15th April 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (15-04-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

International: Iran launches drone attacks against Israel in first-ever full-scale military assault
Economy: IMF confirms Kristalina Georgieva for second 5-year term
With 25% inflation, Pakistan has the highest cost of living in Asia: ADB
Science and Technology: First Indian space tourist to fly on Jeff Bezos’s Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission
National: Law on disclosure of assets

 

Iran launches drone attacks against Israel in first-ever full-scale military assault

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/iran-drone-attack-israel-middle-east/article68063009.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International Events, Israel- Iran Conflict)

Context: Iran launched drones toward Israel, the Israeli military announced, and Iran’s state-run media reported that dozens had been fired.

Why in news

  • Iran had been threatening to attack Israel since an airstrike killed two Iranian generals in Syria. Israel has not commented on that attack, but Iran accused it of being behind attacks.

 

Key Highlights

  • The drone attack marked the first time Iran had ever launched a full-scale military assault on Israel, despite decades of enmity dating back to the country’s 1979 Islamic Revolution.
  • Israeli aviation authorities said they were closing the country’s airspace to all flights on 13 April, but reopened its airspace as of 7:30 a.m. (Israel time) on April 14.
  • In New York, U.N. Secretary-General Antonio Guterres in a statement condemned the serious escalation represented by the large-scale attack launched on Israel by Iran.

Iran’s response

  • Iran’s paramilitary Revolutionary Guard acknowledged launching “dozens of drones and missiles towards the occupied territories and positions of the Zionist regime.”
  • Iran urged Israel not to retaliate militarily to an unprecedented attack overnight, which Tehran presented as a justified response to a deadly strike on its consulate building in Damascus.

 

Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)

  • IRGC or Sepah-e-Pasdaran, was one of the earliest revolutionary institutions decreed by Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini after the 1979 revolution that brought down the monarchy of Shah Mohammed Reza Pahlavi.
  • One of the main objectives of the Pasdaran was to preserve the revolution and the theocratic-constitutional system Khomeini and his followers built.
  • The Iran-Iraq war of 1980-88 would transform Pasdaran into a powerful fighting force. The participation of ideologically driven Guards in the war, which ended in a ceasefire after both sides suffered heavy casualties, laid the ground for the IRGC to emerge as the most influential wing of the regime.
  • Today, the IRGC and Iran’s regular military (Artesh) operate as two parallel armed wings of the regime.
  • While Artesh and the police force are entrusted with protecting the country’s territorial integrity and order at home, Pasdaran’s primary responsibility is the protection of the revolutionary regime.
  • With a military wing, an overseas operational unit (Quds Force) and a civilian voluntary organisation (Basij) at home, the IRGC’s operations overlap with the regular service forces.
  • But, under the direct command of the Supreme Leader, the Guards have the resources and capability to influence the direction of the foreign and security policies of the regime more than any of its other wings.
  • The IRGC has some 1,90,000 trained soldiers under its command, roughly half the size of Iran’s regular forces.
  • The Guards have an Army, which is spread across Iran’s 31 provinces, an air force and a navy. Of these, the IRGC navy, which patrols Iran’s maritime borders, including the strategically critical Strait of Hormuz, which connects the Gulf to the Gulf of Oman that opens into the Arabian Sea and to the Indian Ocean, is considered a very powerful unit.

 

Israel’s response

  • Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu vowed his country would achieve victory after the military said it shot down almost all the more than 300 drones and missiles launched by Iran in a sharp escalation of the Middle East conflict.

