even 1.5ºC above pre-industrial levels.

3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 1 B

Explanation

  • The Union government has recently introduced an e-vehicle policy aimed at encouraging and boosting domestic manufacturing of e-vehicles.
  • The policy is designed to attract investments in the e-vehicle space, allowing Indian consumers access to the latest technology while supporting the Make in India initiative.
  • The government has also set a target to achieve 30% electric vehicle penetration in the country by 2030. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • In India, the government has implemented several schemes to promote the use of electric vehicles (EVs). These include:
  • FAME I & II: Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles is a government scheme, which provides incentives for the purchase of EVs and the installation of charging infrastructure.
  • NEMMP: National Electric Mobility Mission Plan was launched in 2020. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

Methane Emissions from Fossil Fuels Remain High:IEA

Source: Down To Earth

Context: Methane Emissions from Fossil Fuels Remain High Despite Progress, US Tops List of Emitters: IEA

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS-3 (Important International Institutions Conservation Environmental Pollution & Degradation)

Why in news

  • The International Energy Agency’s (IEA) Global Methane Tracker 2024 reveals that methane emissions from fossil fuel use in 2023 were alarmingly high, nearing record levels at 120 million tonnes (Mt).

Emitters and Regional Trends

  • Despite minor fluctuations compared to 2022, the persistent emission of methane poses a significant challenge to global climate goals.
  • Of the total methane emissions, approximately 80 Mt were contributed by the top 10 emitter countries, with the United States and Russia leading the list.
  • While certain regions show signs of emission reduction, the overall trend remains troubling, highlighting the inadequacy of current efforts to combat methane emissions effectively.

Impact and Consequences

  • Methane, responsible for about 30% of the rise in global temperatures since the preindustrial era, exacerbates climate change.
  • The energy sector, comprising oil, natural gas, coal, and bioenergy, accounts for over one-third of human-induced methane emissions.
  • The continued emission of methane jeopardizes efforts to limit global warming to 1.5°C, as outlined in the Paris Agreement.

Importance of Mitigation Efforts

  • The urgency to mitigate methane emissions is underscored by the need to achieve the Paris Agreement’s temperature goals.
  • The IEA estimates that reducing methane emissions from fossil fuels by 75% by 2030 is imperative to meet these objectives.
  • However, achieving this target requires concerted efforts and substantial investments, estimated at around $170 billion.

Cost-Effective Solutions

  • Despite the substantial investment required, cutting methane emissions is deemed achievable and cost-effective.
  • The IEA suggests that nearly 40% of emissions from fossil fuels in 2023 could have been avoided at no net cost.
  • Furthermore, implementing existing methane policies and pledges could potentially reduce methane emissions from fossil fuels by 50% by 2030.

Challenges and Limitations of Pledges

  • While pledges and initiatives such as the Oil and Gas Decarbonisation Charter demonstrate industry recognition of the issue, they face criticism for their lack of specificity and comprehensive approach.
  • The focus on methane intensity targets, without considering absolute emission levels, raises concerns about the effectiveness of these initiatives in addressing the full scope of the problem.

Need for Action and Collaboration

  • The outcome of the Global Stocktake at COP28 emphasizes the imperative for countries to accelerate methane emission reductions.
  • While voluntary pledges and industry initiatives are steps in the right direction, they must be complemented by robust regulatory frameworks and international collaboration to achieve meaningful and lasting reductions in methane emissions from fossil fuels.

Understanding Methane

  • Methane is a powerful greenhouse gas and short-lived climate pollutant (SLCP) primarily emitted by human activities.
  • It has an atmospheric lifetime of around 12 years and severely exacerbates climate change. Per unit of mass, methane has a warming effect 86 times stronger than CO2 over 20 years.
  • Maximum possible reductions in methane emissions are essential to limiting atmospheric warming to 1.5°C.

About International Energy Agency (IEA)

  • The International Energy Agency is an autonomous inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
  • It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
  • It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialized countries to dependency on oil imports.

What is Methane

  • Methane is the simplest hydrocarbon, consisting of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms (CH4).
  • It is flammable and is used as a fuel worldwide. Methane has more than 80 times the warming power of carbon dioxide over the first 20 years of its lifetime in the atmosphere.
  • The common sources of methane are oil and natural gas systems, agricultural activities, coal mining, and wastes.

