Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (16-02-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| National: Electoral Bonds |
| Requirements of Prison reforms in India |
| Ecology and Environment: Wildlife Protection Act amendment issue |
| Need to Triple Global Renewable Energy Capacity by 2030: Report |
| Action needed to address nexus of Climate, Hunger, and Conflict |
| Olive Ridley Turtles |
| International: 62nd Session of Commission for Social Development |
| World Government Summit 2024 |
| Australia’s ‘right to disconnect’ Bill |
| Defence: MILAN 2024 |
Electoral Bonds
Source: Indian Express
Context: SC Strikes Down Electoral Bonds Scheme As ‘Unconstitutional’
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Transparency & Accountability Government Policies & Interventions Elections Issues Arising Out of Design & Implementation of Policies)
Why in news
- Recently a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court gave its verdict on the legality of the electoral bonds scheme.
- Holding it “unconstitutional” in two opinions that pointed to a unanimous judgment.
What is the electoral bonds scheme
- The electoral bonds scheme allows corporations and individuals to anonymously donate money to political parties by purchasing electoral bonds from the State Bank of India (SBI).
- Notably, the SBI has sole access to the details of those who purchased electoral bonds. According to the scheme, the proceeds from any bonds, which are not encashed within 15 days of being issued, are to be deposited in the Prime Minister Relief Fund.
- It was first mentioned in a Union Budget speech in 2017 by then Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.
- The scheme was pushed as a solution to the issue of opacity in political parties’ funding.
- Political parties continue to receive mast of their funds through anonymous donations which are shown in cash.
Why was the electoral bonds scheme challenged in court
- Petitions were filed by the Communist Party of India (Marxist), and NGOs Common Cause and ADR.
- Advocate Prashant Bhushan, representing Common Cause and ADR, argued that citizens have a right to information about the parties and candidates seeking their votes.
- Bhushan pointed out that there are roughly 23 lakh registered companies in India.
- Figuring out how much each company had donated using this method would not be possible for an ordinary citizen, Bhushan argued.
- Bhushan added that the scheme would distinctly favour the ruling government of the time, as the guarantee of anonymity would allow the government to provide concessions in the form of licenses, leases, policy changes and government contracts.
- Senior Advocate Kapil Sibal drew the court’s attention to how the scheme could result in companies failing their duties towards their shareholders. Allowing companies to “funnel money” to political parties without any oversight from shareholders denies the owners of said company the ability to decide how their company should act in the political sphere.
What has the SC said in its verdict
- The court raised several issues:
- Does the electoral bond scheme violate the Right to Information under Article 19(1)(a)
- The court held that information on the funding of political parties is essential for voting.
- Economic inequality contributes to political inequality due to the deep association between money and politics.
- Money enhances access to legislators and raises the legitimate possibility of quid pro quo or mutually beneficial arrangements such as favourable policy changes.
- Therefore, the scheme violates the right to information under Article 19(1)(a), which guarantees the freedom of speech and expression.
Is curbing the circulation of black money in electoral financing a legitimate reason to restrict the right to information (RTI)
- The court held that the RTI can only be restricted based on Article 19(2), which speaks of the reasonable restrictions to freedom of speech and expression.
- It does not include curbing black money as a restriction.
- Even assuming curbing black money is a legitimate purpose, it is not proportional to the restrictions posed by this scheme.
- Further, this scheme is not the only means to curb black money in electoral financing.
- Other options are less restrictive and fulfil this purpose.
- For the scheme to be considered legitimate, the government scheme would have to essentially satisfy three aspects.
- This was based on the court’s proportionality test, laid down in its 2017 verdict in the KS Puttaswamy case over the right to privacy.
- First, the existence of a law. The electoral bond key was brought through the Finance Act which introduced the series of amendments in the Income Tax Act and the Representation of People’s Act.
- Second, the law must demonstrate a legitimate state interest, which has nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Parliament. The government argued that the objectives range from curbing black money to protecting the privacy of the donors.
- The third and most crucial, is whether the encroachment on fundamental rights is proportional to the objection sought to be achieved. Here, the CJI said that the state did not adopt the least restrictive method. As an example of the least restrictive methods, he cited the ₹20,000 cap on anonymous donations. Therefore, an infringement of the right to information is not proportionally justified to curb black money in electoral financing.
Whether the infringement of RTI is justified for the protection of donor privacy
- The court considered whether the right to donor privacy includes information about a citizen’s political affiliation. If yes, is a financial contribution to a political party an aspect of political information?
- In the Puttaswamy judgment, the court said that the right to informational privacy includes political affiliation.
- Forming political beliefs is the first stage of political expression, and political expression cannot be expressed freely without the privacy of political affiliation.
- Information can be used by the state to suppress dissent and discriminate by denying employment.
- Lack of privacy of political affiliation would disproportionately affect those whose political views do not match the views of the mainstream.
- Not awarding privacy in this matter could be catastrophic, as it could be used to disenfranchise voters through voter surveillance by identifying voting patterns based on the information collected.