 

Israel’s defence systems

  • The Arrow: This system developed with the U.S. is designed to intercept long-range missiles, including the types of ballistic missiles Iran said it launched.
  • The Arrow, which operates outside the atmosphere, has been used in the current war to intercept long-range missiles launched by Houthi militants in Yemen.
  • David’s Sling: Also developed with the U.S., the David’s Sling is meant to intercept medium-range missiles, such as those possessed by Hezbollah in Lebanon.
  • Patriot: This American-made system is the oldest member of Israel’s missile-defence system – used during the First Gulf War in 1991 to intercept Scud missiles fired by Iraq’s leader at the time, Saddam Hussein.
  • The Patriot is now used to shoot down aircraft, including drones.
  • Iron Dome: This system, developed by Israel with U.S. backing, specialises in shooting down short-range rockets. It has intercepted thousands of rockets since it was activated early last decade – including thousands of interceptions during the current war against Hamas and Hezbollah. Israel says it has a success rate of over 90%.
  • Iron Beam: Israel is developing a new system to intercept incoming threats with laser technology. Israel has said this system will be a game changer because it is much cheaper to operate than existing systems. However, it is not yet operational.

 

US Support

  • The White House said it would provide unspecified support for Israel’s defence against the ongoing attack.
  • President Joe Biden was set to convene a principals meeting of the National Security Council to discuss the unfolding attack, the White House said.
  • The head of the U.S. Central Command, has been in Israel in recent days to coordinate with Israel about the Iranian threats.
  • Israel has a number of layers of air defence capable of intercepting everything from long-range missiles to UAV’s and short-range rockets.

 

Iran’s first-ever attack on Israel

  • For days, Iranian officials including Supreme Leader Ayatollah Ali Khamenei have threatened to “slap” Israel for its Syria strike.
  • Iran has largely avoided directly attacking Israel, despite its targeted killings of nuclear scientists and sabotage campaigns on Iran’s atomic sites. Iran has targeted Israeli or Jewish-linked sites through proxy forces.
  • Israel’s war on Hamas in the Gaza Strip has inflamed decade-old tensions in the Middle East, and any new attack threatens to escalate that conflict into a wider regional war.
  • Flight-tracking data showed the airspace over Jordan empty, while few flights continued on their north-south routes over Iraq. A sole Middle East Airlines flight from Dubai to Beirut remained airborne over Syria.
  • Lebanon’s state-run National News Agency reported heavy Israeli airstrikes and shelling on multiple locations in south Lebanon following the launch of drones from Iran. The Iran-backed Lebanese militant group Hezbollah has been clashing with Israeli forces in the border area for more than six months.

 

Strait of Hormuz

  • Earlier, commandos from Iran’s paramilitary Revolutionary Guard rappelled from a helicopter onto an Israeli-affiliated container ship near the Strait of Hormuz and seized the vessel.
  • Iran’s state-run IRNA said a special forces unit of the Guard’s navy carried out the attack on the Portuguese-flagged MSC Aries, a container ship associated with London-based Zodiac Maritime.
  • Zodiac Maritime is part of Israeli billionaire Eyal Ofer’s Zodiac Group. Geneva-based MSC acknowledged the seizure and said 25 crew members were on the ship.
  • White House National Security Council spokesperson Adrienne Watson said the crew was made up of Indian, Filipino, Pakistani, Russian and Estonian nationals and urged Iran to release them and the vessel.
  • IRNA said the Guard would take the vessel into Iranian territorial waters.

 

Israel- Gaza war

  • The U.S., Israel’s main backer, has stood by the country despite growing concerns over Israel’s war on Gaza killing more than 33,600 Palestinians and wounding over 76,200 more.
  • Israel’s war began after Hamas’ Oct. 7 attack on Israel that killed 1,200 people and saw some 250 others taken hostage.

 

Indian response

  • The Indian mission in Israel issued a fresh “important advisory” for its nationals after attacks on the Jewish State by Iran with hundreds of projectiles, advising them to stay calm and adhere to safety protocols.

 

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following pairs of Israel and its missile defence system:

S. No. Missile defence system Description
1. The Arrow Intercept medium -range missiles exclusively
2. David’s Sling Intercept long -range missiles exclusively
3. Patriot Used to shoot down aircraft, including drones
4. Iron Dome Used in shooting down short-range rockets

 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      3 and 4 only

C.      1,2 and 3 only

D.      All of the above

 

Q10. Consider the following (UPSC Prelims 2022)

  1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
  2. Missile Technology Control Regime
  3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      3 only

C.      2 and 3 only

D.      1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

 

 

Answer 1 B

Explanation

·         The Arrow: This system developed with the U.S. is designed to intercept long-range missiles, including the types of ballistic missiles Iran said it launched.