Initiatives to Tackle Methane Emissions

Indian Initiatives

  • Harit Dhara’ (HD): Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed an anti-methanogenic feed supplement ‘Harit Dhara’ (HD), which can cut down cattle methane emissions by 17-20% and can also result in higher milk production.
  • India Greenhouse Gas Program: The India GHG Program led by WRI India, Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is an industry-led voluntary framework to measure and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
  • National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): NAPCC was launched in 2008, aiming at creating awareness among various stakeholders on the threat posed by climate change and the steps to counter it.
  • Bharat Stage-VI Norms: India shifted from Bharat Stage-IV (BS-IV) to Bharat Stage-VI (BS-VI) emission norms

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statement with reference to recently released IEA’s Global Methane Tracker 2024:

1. According to the tracker, methane emissions in the year 2023 were 120 million tonnes, which is less than previous years.

2. The United States is the leading contributor among methane emitting countries, with a total of 80 million tonnes (MT).

3. Methane, which is responsible for about 30% of the increase in global temperatures since the pre-industrial era.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? (UPSC Prelims 2019)

 

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the sea floor.

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

 

 

Answer 2– C

Explanation –

·         According to the IEA’s Global Methane Tracker 2024, methane emissions from fossil fuel use in 2023 were alarmingly high, nearing record levels at 120 million tonnes (Mt). So, statement 1 is incorrect.

·         The provided information states that of the total methane emissions, approximately 80 Mt were contributed by the top 10 emitter countries, with the United States and Russia leading the list. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Methane, responsible for about 30% of the rise in global temperatures since the preindustrial era, exacerbates climate change. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 

India and Belarus Relations

Source: The Hindu

Context: India and Belarusian Foreign Ministerial Talks

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International Relations)

Why in News

  • During his visit to India from March 12 to 13, Belarusian Foreign Minister Sergei Aleinik engaged in crucial discussions aimed at bolstering bilateral relations between Belarus and India.

Key highlights

  • The talks, were held in the national capital, New Delhi.
  • Aleinik’s meeting with Union Minister Piyush Goyal primarily focused on enhancing bilateral trade ties.
  • The discussions delved into potential collaboration in the production of electric vehicles, agriculture machinery, and harvesting equipment.
  • Furthermore, Aleinik’s engagements with External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya emphasized the importance of strengthening cooperation in crucial areas including defence, health, pharmaceuticals, and fertilizers.
  • These discussions aimed at fostering closer ties and enhancing mutual benefits for both nations.

India Belarus Relations

  • India was among the first countries to recognise Belarus as an independent nation in 1991 following the dissolution of the Soviet Union.
  • Multilateral Cooperation: In multilateral forums such as the UN Security Council (UNSC) and the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
  • Belarus was crucial in supporting India’s candidacy for a non-permanent seat at the UNSC in July 2020.
  • India has consistently supported Belarus in its endeavours, including its membership in the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) and participation in international groups like the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU).
  • Partnerships A comprehensive partnership exists between the two nations such as Foreign Office Consultations (FOC), the Intergovernmental Commission (IGC), and the Joint Commission on Military Technical Cooperation.
  • Bilateral Agreements and Trade: Bilateral trade in 2022 amounted to US$ 223.77 million. Belarus is an important source of Potash fertilizers for India.
  • Indian Diaspora: The Indian community in Belarus is small, consisting of approximately 85 nationals and 476 students, mostly enrolled in Belarusian medical universities.

About Belarus

  • It is a landlocked country of eastern Europe.
  • Bordering countries: It borders Russia to the northeast, Ukraine to the south, Poland to the west, and Lithuania and Latvia to the northwest.
  • The capital and largest city is Minsk.
  • Languages: Spoken languages are Belarusian (official) 24%, but 70% speak Russian (official).
  • Ethnic Belarusians, who speak a language closely related to Russian and Ukrainian, make up more than three-quarters of the population.
  • Relief: Much of the country consists of flat lowlands separated by low level-topped hills and uplands.
  • About 40% of the country is forested; Białowieża Forest is one of the last and largest remaining parts of the immense primeval forest that once stretched across the European plain.
  • Rivers: The greater part of the republic lies in the basin of the Dnieper—which flows across Belarus from north to south on its way to the Black Sea.
  • The extreme south western corner of Belarus is drained by the Mukhavyets, a tributary of the Bug (Buh) River, which forms part of the border with Poland and flows to the Baltic Sea.
  • Climate: It has a cool continental climate moderated by maritime influences from the Atlantic Ocean.
  • Until it became independent in 1991, Belarus, formerly known as Belorussia or White Russia, was the smallest of the three Slavic republics included in the Soviet Union (the larger two being Russia and Ukraine).