- For instance, data on books, and newspapers purchased by a voter could indicate their ideological leaning.
- The court said that financial contributions to political parties are usually made for two reasons.
- One is support for a political party.
- Second, as a quid pro quo. Huge contributions made by corporations should not be allowed to conceal the reason for financial contributions made by other sections of the population.
- The right to informational privacy extends to contributions to political parties and is a facet of political affiliation.
- To not grant the umbrella of privacy to political contributions only because a portion of the contributions (corporate donors) is made for other reasons would be impermissible.
- The right to privacy of political affiliation does not extend to those contributions, which may be made to influence policies.
- It only extends to contributions made as a genuine form of political support.
Whether unlimited political contributions by companies are unconstitutional
- The court said this cannot be permitted.
- The ability of companies to influence the political process through contributions is much higher compared to individuals.
- Contributions made by companies are purely business transactions made with the intent of securing benefits in return.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to Electoral Bonds-
1. An electoral bond can be purchased by any citizen of India or a body incorporated in India. 2. The bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 crore, and it is available at specified branches of the State Bank of India. 3. Recently Supreme Court upheld the legality of the Electoral Bonds Scheme. Identify the correct statement/s from the codes given below. A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme : ( UPSC Prelims 2018 )
1. The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties. 2. Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. 3. Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue. 4. The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day. Which of the above statements are correct? A. Only 1 and 2 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. Only 2, 3 and 4 D. Only 1, 3 and 4 Answer: B
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| Ans 1 C
Explanation
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Requirement of Prison reforms in India
Source: Indian Express
Context: Solutions for a progressive prison system in India
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 1 and 2 (Social Empowerment Issues arising out of Design & Implementation of Policies)
Why in news
- A recent Supreme Court intervention addresses the substandard treatment of prisoners, emphasising their entitlement to the fundamental rights despite incarceration.
Key highlights
- Prisoners, recognised as humans with constitutional rights, retain these entitlements even during confinement, as established in State of Andhra Pradesh vs Challa Ramkrishna Reddy.
- The Supreme Court has underscored that the prisoners, whether convicts, undertrials, or detainees, maintain their humanity and constitutional rights, including the right to life, throughout their Incarceration.
- The prison system in India faces multiple hindrances in ensuring these rights are not infringed upon.
Overcrowding
- Prison congestion, notably among undertrials, is a significant issue in India.
- Data from 2021 shows a 9.5 percent drop in the number of convicts housed in prisons, but a substantial 45.8 percent rise in the number of undertrials from 2016 to 2021.
- This is a cause for concern. President Draupadi Murmu stressed during her National Law Day address that building more prisons isn’t a sustainable solution.
- The Chief Justice of India also proposed a one-time prisoner release for decongestion and urged collaborative efforts between the judiciary, government, and law enforcement agencies to reduce court backlogs and adjournment practices.
- While fast-track courts aim to expedite proceedings, addressing the prevalent adjournment culture is vital for enhancing efficiency of the criminal justice system.
- To address the issue of overcrowding among undertrials, another solution is the provision of anticipatory bail. While numerous states may not offer anticipatory bail to undertrials, Tamil Nadu stands as an exception, granting it based on sufficient reasons.
Shortage of prison staff
- Another significant challenge is the shortage of prison staff. Despite a sanctioned staff strength of around 91,181, the current strength stands around 63,578.
- This shortfall complicates the task of effective management, often resulting in the neglect of crucial aspects like the mental health of prisoners and ensuring that they are housed under humane conditions.
- The deaths of 1,995 prisoners in judicial custody during 2022, with 159 attributed to unnatural causes, highlights the need to increase the manpower.
- Recommendations of the Mulla Committee dating back to 1980, such as implementing alternative sentencing like community service and establishing a national prison policy, remain unfulfilled.
Budget utilisation
- Prison authorities spend an average of Rs 10,474 per inmate annually, covering food, clothing, medical expenses, education and welfare. Despite a budget of Rs 6,818 crore, only Rs 5,958 crore was spent in 2019-20 on prison services, leading to shortages of medical staff, particularly mental health professionals.
- This underuse underscores the pressing need for reforms. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh have shown a comparatively greater investment in prisoners’ welfare. This commitment has led to the vocational training of inmates, resulting in the production of goods to be sold in the market.
- Tamil Nadu has reported the highest sales of goods made by inmates.
Parole and furlough
- Furlough for prisoners aims to strengthen family bonds and mitigate the negative impacts of long-term incarceration.
- Despite the absence of specific provisions in the Prisons Act of 1894, Section 59 of the Act empowers states to formulate rules for parole and rewards for good behaviour.
- However, superintendents often fail to grant emergency leaves for significant life events.
- Some superintendents consider humanitarian grounds, but extraordinary situations are often overlooked.
Technological reforms
- Artificial intelligence start-ups employ facial biometrics to conduct tests on Indian faces.
- The integration of this biometric identification system with criminal justice departments aims to enhance efficiency and coordination.