·         The Arrow, which operates outside the atmosphere, has been used in the current war to intercept long-range missiles launched by Houthi militants in Yemen. So, pair 1 is not correctly launched.

·         David’s Sling: Also developed with the U.S., the David’s Sling is meant to intercept medium-range missiles, such as those possessed by Hezbollah in Lebanon. So, pair 2 is not correctly launched.

·         Patriot: This American-made system is the oldest member of Israel’s missile-defence system – used during the First Gulf War in 1991 to intercept Scud missiles fired by Iraq’s leader at the time, Saddam Hussein.

·         The Patriot is now used to shoot down aircraft, including drones. So, pair 3 is correctly launched.

·         Iron Dome: This system, developed by Israel with U.S. backing, specialises in shooting down short-range rockets. It has intercepted thousands of rockets since it was activated early last decade – including thousands of interceptions during the current war against Hamas and Hezbollah. Israel says it has a success rate of over 90%. So, pair 4 is correctly launched.

·         Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

 

 

 IMF confirms Kristalina Georgieva for second 5-year term

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/imf-confirms-kristalina-georgieva-for-second-5-year-term/article68059769.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (International Financial Organisations)

 

Context: Under a controversial, decades-old agreement between Europe and the United States, the International Monetary Fund has historically been led by a European, and the World Bank by a U.S. citizen.

Why in news

  • The IMF executive board confirmed that it had reappointed Kristalina Georgieva to serve for a second five-year term running the international financial institution.

Key Highlights

  • Kristalina Georgieva’s current term ends on September 30, 2024. The decision to extend her term was taken by consensus.
  • Georgieva, a 70-year-old Bulgarian, has run the IMF since 2019
  • During her tenure, the IMF has helped countries facing financial difficulties during the coronavirus pandemic as well as the havoc wrought by Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, especially in Europe.

 

Controversial agreement

  • Under a controversial, decades-old agreement between Europe and the United States, the International Monetary Fund has historically been led by a European, and the World Bank by a U.S. citizen.
  • This arrangement was reaffirmed last year when the Biden administration nominated Ajay Banga, an Indian-born, naturalized U.S. citizen, to run the World Bank, which sits just across the street from the IMF in Washington.

 

Important Achievements

  • Georgieva led the IMF’s unprecedented response to global shocks, including the approval of more than USD 360 billion in new financing since the start of the pandemic for 97 countries, debt service relief to the Fund’s poorest, most vulnerable members, and a historic Special Drawing Rights (SDR) allocation equivalent to USD 650 billion.
  • Under her leadership, the Fund introduced innovative new financing facilities, including the Resilience and Sustainability Facility and the Food Shock Window.
  • It replenished the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust, with the capacity to mobilize concessional loans to its poorest members, and co-created the Global Sovereign Debt Roundtable.
  • It also secured a 50 percent quota increase to bolster the Fund’s permanent resources and agreed to add a third Sub-Saharan African chair to the IMF Board.

 

2021 SDR enhancement

  • SDRs function as a universally accepted international reserve asset that can be exchanged with hard currencies and used outside of the IMF for different purposes.
  • In August 2021, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) increased its allocation of special drawing rights (SDRs) to member countries by 456 billion units, equivalent to about US$650 billion. This increase pushed the total SDRs to SDR 661 billion — close to US$1 trillion.
  • The SDR allocation in 2021 meant that all IMF members obtained increased access to cheap credit with no strings attached.