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following countries:

1. Ukraine

2. Poland

3. Lithuania

4. Latvia

5. Russia

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with the Belarus?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All five

 

 

Q. Consider the following countries: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

1. Bulgaria

2. Czech Republic

3. Hungary

4. Latvia

5. Lithuania

6. Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border the Ukraine?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. Only five

Answer: A

 

 

Answer 3 D

Explanation

·         Belarus is a landlocked country, roughly one-third the size of Ukraine.

·         Its total land border length is 3,617 kilometers, including: 1,283 kilometers with Russia, 1,250 kilometers with the European Union, 1,084 kilometers with Ukraine, 398 kilometers with Poland, and 679 kilometers with Lithuania.

Belarus shares land borders with countries

·         Poland: To the west

·         Lithuania: To the northwest

·         Latvia: To the north

·         Russia: To the northeast, east, and north

·         Ukraine: To the south

·         Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

Is India’s poverty rate really at 5%?

Source: The Hindu

Context: India’s poverty rate declined to 4.5-5% in 2022-23, with rural poverty declining to 7.2% and urban poverty down to 4.6%.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3 (Poverty and government policies)

Why in News

  • According to NITI Aayog B.V.R. Subrahmanyam, the poverty rate in India has dropped to less than 5%. This claim is based on the findings of the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) conducted in 2022-23.

Key highlights

  • Poverty estimation in India is typically based on measuring income or consumption levels, as determined by committees such as the Tendulkar Committee and the C Rangarajan Committee.
  • The Tendulkar Committee, formed in 2009 with Suresh Tendulkar as its chairperson, recommended a shift in poverty estimation from calorie consumption levels. It also proposed a uniform poverty line basket for both rural and urban India, along with changes in price adjustment methods and the inclusion of private expenditure in education and health.
  • Estimating poverty is important for several reasons. First, it is a constitutional requirement in India, as the country aims to build an equitable society. Additionally, poverty estimation helps identify the extent of poverty in the country, enabling the government to formulate strategies and plans for poverty elimination. It also serves as a tool to measure the impact of welfare schemes implemented by the government.
  • However, poverty estimation in India faces several challenges. The country’s large population makes the task even more difficult. Typically, poverty is estimated based on the ratio of consumption and income, with households falling below a certain threshold considered below the poverty line. Determining the constituents of the poverty line basket is challenging due to varying prices across the country.
  • Currently, there is no officially declared income poverty line in India. Experts use the Tendulkar line adjusted for consumer price inflation and the World Bank’s purchasing power poverty line of $2.15 a day, both of which indicate a poverty rate of less than 5%.
  • Lifestyle patterns, including eating habits, also differ among regions in India, posing a challenge to poverty estimation. Disagreements between the Tendulkar Committee and the Rangarajan Committee further complicate the issue.
  • In conclusion, while NITI Aayog claims that India’s poverty rate is below 5%, poverty estimation in the country faces challenges related to population size, price variations, and differing lifestyle patterns.

Causes of Poverty

  • Limited Livelihood Opportunities: Lack of access to good jobs, especially in rural areas, keeps people trapped in poverty.
  • Social Inequality: Caste discrimination, gender bias, and lack of access to education disproportionately affect marginalized communities.
  • Low Productivity in Agriculture: The level of productivity in agriculture is low due to subdivided and fragmented holdings, lack of capital, use of traditional methods of cultivation, illiteracy etc.
  • Inequality in the Distribution of Income and Assets: The poor mainly consists of unskilled labor, which typically does not command a high enough level of wage income.
  • The benefits of the growth have been concentrated and have not “trickled down” sufficiently to ensure improved consumption among the lower income groups.
  • Lack of Access to Social Services: The lack of access to social services such as health and education compound the problems arising from inequality in the ownership of physical and human assets
  • Lack of access to Institutional Credit: The banks and other financial institutions are biased in the provision of loans to the poor for the fear of default in the repayment of loans.
  • Lack of Productive Employment :  The magnitude of poverty is directly linked to the unemployment situation. The present employment conditions don’t permit a reasonable level of living causing poverty.
  • Caste system: Caste system in India has always been responsible for rural poverty. The subordination of the low caste people by the high caste people  caused the poverty of the former
  • Social customs: The rural people generally spend a large percentage of annual earnings on social ceremonies like marriage, death feast etc. and borrow largely to meet these requirements. As a result, they remain in debt and poverty.
  • Vicious Circle of Poverty: Low level of saving reduces the scope for investment; low level of investment yields low income and thus the circle of poverty goes on indefinitely.