- The Supreme Court is setting up an integrated criminal justice system that will link the police, courts, and prisons on one platform to facilitate real-time information exchange, including FASTER (Fast and Secure Transmission of Electronic Records), a new electronic system to transfer e-authenticated copies of ball orders to prisons to enable immediate release of undertrials.
- Healthcare is another area where the use of technology along with some redesigning can significantly enhance the well- being of the incarcerated.
- Implementing video-based telehealth consultations can streamline healthcare services, cutting costs by eliminating the requirement of a large medical workforce while providing real-time diagnoses by trained professionals.
- Al can be used to monitor inmates.
- For example, the Uttar Pradesh Police uses JARVIS (Joint Al Research for Video Instances and Streams), an Al-powered audio and video analytics platform, for monitoring inmates.
- Such Al systems employ facial recognition, behavioural analysis and movement tracking to detect anomalies among inmates and enhance safety.
Way forward
- Prison systems should prioritise reform over punishment, recognise the humanity of inmates, and offer rehabilitation opportunities.
- Correctional facilities must ensure the growth and transformation of the prisoners so that they can reintegrate smoothly into the society once released.
- Providing ample educational opportunities-as demonstrated by Tamil Nadu, where elementary and higher education is offered to a large number of inmates-is essential for preparing them for a successful re-entry into society.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: In India, prisons are managed State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-2: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1 B. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1 C. Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect D. Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct |
Q. Regarding India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2018) A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: B
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| Answer 2– A
Explanation –
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Wildlife Protection Act amendment issue
Source: Indian Express
Context: Kerala wants the Centre to amend the Wildlife Protection Act
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Environment and Ecology) and GS 2 (Government laws and Protection)
Why in News
- Recently Kerala Legislative Assembly unanimously passed a resolution urging the Union Government to amend relevant sections of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 to address the escalating human-animal conflict in the state.
Demand to amend section on hunting
- Section 11 of the 1972 Act regulates hunting of wild animals.
- As per clause (1)(A) of the section, the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of a state may if satisfied that a wild animal specified in Schedule 1 (mammals) has become dangerous to human life or disabled or diseased beyond recovery permit hunting or killing of such animal.
- The section gives powers to the CWLW to order killing of such a wild animal, if it cannot be tranquillised or relocated after capturing.
- Now, Kerala wants to amend the Section 11 (1) (A) so as to devolve the above-mentioned powers of the CWLW to Chief Conservators of Forests (CCF) instead.
- Such an amendment, the state feels, would simplify procedures for dealing with wild animals posing a threat to human life, by enabling speedy and timely decisions to be taken at a more localised level.
- Kerala has five CCFs, each in charge of a different region of the state.
Demand to declare wild boar as vermin
- Kerala also wants the Centre to declare wild boar as vermin, as per section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act.
- According to this section, the Union Government can notify any wild animal in Schedule II of the Act (which protects it from hunting), as vermin for a period of time in an area/state.
- An animal is declared as vermin when it poses threat to life and crops.
- Once declared as vermin, wild boar would lose its protection from hunting, thus enabling the state and citizens to cull the wild boar population to protect against the menace the species poses to life and livelihood.
An escalating crisis
- Kerala has seen a steady rise in human-animal conflict in recent years.
- Attacks from wild animals not only pose a threat to life, but have also wreaked havoc in the state’s agriculture sector.
- The issue has now come to a head after a radio-collared wild elephant strayed into a village, chased people, and trampled a person to death in Wayanad.
- Government data for 2022-23 recorded 8,873 wild animal attacks, of which, 4,193 were by wild elephants, 1,524 by wild boars, 193 by tigers, 244 by leopards, and 32 by bison.
- Of 98 reported deaths, 27 were due to elephant attacks. Moreover, from 2017 to 2023, there were 20,957 incidents of crop loss due to wild animal raids, which also killed 1,559 domestic animals, mainly cattle.
- Wild boars, in particular, are notorious for devastating farmland.
- After the Centre previously rejected demands for declaring the species as vermin, Kerala, in 2022, empowered local self-governing bodies to deploy licenced shooters to kill wild boars that raid crops and foray into human settlements. Once killed, forest officials were to be informed about the act, and the carcass of the boar was to be burned on the spot.
- However, this step did not help address the wild boar menace for want of licenced shooters in villages, as well as the long-winding process of Involving the forest department after every killing.
- This is why the state is once again pushing wild boar to be declared as vermin, which would allow villagers to deal with the menace themselves.
About the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- The Wild Life (Protection) Act, of 1972 provides a legal framework for the protection of various species of wild animals and plants, management of their habitats, regulation, and control of trade in wild animals, plants, and products made from them.
- The act also lists schedules of plants and animals that are afforded varying degrees of protection and monitoring by the government.
- India’s entry to the CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) was made easier by the Wildlife Act.
- Earlier, Jammu and Kashmir was not covered by the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
- The Indian Wildlife Protection Act now applies to J&K as a result of the reorganisation act.