 

IMF’s Resilience and Sustainability Trust (RST)

  • The IMF formally established its new Resilience and Sustainability Trust (RST) in April 2022
  • The IMF’s Resilience and Sustainability Trust (RST) helps low-income and vulnerable middle-income countries build resilience to external shocks and ensure sustainable growth, contributing to their longer-term balance of payments stability.
  • It complements the IMF’s existing lending toolkit by providing longer-term affordable financing to address longer-term structural challenges, including climate change and pandemic preparedness.
  • The RST provides policy support and affordable longer maturity financing – with a 20-year maturity and a 10½ -year grace period – to help build resilience against long-term risks to balance of payments stability.
  • About three-quarters of the IMF’s country membership is eligible for RST financing, including low-income members as well as most middle-income countries and all small developing states.

 

Food Shock Window

  • International Monetary Fund’s executive board approved the creation of a “food shock window” in September 2022.
  • The International Monetary Fund said its executive board approved a new mechanism for low-condition emergency loans to help vulnerable countries cope with food shortages and rising costs stemming from Russia’s war in Ukraine.
  • The IMF said its new Food Shock Window will be open for one year through its existing Rapid Credit Facility and Rapid Financing Instrument programs for countries with urgent balance of payment needs that “are suffering from acute food insecurity, a sharp food imports shock, or from a cereals export shock.”
  • It was extended for 6 months till end-March 2024.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to International Monetary Fund (IMF):

  1. In August 2021, the IMF increased its allocation of special drawing rights (SDRs) to member countries to about US$650 billion.
  2. The IMF executive board had reappointed Kristalina Georgieva to serve for a second five-year term running the international financial institution.
  3. “Food shock window” was started in September 2022 by IMF as a mechanism to help vulnerable countries cope with food shortages stemming from Russia’s war in Ukraine.
  4. Under a decades-old agreement, the International Monetary Fund has historically been led by a US citizen.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above
Q. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to- (UPSC Prelims 2020)

A.      A loan system of the World bank

B.      One of the operations of a central bank

C.      A credit system granted by WTO to its members

D.      A credit system granted by IMF to its members

Ans – D

 

 

Answer 2– B

Explanation –

  • Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) function as a universally accepted international reserve asset that can be exchanged with hard currencies and used outside of the IMF for different purposes.
  • In August 2021, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) increased its allocation of special drawing rights (SDRs) to member countries by 456 billion units, equivalent to about US$650 billion. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • Kristalina Georgieva’s current term ends on September 30, 2024. The decision to extend her term was taken by consensus. Ms. Georgieva, a 70-year-old Bulgarian, has run the IMF since 2019. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • International Monetary Fund’s executive board approved the creation of a “food shock window” in September 2022.
  • The International Monetary Fund said its executive board approved a new mechanism for low-condition emergency loans to help vulnerable countries cope with food shortages and rising costs stemming from Russia’s war in Ukraine. So, statement 3 is correct.
  • Under a controversial, decades-old agreement between Europe and the United States, the International Monetary Fund has historically been led by a European, and the World Bank by a U.S. citizen. So, statement 4 is incorrect. Therefore, correct answer is option B.

 

 

 

With 25% inflation, Pakistan has the highest cost of living in Asia: ADB

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/with-25-inflation-pakistan-has-the-highest-cost-of-living-in-asia-adb/article68061052.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS-3 (International Financial Organisations)

Context: Low confidence, a surge in living costs, and the implementation of tighter macroeconomic policies under the IMF programme would restrain Pakistan’s domestic demand, a report by ADB said.

Why in news

  • Pakistan has the highest living cost in all of Asia with a 25% inflation rate and its economy may grow at the fourth lowest pace of 1.9% in the region, according to a new Asian Development Bank (ADB) report.

Key Highlights of ADB Report

  • Asian Development Outlook painted a gloomy picture for the next fiscal year for Pakistan, projecting 15% inflation rate for the next fiscal year, this is the highest among 46 countries.
  • The country’s projected growth rate is at 2.8% — the fifth lowest for FY 2024-25.
  • inflation rate in Pakistan is expected to be 25% in the current fiscal year — the highest in all of Asia.
  • This makes Pakistan the most expensive nation in Asia. Earlier, the cost of living in Pakistan used to be the highest in South Asia.
  • The State Bank of Pakistan (SBP) and federal government had set the inflation target at 21% for this fiscal year, but they are going to miss it despite inflicting huge losses in the shape of a 22% interest rate.
  • The ADB said during the current fiscal year, the country’s economic growth rate might remain at 1.9%, the fourth lowest after Myanmar, Azerbaijan and Nauru.