Government Initiatives to Reduce Poverty in India

  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Work (MGNREGA): It provides wage employment while also focusing on strengthening natural resource management through works that address causes of chronic poverty.
  • Flagship programmes like the Poshan Abhiyan and Anaemia Mukt Bharat have contributed to reduced deprivations in health.
  • Initiatives such as Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) and Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) have improved sanitation across the country.
  • The provision of subsidized cooking fuel through the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) has positively transformed lives in rural areas.
  • Initiatives like Saubhagya, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), and Samagra Shiksha have also played a major role in significantly reducing multidimensional poverty in the country.

Key Terms

  • Poverty: According to the World Bank, Poverty is pronounced deprivation in well-being and comprises many dimensions. It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity.
  • Poverty Line: The conventional approach to measuring poverty is to specify a minimum expenditure (or income) required to purchase a basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs and this minimum expenditure is called the poverty line.
  • Poverty Line Basket: The basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs is the Poverty Line Basket (PLB).
  • Poverty Ratio: The proportion of the population below the poverty line is called the poverty ratio or headcount ratio (HCR).

Pre-Independence Poverty Estimation

  • Dadabhai Naoroji through his book, “Poverty and Unbritish Rule in India” made the earliest estimation of poverty line (₹16 to ₹35 per capita per year).
  • The poverty line proposed by him was based on the cost of a subsistence or minimum basic diet (rice or flour, dal, mutton, vegetables, ghee, vegetable oil, and salt).
  • National Planning Committee’s (1938) poverty line (ranging from ₹15 to ₹20 per capita per month) was also based on a minimum standard of living perspective in which nutritional requirements were implicit.
  • In 1938, the National Planning Committee was set up by Subhash Chandra Bose under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru for the purpose of drawing up an economic plan with the fundamental aim to ensure an adequate standard of living for the masses.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to Poverty in India:

1. According to World bank India’s poverty rate has dropped to less than 5%.

2. Recently NITI Aayog Committee recommended a shift in poverty estimation from calorie consumption levels and proposed a uniform poverty line basket for both rural and urban India.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Q. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because (UPSC Prelims 2019)

 

A. Poverty rates vary from State to State

B. Price levels vary from State to State

C. Gross State Product varies from State to State

D. Quality of public distribution varies from State to State

 

Answer: B

 

 

 

Answer 4 C

Explanation

·         According to NITI Aayog B.V.R. Subrahmanyam, the poverty rate in India has dropped to less than 5%. This claim is based on the findings of the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) conducted in 2022-23. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

·         The Tendulkar Committee, formed in 2009 with Suresh Tendulkar as its chairperson, recommended a shift in poverty estimation from calorie consumption levels. It also proposed a uniform poverty line basket for both rural and urban India, along with changes in price adjustment methods and the inclusion of private expenditure in education and health. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 

Employment status or wages in 10 years

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Employment and Major taken steps by government)

Context: No major change in employment status or wages in 10 years

Why in news

  • Recently Bahutva Karnataka, a forum for concerned citizens and organisations, released a report titled ‘Employment, Wages and Inequality’, at the Press Club, Bengaluru.

Key highlights

  • The report analyses the progress in various employment-related indicators in the last decade, ever since the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) came to power, including employment generation, formalisation of jobs, and improvement in wages.
  • As the general elections draw near, the report also examines the progress of the NDA’s employment-related initiatives.
  • In April 2019, for instance, Prime Minister Narendra Modi claimed that 2.5 crore jobs have been added annually.
  • Data reveal that the share of formal employment with social security and other advantages attached to it has remained stagnant.
  • On the other hand, the number of self-employed individuals has increased substantially.
  • Further, while wage earnings have increased when adjusted for inflation, the increase is negligible.
  • The stagnation is reflected in the share of households earning less than the national floor level minimum wage (NFLMW).
  • About 34% of households in India earned less than the proposed NFLMW of ₹375 a day.
  • Further, wage inequality has resulted in widening the gap between the rich and the poor.
  • In 2022, the top 1% and 10% of the population held 22% and 57% of the national income, respectively, while the bottom 50% held 12.7%, according to data from the World Inequality Database.