Constitutional Provisions for the Wildlife Act
- The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds was transferred from State to Concurrent List.
- Article 51 A (g) of the Constitution states that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife.
- Article 48 A in the Directive Principles of State policy, mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
About Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022
- The Act seeks to increase the species protected under the law and implement CITES.
- The number of schedules has been reduced to four
- Schedule I-containing animal species enjoying the highest level of protection.
- Schedule II – for animal species subject to a lesser degree of protection.
- Schedule III – for protected plant species, and
- Schedule IV-for scheduled specimens under CITES.
- The Act permits the use of elephants for ‘religious or any other purposes’.
- The penalties have also been increased for general and specially protected animals’ violations.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 3 only
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Q. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
A. A licence is required to cultivate that plant. B. Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances. C. It is a Genetically Modified crop plant. D. Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem. Answer: A
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| Answer 3 B
Explanation
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Need to Triple Global Renewable Energy Capacity by 2030: Report
Source: Down to Earth
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Environment and Ecology)
Context: Annual Investment of $2 Trillion Needed to Triple Global Renewable Energy Capacity by 2030: Report
Why in news
- A new report released by Climate Analytics, a global climate science and policy Institute, has underscored the need for an annual Investment of $2 trillion from 2024 to 2030 to achieve the goals set at COP28.
Investment Requirements
- Goals set at the 28th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change include tripling global renewable power capacity and doubling the annual rate of energy efficiency Improvements by 2030.
- The report by Climate Analytics highlights that in order to limit the temperature rise to 1.5°C above preindustrial levels, the world needs to triple its renewable energy capacity.
- This would necessitate a total investment of $12 trillion in the power system through 2030, with $2 trillion per year.
- Approximately 66% ($8 trillion) of this investment should be allocated to the installation of renewables, while the remaining 34% ($4 trillion) should be directed towards the grid and storage infrastructure needed to support renewables.
Renewable Capacity Targets
- According to various global pathways proposed by organizations such as the International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), and the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), renewable capacity needs to reach at least 11 terawatts (TW) by 2030.
- However, as of 2022, the renewable energy capacity stood at 3.4-3.6 TW, indicating that an additional 8.1 TW needs to be added between 2022 and 2030.
Insufficient Investments
- The report highlights that in 2023, the renewables and grid expansion sector attracted only approximately $1 trillion in investments, falling short of the necessary investment to achieve the required renewable capacity.
Role of Government Action and Public Finance
- The report emphasizes the vital role of government action and public finance in driving the growth of the renewables market.
- It calls for international support to provide access to low-cost capital for emerging markets, ensuring a clean, secure, and just transition for all.
Shifting Fossil Fuel Financing to Renewables
- To bridge the Investment gap, the report suggests redirecting fossil fuel financing to renewables.
- It notes that under current policies, the world is expected to invest over $6 trillion in fossil fuels from 2024 to 2030, while investments in renewables and grid expansion could reach $6.6 trillion.
- Shifting this money to renewables and grids could help cover the necessary investment.
Regional Disparities and Lack of Support
- The report highlights the lack of support in certain regions, particularly Sub-Saharan Africa, which is at risk of falling behind in the effort to triple renewables due to a chronic lack of investment and international support.
- The renewable energy capacity in Sub-Saharan Africa needs to grow 6.6 times by 2030 compared to 2022 levels.
- However, the annual investment in renewables and grid expansion in the region was only around $20 billion in 2023, which is a fifth of the required amount.
Importance of Continued Efforts
- While tripling renewable capacity and doubling energy efficiency are expected to significantly reduce emissions and fossil fuel use by 2030, the report emphasizes the need for countries to continue increasing their renewable capacity to stay aligned with the 1.5°C pathway.
- The report suggests that capacity should reach around 17.5 TW by 2035, which is a five-fold increase from 2022 levels.
Relevance for Climate Finance Discussions
- The report’s findings are particularly relevant as discussions on the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) are ongoing.
- The NCQG is a new global climate finance goal that is expected to be agreed upon by 2024.
- The report stresses the need to mobilize investment in renewables and grid expansion, especially in less wealthy countries, to ensure the fulfillment of the pledge to triple renewables made at COP28.
India’s efforts towards renewable energy
- The country established the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), becoming the first country in the world to have a dedicated ministry for non-conventional energy resources.
- India has also committed to ambitious targets in the Paris Agreement.
- The Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC) target aims to achieve 40% of total electricity generation from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
- This includes an interim target of 100 GW of solar energy, 60 GW of wind energy, 10 GW of biomass, and 5 GW of small hydro.
- Furthermore, the Central Electricity Authority has outlined a strategy blueprint to achieve 57% of total electricity capacity from renewable sources by 2027.