Economic issues faced by Pakistan

  • Pakistan is in a stagflation phase for a prolonged period and the World Bank said that another 10 million more people might fall into the poverty trap because of any adverse shocks.
  • About 98 million people are already living a poor life in Pakistan.
  • In the past, the ADB gave a rather optimistic economic scenario close to Pakistan’s official forecasts.
  • However, the latest ADB report stated that Pakistan would continue to face challenges from substantial new external financing requirements and the rollover of old debt, exacerbated by tight global monetary conditions.
  • Political uncertainty that affected macroeconomic policymaking would remain a key risk to the sustainability of stabilisation and reform efforts.
  • Pakistan’s large external financing requirements and weak external buffers, disbursement from multilateral and bilateral partners remained crucial.

 

Restrained domestic demand

  • There are “very important issues” to be solved in Pakistan: the tax base, how the richer part of the society contributed to the economy, the way public spending is being directed, and creating a more transparent environment.
  • The ADB said low confidence, a surge in living costs, and the implementation of tighter macroeconomic policies under the IMF programme would restrain domestic demand in Pakistan.
  • It said the government’s goal was to achieve a primary surplus of 0.4% and an overall deficit of 7.5% of GDP in FY2024, with both declining gradually in subsequent years.
  • However, the World Bank said that Pakistan would miss these budget targets.

 

Asian Development Bank

  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) assists its members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
  • Its Headquarters is located in Manila, Philippines
  • ADB’s highest policy-making body is the Board of Governors, which comprises one representative from each member – 49 from the Asia and Pacific region and 19 from outside the region.
  • Masatsugu Asakawa is the President of ADB and the Chairperson of ADB’s Board of Directors. He was elected President by ADB’s Board of Governors and assumed office on 17 January 2020.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: As per recent reports, Pakistan has become the most expensive nation in Asia.

Statement-II: Asian Development Outlook projected 15% inflation rate for the next fiscal year for Pakistan, which is the highest among 46 countries.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

C.      Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D.      Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

 

Q. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (UPSC Prelims 2017)

A.      India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

B.      India’s relations with oil producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

C.      India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

D.      Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India

Answer: (C)

 

 

 

Answer 3 B

Explanation

·         The latest Asian Development Bank (ADB) report stated that Pakistan would continue to face challenges from substantial new external financing requirements and the rollover of old debt, exacerbated by tight global monetary conditions.

·         Asian Development Outlook painted a gloomy picture for the next fiscal year for Pakistan, projecting 15% inflation rate for the next fiscal year, this is the highest among 46 countries.

·         The country’s projected growth rate is at 2.8% — the fifth lowest for FY 2024-25.

·         inflation rate in Pakistan is expected to be 25% in the current fiscal year — the highest in all of Asia.

·         This makes Pakistan the most expensive nation in Asia. Earlier, the cost of living in Pakistan used to be the highest in South Asia.

·         So, both statements are correct and Statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

 

 

First Indian space tourist to fly on Jeff Bezos’s Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/first-indian-space-tourist-jeff-bezos-blue-origin/article68060971.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Space technology)

Context: New Shepard is a fully reusable sub-orbital launch vehicle developed for space tourism by Blue Origin.

Why in news

  • Gopi Thotakura was selected as one of the six crew members for the mission, making him the first Indian space tourist and the second Indian to venture into space.

Key Highlights

  • Gopi Thotakura, an entrepreneur and a pilot, is set to become the first Indian to venture into space as a tourist on Amazon founder Jeff Bezos’s Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission.
  • Mr. Thotakura was selected as one of the six crew members for the mission, making him the first Indian space tourist and the second Indian to venture into space after the Indian Army’s Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma in 1984.