According to Chart data Analysis

  • Data show that the share of employment in the formal sector remained below 25%.
  • The share of those who were self-employed remained above 50% by 2022-23.
  • While the share of self-employed women was the highest, it also saw the highest growth of 8% points from 56.5% in 2011-12 to 64.3% in 2022-23.
  • According to the report, between 2011-12 and 2022-23, women doing unpaid labour in their family business or farming rose from one in four to one in three due to lack of other remunerative employment and stagnant household earnings.
  • Data show there has not been any significant growth in income in the last five years across employment categories.
  • Further, many households still earn less than the NFLMW.
  • In 2019, an expert committee, set up by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, recommended that the NFLMW should be at least ₹375 per day and ₹3,050 per week.
  • Of the 34 States and Union Territories (UTs) analysed, in about 19 of them, more than 20% earned less than ₹375 a day or less than ₹3,050 a week in 2022-23.
  • In Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh, above 50% of the households earned less than this threshold.
  • The report adds that nearly 30 crore workers make less than the minimum wage.
  • The stagnancy in income growth among the majority of the population, when juxtaposed with India’s increased GDP per capita, hints at a widening gap between the rich and poor.
  • In the last 10 years, GDP per capita increased by 60%, while close to 35% of the total households earned less than the NFLMW.
  • The share of national wealth held by the wealthiest 10% of the population increased from 63% in 2012 to 64.5% in 2022, while the share held by the poorest 50% reduced further from 6.1% in 2012 to 5.6% in 2022 .

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to Employment status or wages in 10 years:

1. According to the recent report, the share of formal employment with social security benefits has remained stagnant over the past decade.

2. The report mentions that about 34% of households in India earned more than the proposed NFLMW of ₹375 a day.

3. Wage inequality has widened the gap between the rich and the poor, as indicated by the report.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. Disguised unemployment generally means (UPSC Prelims 2013)

 

A. large number of people remain unemployed

B. alternative employment is not available

C. marginal productivity of labour is zero

D. productivity of workers is low

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

Answer 5– C

Explanation

·         Recently Bahutva Karnataka, a forum for concerned citizens and organisations, released a report titled ‘Employment, Wages and Inequality’, at the Press Club, Bengaluru.

·         The report analyses the progress in various employment-related indicators in the last decade, ever since the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) came to power, including employment generation, formalisation of jobs, and improvement in wages.

·         The report states that the number of self-employed individuals has increased substantially over the past decade. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         The report mentions that about 34% of households in India earned less than the proposed NFLMW of ₹375 a day. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Wage inequality has widened the gap between the rich and the poor, as indicated by the report. So, the statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

The HbA1C test

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology)

Context: The HbA1C test & it’s significance to tackle diabetes

Why in news

  • India is estimated to have 10.13 crore people with diabetes, and another 13.6 crore people who are pre-diabetic, according to a nationwide study published in 2023.

Key highlights

  • Over 35% of Indians suffer from hypertension and nearly 40% from abdominal obesity, both of which are risk factors for diabetes.
  • India accounts for 17% of all diabetes patients in the world.
  • Prevention and early detection are key to helping combat this non-communicable disease burden,
  • According to 2018 ICMR guidelines, everyone older than 30 years should be screened for diabetes.

About HbA1C test

  • One of the most commonly-used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes (both type 1 and type 2) and to help manage diabetes, is the haemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) test, also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test.

How does the test work

  • Sugar enters bloodstream from the food you eat. The sugar, or glucose, attaches to the haemoglobin in your red blood cells. Haemoglobin is a protein that transports oxygen to all the cells of your body. Everybody has some sugar attached to their haemoglobin.
  • Those with pre-diabetes and diabetes, however, have more.
  • The HbA1C test measures the percentage of red blood cells that have sugar-coated, or glycated, haemoglobin.