- This includes a goal of 275 GW from renewable energy, 72 GW of hydroelectricity, 15 GW of nuclear energy, and nearly 100 GW from other zero emission sources.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. According to a report by Climate Analytics, $2 trillion annual investment is needed from 2024 to 2030 to achieve the goals set at COP28. 2. The goal of the solar mini-grids project launched by the Indian government is to achieve universal energy access by 2030. Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
1. It is a Public Limited Government Company. 2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C
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Answer 4: B Explanation: · A new report released by Climate Analytics, a global climate science and policy institute, has underscored the need for an annual investment of $2 trillion from 2024 to 2030 to achieve the goals set at the 28th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, so the statement 1 is correct. · The goal of the solar mini-grids project launched by the Indian government to achieve universal energy access by 2025. So, the statement 2 is incorrect. · Hence option B is correct answer.
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Action needed to address nexus of Climate, Hunger, and Conflict
Source: Down to Earth
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS Paper 1: (Population and Associated Issues), GS Paper 2 (Poverty Issues Relating to Poverty and Hunger), GS Paper 3: (Food Security)
Context: UN Secretary-General Urges Urgent Action to address deadly nexus of Climate, Hunger, and Conflict
Why in news
- UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has delivered a compelling address to the United Nations Security Council, highlighting the urgent need to address the deadly nexus of climate change, hunger, and conflict.
Key Highlights
- Guterres emphasised the escalating threats posed by climate change and food insecurity to global peace and security.
- He described a grim scenario where a global food crisis and climate chaos converge, leading to a “hellscape of hunger and heartache” for the world’s most vulnerable populations.
- Guterres underscored the intimate connection between hunger and conflict, stating that conflict and climate disasters intensify inequalities, imperil livelihoods, and force mass displacement, creating fertile ground for unrest and competition.
- He also highlighted the disproportionate impact on women and girls, who often bear the brunt of both, food shortages and climate disasters.
- Guterres argued that conflict and climate change are the primary drivers of the global food crisis, with wars displacing people, destroying agriculture, and contributing to deliberate policies of denial.
Consequences
- The devastating consequences of this deadly nexus are evident in conflict-ridden regions like Syria, Myanmar, and Gaza, where hunger compounds existing challenges.
- Climate disasters add an extra layer of complexity in places like Haiti, Ethiopia, and the Sahel, where rising temperatures contribute to conflict, drying up water resources, and ruining agricultural lands.
- Guterres warned of a looming resurgence of global food inflation as droughts disrupt critical supply routes like the Panama Canal.
- He emphasised that without immediate action, conflicts will multiply, emissions will continue to rise, and acute food insecurity will worsen.
- Simultaneously, food systems themselves contribute significantly to climate change, accounting for approximately 30% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
- The recent COP26 and UN Food Systems Summit highlighted the urgent need to address the unequal and broken food systems that leave 811 million people going to bed hungry.
Proposed Solutions to Break the Deadly Links
- To address the interconnected threats of climate change, food insecurity, and international peace and security, Guterres proposed a comprehensive approach:
- Adherence to International Humanitarian Law: Guterres urged all parties to conflicts to abide by international humanitarian law, emphasising the critical role of the Security Council in ensuring compliance.
- Full Funding for Humanitarian Operations: Guterres called for full funding of humanitarian operations to prevent disaster and conflict from exacerbating hunger.
- He highlighted that operations were less than 40% funded the previous year.
- Conflict Resolution and Sustainable Development: Guterres stressed the need to address exclusion, inequalities, and poverty to prevent conflict.
- He called for accelerating progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals.
- Transformation of Food Systems: Guterres emphasised the need for massive investment in just, equitable, and sustainable food systems, aligning climate action with the goal of zero hunger.
- Climate Crisis Mitigation: Guterres urged G20 nations to lead a just global phase-out of fossil fuels and emphasised the importance of limiting the rise in global temperature to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
- Action on Finance: The Secretary-General called for a Sustainable Development Goal Stimulus of $500 billion a year in affordable, long-term finance for sustainable development and climate action.
Conclusion
- Guterres stressed the urgent need for cooperation, partnerships, and policies that address the interconnected threats of climate change, food insecurity, and international peace and security.
- He urged the Security Council to consider effective strategies and make use of existing mechanisms, such as the United Nations Climate Security Mechanism and the Convergence Initiative.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 5. Consider the following statements:
1. The climate crisis impacts only the production parts of the global food system. 2. The UN aims to eliminate world hunger and hunger in all its forms by the year 2030. 3. According to the United Nations World Food Programme (WCIP), the average global temperature has increased by 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels. Which of the above statements is/is incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 only D. 1, 2, and 3
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Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. 2. The International Energy Agency, in partnership with the Climate Group, launched a global initiative. 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of the EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition.”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022) A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 B. 1, 3, and 4 only C. 2, 3, and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: D
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| Answer 5– C
Explanation · The climate crisis impacts all parts of the global food system, from production to consumption, so, statement 1 is incorrect. · The UN agenda of ending world hunger and malnutrition in all its forms by 2030 is facing formidable challenges as the climate crisis worsens, so statement 2 is correct. · The UN World Food Programme (WFP) shows that a 2°C rise in average global temperature from pre-industrial levels will see a staggering 189 million additional people in the grip of hunger. So, statement 3 is correct.