 

About Mission

  • This mission will be the seventh human flight for the New Shepard programme and the 25th in its history.
  • To date, the programme has flown 31 humans above the Karman line, the proposed conventional boundary between Earth’s atmosphere and outer space.
  • New Shepard is a fully reusable sub-orbital launch vehicle developed for space tourism by Blue Origin.

 

Gopi Thotakura

  • He is the co-founder of Preserve Life Corp, a global centre for holistic wellness and applied health located near Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport.
  • A lifelong traveller, his most recent adventure took him to the summit of Mt Kilimanjaro in Tanzania.
  • Andhra Pradesh-born Thotakura is a graduate of Embry-Riddle Aeronautical University.

 

Other crew members

  • Other crew members of the flight include Mason Angel, Sylvain Chiron, Kenneth L. Hess, Carol Schaller, and former Air Force Captain Ed Dwight, who was selected by President John F Kennedy in 1961 as the nation’s first Black astronaut candidate but was never granted the opportunity to fly to space.
  • During the flight, each astronaut will carry a postcard to space on behalf of Blue Origin’s foundation, Club for the Future.
  • This programme gives students access to space on Blue Origin’s rockets, including an all-digital method to create and send postcards.
  • The Club’s mission is to inspire and mobilise future generations to pursue careers in STEAM (science, technology, engineering, arts and mathematics) for the benefit of Earth.

 

Significance of the Mission

  • From an environmental standpoint, nearly 99% of New Shepard’s dry mass is reused, including the booster, capsule, engine, landing gear, and parachutes.
  • New Shepard’s engine is fuelled by highly efficient liquid oxygen and hydrogen.
  • During the flight, the only byproduct is water vapour with no carbon emissions.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission:

 

1.       New Shepard is a fully reusable sub-orbital launch vehicle developed for space tourism by Blue Origin.

2.       Gopi Thotakura, is set to become the first Indian to venture into space as a tourist on Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

(1) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.

(2) Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.     Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

 

Answer 4 C

Explanation

·         New Shepard is a fully reusable sub-orbital launch vehicle developed for space tourism by Blue Origin. The vehicle is named after Alan Shepard, who became the first American to travel into space and the fifth person to walk on the Moon.

·         The vehicle is capable of vertical takeoff and landings. Additionally, it is also capable of carrying humans and customer payloads into a sub-orbital trajectory. So, first statement is correct.

·         Gopi Thotakura, an entrepreneur and a pilot, is set to become the first Indian to venture into space as a tourist on Amazon founder Jeff Bezos’s Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission.

·         Mr. Thotakura was selected as one of the six crew members for the mission, making him the first Indian space tourist and the second Indian to venture into space after the Indian Army’s Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma in 1984.

·          So, second statement is correct. Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

Law on disclosure of assets

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/elections/lok-sabha/how-did-the-law-on-disclosure-of-assets-evolve-explained/article68062556.ece#:~:text=The%20Supreme%20Court%20on%20March,disclosure%20based%20on%20the%20judgment.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: Two recent developments have brought under focus the disclosure norms that candidates are expected to comply with in election law.

Why in news

  • Rajeev Chandrasekhar, had allegedly failed to report all the assets he owns in the mandatory affidavit accompanying his nomination papers.

About Law

  • The requirement that prospective candidates will have to disclose their criminal antecedents, if any, their educational qualifications and their assets and liabilities, including those of their spouses and dependants, arose from a landmark Supreme Court judgment on May 2, 2002.
  • The court ruled that the voters’ right to information in a democracy is part of the citizens’ right to express their opinion through their vote.
  • In June 2002, the ECI issued the rules to give effect to the judgment.
  • However, the Central government of the day sought to curtail the scope of these disclosures by an ordinance amending the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in August 2002.
  • Later, it was replaced by an Act.
  • The amendments introduced Sections 33A (concerning disclosure of pending criminal cases), Section 33B (which effectively nullified the ECI’s notification by saying no disclosure other than those prescribed in the Act is required) and Section 125A (penalty for failure to disclose or false disclosure).
  • The Ordinance and, thereafter, the amending Act were challenged in court.
  • The Supreme Court on March 13, 2003, struck down Section 33B and restored the disclosure requirements regarding assets and liabilities and educational qualifications.