Why is the test used to check for diabetes

  • A paper was published in the Cleveland Clinic Journal of Medicine in 2016 entitled ‘The role of haemoglobin A1c in the assessment of diabetes and cardiovascular risk’.
  • HbA1c was first discovered in 1955, but elevated HbA1c levels in diabetes patients were not noted until 1968.
  • Another eight years passed before HbA1c was correlated with blood glucose values in hospitalised patients with diabetes and was proposed for monitoring glycemia.
  • During the first few years of clinical use, HbA1c measures were inconsistent.
  • But as the importance of precise HbA1c measurements became apparent through studies that revealed better patient outcomes and mortality associated with lower average HbA1c, the need to reduce error margins in measurement became apparent.
  • The American Diabetes Association approved HbA1c as a diagnostic tool in 2009.
  • In 2011, after an expert consultation with the World Health Organisation (WHO), it said HbA1c could be used as a diagnostic test for diabetes “provided … stringent quality assurance tests are in place and assays are standardised to criteria aligned to the international reference values, and there are no conditions present which preclude its accurate measurement.”

What do HbA1C test results look like

  • The HbA1C levels are provided as either a percentage or in mmol/mol (which stands for millimoles per mole). A mole is a unit of measurement often used for chemical substances.
  • The higher the percentage, the higher blood glucose levels are.
  • An Hb1A1C below 5.7% is considered normal; between 5.7 and 6.4% may indicate you are pre-diabetic; and 6.5% or higher can indicate diabetes.
  • However, the test’s results may change under certain conditions, including if a patient has kidney or liver failure, severe anaemia or a blood disorder such as thalassemia.
  • They may even change if a person is in early or late pregnancy.
  • Generally, for those whose results indicate pre-diabetes or diabetes, doctors specify a goal to achieve specific HbA1C levels. But these vary from person to person and also depend on their age, health conditions, medications being taken, and other factors.

Who needs to take the test and when

  • According to the Indian Council of Medical Research’s Guidelines for Management of Type 2 Diabetes (2018), all individuals older than 30 years should be screened for diabetes.
  • Those with one or more risk factors including, among others, obesity, an increased waist circumference, a history of or being treated for hypertension, a history of heart disease, and a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome should be screened earlier.
  • Retests should be conducted after three years in case of normal glucose tolerance. If a person is pre-diabetic, retests should be annual.
  • Doctor may also ask you to be tested more frequently if, for instance, you’re planning to have a baby.

How does the test differ from others

  • While fasting and post-prandial or post-meal blood sugar tests give you blood sugar levels within a specific time frame, the HbA1C test reflects your average blood glucose levels over the last two to three months.
  • Also, while the traditional blood sugar tests may fluctuate depending on items in the person’s latest meal and when they last consumed it, the HbA1C test is independent of these variables, making it more reliable.
  • It can be taken irrespective of when the latest meal was consumed.

What are the test’s limitations

  • It is important to note the HbA1C test does not replace other tests and may be carried out alongside others, such as the traditional blood sugar tests to test for diabetes and pre-diabetes.
  • It also does not replace regular blood-sugar testing at home, which a doctor may have recommended, as the blood sugar levels may spike and dip through the day or night, and the HbA1C test may not capture this.
  • The test may also have limitations particular in India.
  • A 2013 paper published in the journal Diabetes Technology and Therapeutics noted that in some clinical situations, accurate measurements are harder to make.
  • These include having conditions like thalassaemia, structural haemoglobin variants in the population, iron-deficiency anaemia (which is relatively high in India), and the use of certain drugs.

About Diabetes

  • Diabetes mellitus is a non-communicable but chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas gland of the body is not able to make insulin or when the body cannot make good use of the insulin produced.
  • Insulin is the hormone that regulates blood sugar or glucose levels by facilitating cellular glucose uptake, regulating carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism, and promoting cell division and growth.
  • Insulin plays a crucial role in metabolism and helps the liver, muscle, and fat cells to store the glucose that the body does not require directly, which can be used later by the body in the form of energy.