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Olive Ridley Turtles
Source: Hindu
Context: A month-long ban on fishing in the 5-km radius of Hope Island to prevent the death of Olive Ridley turtles
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS Paper – 3 (Conservation)
Why in news
- The Andhra Pradesh government recently imposed a month-long ban on fishing in the 5-km radius of Hope Island to prevent the death of Olive Ridley turtles off Kakinada coast.
About Olive Ridley Turtles
- They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
- It gets its name from the olive green coloration of its carapace (shell).
- Scientific Name: Lepidochelys olivacea
- They are best known for their unique mass nesting, called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
- Distribution: They are mainly found in the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
- Odisha’s Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is known as the world’s largest rookery (a colony of breeding animals) of sea turtles.
Features
- An adult typically measures between 62 and 70 cm in length and weighs about 35 and 45 kg.
- They have one to two visible claws on each of their paddle-like flippers.
- They are omnivorous, meaning they feed on both plants and animals.
- They are solitary, preferring the open ocean.
- These turtles spend their entire lives in the ocean and migrate thousands of kilometres between feeding and mating grounds in the course of a year.
- Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
- Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
- CITES: Appendix I
About Hope Island
- It is a tadpole-shaped island located off the coast of Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh, in the Bay of Bengal.
- Hope Island is so named for providing a natural haven to sailors against the forces of wind and tide against the weary traveller.
- This island is young, as it was formed in the late 18th century by the waters of the Koringa River, which is a distributary of the river Godavari.
- The area between Kakinada Coast and Hope Island is known as Kakinada Bay.
- It acts as a natural barrier from storm surges and is a natural breakwater for the Kakinada coast.
About Olive Ridley Turtles
- They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
- It gets its name from the olive-green coloration of its carapace (shell).
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the following statements is/is correct about Olive Riddles?
1. It is the smallest sea turtle. 2. The olive ridley is mostly carnivorous. Code A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. None
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Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
A. Saltwater crocodile B. Olive ridley turtle C. Gangetic dolphin D. Gharial Answer: C |
| Ans 6 C
Explanation
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62nd Session of Commission for Social Development
Source: DD News
Context: India Chairs 62nd Session of Commission for Social Development
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 2 (India and the world)
Why in news
- India’s Permanent Representative to the United Nations, Ruchira Kamboj, chaired the 62nd Session of the Commission for Social Development, held from Feb 5-15.
Key Highlights
- Focus on Fostering Social Development and Social Justice the session had the priority theme of “Fostering Social Development and Social Justice through Social Policies to Accelerate Progress on the Implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and to Achieve the Overarching Goal of Poverty Eradication”.
- The session aimed to address critical global social challenges.
India’s Leadership and Resolutions
- Under India’s stewardship, four resolutions were successfully adopted during the session.
- These resolutions included promoting care and support systerns for social development, addressing the social dimensions of the New Partnership for Africa’s Development, and outlining priority themes for the 62nd and 63rd sessions of the Commission for Social Development.
Appreciation and Transition
- In the closing segment, several member states expressed their appreciation for India’s effective leadership and substantive contributions throughout the session.
- Kamboj extended a warm welcome to Poland as the incoming Chair, entrusted with presiding over the 63rd session of the Commission for Social Development in 2025.
Significance of India’s Chairmanship
- India’s appointment as Chair marked a significant milestone, as it was the first time since 1975 that the country held this esteemed position within the Commission for Social Development.
- The Commission serves as a vital intergovernmental platform under the Economic and Social Council, fostering dialogue and advancing international cooperation on social development matters.
About the UN Commission for Social Development (CSocD)
- CSocD, formerly known as the Social Commission, is a functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
- It has been in existence since the very inception of the United Nations, advising ECOSOC and governments on a wide range of social policy issues and from the social perspective of development.
Purpose
- Its primary purpose is to advance social development and formulate policies and recommendations to address global social issues.
- It focuses on topics such as poverty eradication, social inclusion, and the promotion of equitable and sustainable development.
- Since the 1995 World Summit for Social Development in Copenhagen, the CSoCD has been the key UN body in charge of the follow up and implementation of the Copenhagen Declaration and Programme of Action.
Membership
- Originally 18, membership has been increased several times, most recently in 1996, and now stands at 46.
- Members are elected by ECOSOC based on equitable geographical distribution for four-year terms.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements about Commission for Social Development:
1. India’s chaired the 64th Session of the Commission for Social Development. 2. Commission for Social Development is one of the key commissions tasked with monitoring and carrying out the Copenhagen Declaration. 3. It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) Select the correct code: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above |
Q. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022) A. 3 only B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2 Answer: A
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| Answer 7– D
Explanation –
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World Government Summit 2024
Source: HT
Context: PM Modi’s address at World Government Summit
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 ( India and the world, Good governance)
Why in News
- The Indian Prime Minister attends the World Government Summit 2024 as a guest of honour in the UAE.