 

Consequences of any omission

  • Section 125A of the RPA, 1951, prescribes a six-month prison term, or a fine, or both, for any candidate’s failure to disclose the required information, or giving false information or concealing such information.
  • Besides this provision for prosecution, any omission or false information could be a ground to challenge a candidate’s election in the High Court.
  • Among the grounds available to a court to invalidate an election, two are relevant here.
  • Under Section 100, an election can be declared void if there is “improper acceptance of any nomination” or “any non-compliance with the provisions of the Constitution or of this Act or of any rules or orders made under this Act.”
  • It is possible for an unsuccessful candidate to question the acceptance of the nomination of the ultimate winner on the ground of concealment or furnishing of false information, as well as raise the possible violation of any of the statutory disclosure requirements.

 

What is the latest court ruling?

  • This case concerned the election of Karikho Kri, an independent candidate who won a seat in the Arunachal Pradesh Assembly in 2019.
  • His election was challenged by the Congress candidate Nuney Tayang on the ground that Mr. Kri had not disclosed some moveable assets in the names of his wife and children.
  • The Itanagar Bench of the High Court of Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh accepted the allegations and declared Mr. Kri’s election void.
  • The Supreme Court set aside the High Court’s judgment on the ground that the non-disclosure was not of a substantial nature warranting rejection of his nomination; nor did it amount to non-compliance with the law as it did not materially affect the outcome of the election.

 

What is the takeaway from the verdict?

  • Rejecting the contention that the voter’s right to know all particulars is absolute, the Supreme Court said there was no need for a candidate to lay bare his entire life to the electorate.
  • It is not necessary to declare every item of moveable property, unless it is of such value as to be sizeable in itself, or will reflect upon his lifestyle and thus be of interest to the voter.
  • However, the court cautioned that there cannot be a straitjacket rule on this, and what omission is of a substantial character or will affect the outcome will depend on the facts of each case.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.      Under Section 100, an election can be declared void if there is “improper acceptance of “any non-compliance with the provisions of the Constitution or of this Act or of any rules or orders made under this Act.”

B.      Section 125A of the RPA, 1951, prescribes a six-month prison term, or a fine, or both, for any candidate’s failure to disclose the required information, or giving false information or concealing such information.

C.      The Supreme Court on March 13, 2003, struck down Section 33B and restored the disclosure requirements regarding assets and liabilities and educational qualifications.

D.      All of the above

 

Q. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements(UPSC Prelims 2022)

  1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
  2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
  3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
  4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.      1 and 3 only

B.      1, 2 and 3

C.      3 and 4 only

D.      2 and 4 only

Answer – (A)

 

 

 

 

Answer 5– D

Explanation

·         Section 125A of the RPA, 1951, prescribes a six-month prison term, or a fine, or both, for any candidate’s failure to disclose the required information, or giving false information or concealing such information.

·         Besides this provision for prosecution, any omission or false information could be a ground to challenge a candidate’s election in the High Court.  Among the grounds available to a court to invalidate an election, two are relevant here.

·         Under Section 100, an election can be declared void if there is “improper acceptance of “any non-compliance with the provisions of the Constitution or of this Act or of any rules or orders made under this Act.” So, statement A is correct

·         Section 125A of the RPA, 1951, prescribes a six-month prison term, or a fine, or both, for any candidate’s failure to disclose the required information, or giving false information or concealing such information. So, statement D is correct

·         The Supreme Court on March 13, 2003, struck down Section 33B and restored the disclosure requirements regarding assets and liabilities and educational qualifications. So, statement D is correct.

 

 

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