Types of diabetes

  • Type 1 Diabetes: In this type, the body produces very little or no insulin. Therefore, a daily injection of insulin is required for the body to maintain blood glucose levels under control. It can develop at any age but mostly it affects children and adolescents.
  • Type 2 Diabetes: In this type, the body is not able to use the insulin that it produces. The remedy for this is a healthy lifestyle, increase physical activity, and a healthy diet. Some people with time may take oral drugs or insulin to keep their blood glucose levels under control. It is more common in adults and 90% mostly cases of Diabetes are Type 2 only.
  • Gestational Diabetes (GDM): In this type, glucose in the blood increases during pregnancy and may generate complications for both mother and child. It is also be seen that Gestational diabetes may disappear after pregnancy but affected women or children are at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding HbA1C test seen in news recently:

1. It is the most commonly used test to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes.

2. This test may fluctuate depending on items in the person’s latest meal.

3. It gives blood sugar levels within a specific time frame.

Which of the statements given above/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

 

Q. With reference to the use of nanotechnology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2015)

1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology

2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Neither 1 nor 2

D. All of the above

Answer: D

 

 

Answer 6: B

Explanation:

·         One of the most commonly-used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes (both type 1 and type 2) and to help manage diabetes, is the haemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) test, also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test.

·         HbA1c was first discovered in 1955, but elevated HbA1c levels in diabetes patients were not noted until 1968. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         While fasting and post-prandial or post-meal blood sugar tests give blood sugar levels within a specific time frame, the HbA1C test reflects our average blood glucose levels over the last two to three months. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Also, while the traditional blood sugar tests may fluctuate depending on items in the person’s latest meal and when they last consumed it, the HbA1C test is independent of these variables, making it more reliable. It can be taken irrespective of when the latest meal was consumed. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         Hence, all statements are correct.

 

 

 

T M Krishna gets Sangita Kalanidhi award

Source: The Hindu

 UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 1 (Art and Culture- Awards and Honours)

Context: The Sangita Kalanidhi is a yearly award given to a Carnatic musician

Why in news

  • Carnatic vocalist and Magsaysay Award winner T.M. Krishna has been selected for the Sangita Kalanidhi award of the Music Academy for 2024.

Key highlights

  • Nritya Kalanidhi has been awarded to Mohiniyattam exponent Neena Prasad who runs music academies in Chennai and Thiruvananthapuram, the two Sangeet Acharya awards were given to mridangam guru Professor Parasalla Ravi and Carnatic vocalist Geetha Raja who learned under the aegis of T Brinda, one of the foremost representatives of the Veenai Dhanammal school of Carnatic Music.

 

About The Sangita Kalanidhi awardee

  • The Sangita Kalanidhi awardee will preside over the academic sessions of the 98th Annual conference and concerts of the Music Academy to be held between December 15, 2024 and January 1, 2025, and will receive the award, together with those selected for the Sangita Kala Acharya, the TTK and the Musicologist awards at the Sadas on January 1, 2025.

About The Sangita Kalanidhi award

  • The Sangita Kalanidhi is a yearly award given to a Carnatic musician by the Madras Music Academy.
  • It’s the highest honor in the field of Carnatic music.
  • The award includes a gold medal and a birudu patra (citation). The name Sangita Kalanidhi comes from the words sangeetha (music), kala (art), and nidhi (treasure or ocean).
  • The award was established in 1942, and prior to then, the Music Academy’s annual conference was presided over by a senior musician or expert.
  • The award has since been given to the musician selected to preside over the conference.
  • The Sangita Kalanidhi is a landmark institution in the history of fine arts. It emerged as an offshoot of the All-India Congress Session held in Madras in 1927.

 

About Carnatic music

  • Carnatic music is commonly associated with southern India including the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu, but also practised in Sri Lanka.
  • It is one of two major genres of Indian classical music that evolved from ancient Hindu traditions, the other being Hindustani music, which emerged as a distinct form in northern India as a result of Persian and Islamic influences.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to Sangita Kalanidhi award:

1. The Sangita Kalanidhi award was established in 1942 by the Madras Music Academy.

2. It is given annually to a prominent figure in Carnatic music.

3. Carnatic music is one of the two major genres of Indian classical music, with Hindustani music being the other one.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

Q. To integrate cultural leaders into its meetings, which one of the following gives “Crystal Award”? (UPSC Prelims 2009)

A. Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation

B. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

C. World Health Organization

D. World Economic Forum

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

Answer 7– D

Explanation

·         The Sangita Kalanidhi award was established in 1942 by the Madras Music Academy. Prior to that, the academy’s annual conference was presided over by a senior musician or expert. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         The Sangita Kalanidhi award is an annual honor presented to a distinguished Carnatic musician by the Madras Music Academy. It is considered the highest recognition in the field of Carnatic music. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         Carnatic music is primarily associated with southern India and is not practiced extensively in northern India. It is one of the two major genres of Indian classical music, with Hindustani music being the other one. So, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

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