About the World Government Summit (WGS)
- It is an annual global gathering that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and thought leaders from various fields to discuss and address pressing global issues.
- It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE.
- It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
- The Summit, in its various activities, explores the agenda of the next generation of governments, focusing on harnessing innovation and technology to solve universal challenges facing humanity.
- Since its inception, the Summit has championed the mission of shaping future governments and creating a better future for humanity. World Government Summit (WGS) 2024 theme is “Shaping Future Governments”
Significance of the World Governments Summit
- Fostering Global Cooperation: The summit provides an exceptional platform for governments worldwide to collaborate, share perspectives, and address global developments.
- Solutions for Development and Humanitarian Concerns: It facilitates the formulation of effective solutions for critical development and humanitarian issues.
- Crafting proactive strategies The summit serves as a global arena for developing strategies to tackle future challenges and exchanging experiences to enhance social stability.
- Fulfilling the Aspirations of Future Generations. It aims to meet the expectations of future generations through proactive policymaking and governance.
Objectives of the World Government Summit
- Exploring Next-Generation Government Agendas: Focus on harnessing innovation and technology to address universal challenges facing humanity.
- Championing Future Governments: The summit has consistently aimed to shape future governments and create a better future for humanity.
- International Collaboration Model: Past editions have established a new model for international collaboration, inspiring and enabling the next generation of governments.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q8. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding to World Government Summit 2024?
A. It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE. B. Every two years, it is held in Dubai. C. The theme of Summit 2024 is “Shaping Future Governments.” D. The Indian Prime Minister will attend the World Government Summit 2024 as a guest of honour in the UAE.
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Q. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2016)
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development. 2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer : A
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| Answer 8 B
Explanation
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Australia’s ‘right to disconnect’ Bill
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 2 (International laws and rules), GS 4 (Ethics)
Context: No calls or mails after office hours, says Australia’s ‘right to disconnect’ Bill
Why in news
- The Australian government is hoping to pass a Bill that will institute a “right to disconnect”, regulating whether bosses can contact workers beyond their working hours through calls, messages or e-mails.
Key Highlights
- Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese said, “Someone who’s not paid 24 hours a day shouldn’t be penalised if they’re not online and available 24 hours a day.”
- Having passed the Senate on February 8, the Bill will now go to the House of Representatives, Similar laws are in place in France, Italy and Belgium, while other countries have also toyed with such ideas.
What is the ‘right to disconnect’
- It comes from a belief that today, with technology making it possible for employees to work from home with ease, many people no longer have definite working hours.
- A lot of communication and work also happens when workers are not in the office.
- In 2022, Belgium’s Public Administration Minister Petra De Sutter told the pandemic also added to blurring the distinction between work and home life.
- “The result will be stress and burnout and this is the real disease of today.
- The right to disconnect is a proposed human right regarding the ability of people to disconnect from work and primarily not to engage in work-related electronic communications such as e-mails or messages during non-work hours.
About Australia’s Right to Disconnect
- Fair Work Legislation Amendment: Through the Fair Work Legislation Amendment (Closing Loopholes No. 2) Bill, 2023, an employee may refuse to monitor, read or respond to contact, or attempted contact, from an employer outside of the employee’s working hours unless the refusal is unreasonable.
- A Reasonable Reason: The Bill considers the extent to which the employee is compensated for overtime work, the reason for the contact or attempted contact, and the level of disruption it causes to the employee.
- Resolution of Matter: In case an employee-employer dispute over such contact happens, they must first attempt to resolve it at the workplace through discussions between the parties.
- If that attempt fails, they may move to the Fair Work Commission (FWC), the country’s industrial relations tribunal.
- Refusing to follow an FWC order could mean potential fines for the employer.
What is the criticism against ‘right to disconnect’
- Critics such as Australia’s chambers of commerce criticised the provision and said in a statement: “We cannot allow industrial relations laws to make it harder for hard-working business owners to generate the wealth we enjoy as a nation.”
- Andrew McKellar, chief executive officer of the Australian Chamber of Commerce and Industry, told that the amendment could impact women’s participation in the workforce.
- “This sort of heavy-handed legislation risks taking Australia back to a rigid working environment that is undesirable for parents, especially women,” McKellar said, adding “This rigidity also undermines the case for working from home, which appeals to many employees with family responsibilities.”
Other Countries on Right to Disconnect Laws:
- France was the first country to have introduced a ‘right to disconnect’ for employees, in 2017.
- Companies with more than 50 workers were obliged to draw up a charter of good conduct, setting out the hours when staff are not supposed to send or answer emails.
- Germany: There was no formal legislation in place at the time, but the private automobile manufacturing companies were imposing such policies.
- Scenario in India: In India, Baramati MP Supriya Sule drafted a Private Member’s Bill for such a right, through the Right to Disconnect Bill of 2018, which was never taken up for discussion in the House.
Moving forward
- The right to disconnect can serve as a catalyst for improved work-life balance policies.
- Embracing a cultural shift that destigmatizes a slower work pace and grants employees’ greater control over their work boundaries is crucial in addressing the issue of overwork effectively.
- By acknowledging that employees have the right to disconnect and promoting a less frenetic pace of work, we can create a more sustainable and productive work environment.
- This approach recognizes that employees are not machines and need time to rest, recharge, and engage in activities outside of work.
- It promotes employee well-being, reduces burnout, and fosters creativity and innovation.
- Moreover, it allows individuals to prioritize their personal lives, spend quality time with loved ones, and pursue hobbies and interests outside of work.
- Ultimately, by embracing the right to disconnect and redefining our relationship with work, we can create a healthier and more fulfilling work-life balance for everyone.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q9. Consider the following statements regarding to ‘Right to Disconnect:
1. The right to disconnect is a proposed human right regarding the ability of people to disconnect from work during non-work hours. 2. Recently Government of India has proposed a Bill that will institute a “right to disconnect”, regulating whether bosses can contact workers beyond their working hours through calls, messages or e-mails. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer- D
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Answer 9: B Explanation: · The right to disconnect is a proposed human right regarding the ability of people to disconnect from work and primarily not to engage in work-related electronic communications such as e-mails or messages during non-work hours. · So, the statement 1 is correct. · Recently the Australian government is hoping to pass a Bill that will institute a “right to disconnect”, regulating whether bosses can contact workers beyond their working hours through calls, messages or e-mails. So, the statement 2 is incorrect. · Hence option B is correct answer.
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MILAN 2024
Source: India Today
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Defense and security)
Context: Milan 2024: India, US, Japan and other nations to participate in Naval exercise.
Why in news
- MILAN 2024 is the 12th edition of the Multilateral Naval Exercise scheduled from 19-27 Feb 2004 at Visakhapatnam.
About MILAN
- It is biennial exercise hosted by India, and made a modest beginning in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in 1995.
- The navies of Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Thailand participated in this edition.
- It is a biennial congregation of friendly navies.
- Previous Edition: The previous edition, MILAN 2022 was held in Visakhapatnam, the City of Destiny under the aegis of Eastern Naval Command.
- MILAN 2022 observed participation of 39 friendly foreign countries across continents.
- MILAN 2024: It is scheduled under the aegis of Eastern Naval Command with invitation extended to 58 countries.
- The central aim of MILAN 2024 is to enhance professional interaction between friendly navies and gain experience in multilateral large force operations at sea.
Importance of MILAN exercise
- This will underline the Navy’s growing presence as a security partner and first responder in the Indian Ocean region.
- It aims to enhance the presence and operational capability of the Indian Navy in mission-based deployments, other operational activities.
Significance Of Indian Participation in International Military Exercises
- In the domain of international relations, military diplomacy has, in recent years, emerged as a major tool to further diplomatic interests of nations. Participation in international level military exercises is an indication of the highest level of trust and confidence between the member nations.
- It is a key confidence building measure (CBM) and an indication of the faith reposed by India on another nation or a group of member nations.
- On the operational side, military exercises enable militaries to understand each other’s drills and procedures, overcome language barriers, and facilitate familiarisation with equipment capabilities.
- It also facilitates understanding and familiarisation with new technologies that other countries may be utilising and enables on-the-job training of each other’s crews.
- This is particularly useful in the event of joint operations whether in war or in operations other than war (OOTW) – humanitarian aid, disaster relief, anti-piracy, etc – when nations come together for a common cause.
- A fine example was the aid assistance provided by a host of nations during the tsunami in South East Asia where a massive land, air and sea rescue effort was successfully executed to provide relief to the affected countries.
- Perhaps, the most important advantage of joint military exercises is ‘strategic signalling’.
- A joint exercise with one or more nations serves the purpose of signalling to a third country of the influence we have in the region and a demonstration of our resolve to further our diplomatic objectives.
- On the intangible side, military exercises promote brotherhood and camaraderie between soldiers and militaries.
- Besides goodwill, it is a tool for projection of a nation’s soft power – culture, language, customs, beliefs, food habits and lifestyle.
- Soldiers all over the world have almost similar rank and organisational structures, which helps establish a unique spirit of bonding and friendship between their communities irrespective of the country of origin.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 10. Consider the following statements with regards to Milan exercise:
1. Milan is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Italian Navy. 2. MILAN is a congregation of littoral navies which began in 1995. Which of the above statements given above is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to Military exercises, consider the following pairs: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
Military exercises Countries involved 1. Surya Kiran : India & France 2. Sampriti : India & Bangladesh 3. Shakti : India & Nepal Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 3 only Answer: B |
| Answer 10– A
Explanation · Milan is a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. · In Milan exercise, navies from multiple countries participate in joint exercises aimed at enhancing interoperability and cooperation in maritime security operations. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · Milan was first held in 1995. Apart from the Indian Navy, the navies of Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Thailand participated in the inaugural edition. · All editions of Milan had been hosted under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command and were held in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. · In 2020, the Navy decided to hold the next edition of Milan in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh under the Eastern Naval Command. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option A.
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