Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (12-03-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| National: CAA rules notified |
| Economy: Agricultural drones and Namo Drone Didis |
| Science and technology: Rhodamine-B in news
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| Environment and Ecology: The second biggest man-made methane leak, ever |
| International: SIPRI Report |
| Defence: Divyastra Mission |
| Awards: 96th Oscars Awards 2024 |
CAA rules notified
Source: The Hindu
Context: : Citizenship Amendment Act rules notified, four years after the law was passed
UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS Paper – 2 (Government Policies & Interventions India and its Neighbourhood)
Why in news
- Recently the Home Ministry notified the implementation of Citizenship Amendment Act’s (CAA) rules.
Key highlights
- The law paves the way for Hindu, Sikh, Jain, Buddhist, Christian and Parsi refugees, who came to India before December, 31 2014, from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan to acquire Indian citizenship without having a valid passport of these countries or an Indian visa.
- The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill 2019 was passed in Parliament in December 2019.
- The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on December 9 while the Rajya Sabha passed it on December 11.
What is in the Bill
- The Bill proposed to amend the Citizenship Act, 1955, and sought to make foreign illegal migrants of certain religious communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan eligible for Indian citizenship, according to PRS Legislative Research.
Rules for citizenship in India
- Before the new rules were implemented, the citizenship in India was regulated by the Citizenship Act, 1955.
- The Bill specifies that citizenship may be acquired in India through five criteria – by birth in India, by descent, through registration, by naturalisation (extended residence in India), and by incorporation of territory into India.
- The new law, however, introduces religion as the sixth criteria to acquire citizenship in India, while excluding Muslims.
What does the law change
- The Bill proposes that the specified class of illegal migrants from the three countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan – will not be treated as illegal migrants, making them eligible for citizenship.
- These migrants will become Indian citizens from the date of their entry into India anytime before December, 31 2014.
- All legal proceedings regarding their status as illegal migrants or their citizenship will be closed.
- The refugee has to fulfil some qualifications. One of the qualifications is that the person must have resided in India or been in central government service for the last 12 months and at least 11 years of the preceding 14 years.
- For the specified class of illegal migrants, the number of years of residency has been relaxed to five years.
Exceptions
- The amendments on citizenship for illegal migrants will not apply to certain areas.
- These include the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura, as included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
- The exceptions also include the states regulated by the “Inner Line” permit under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations 1873.
- These Sixth Schedule tribal areas include Karbi Anglong (in Assam), Garo Hills (in Meghalaya), Chakma District (in Mizoram), and Tripura Tribal Areas District.
- Further, the Inner Line Permit regulates the visit of all persons, including Indian citizens, to Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Nagaland.
On Overseas Citizens of India
- The law also made amendments to provisions related to Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) cardholders.
- A foreigner may register as an OCI under the 1955 Act if they are of Indian origin or the spouse of a person of Indian origin.
- This will entitle them to benefits such as the right to travel to India, and to work and study in the country.
- The law has amended the Act to allow cancellation of OCI registration if the person has violated any law notified by the central government.
Debates
- While introducing the Bill in Rajya Sabha in December 2019, Union Home Minister Amit Shah said that the Bill will give a new ray of hope to persons belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian communities who have migrated to India after facing persecution on the ground of religion in Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh.
- The law has generated criticism for being against minorities. The fear among Muslims is that this law, combined with a proposed national register of citizens (NRC), would marginalise them.
- As of now, the NRC has been implemented in Assam only. But BJP has promised to roll out NRC across India.
Why Three Countries
- Responding to the question on why only three countries were considered and why Muslims were not included in the law, Shah said that at different points of time in the past, citizenship had been given to refugees coming from countries like Uganda and Sri Lanka.
- Then, refugees coming from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan were not considered.
- The process of awarding citizenship to refugees has been undertaken by different governments in the past on a case-to-case basis from time to time, on reasonable qualifications to Article 14.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Which religious communities are eligible for Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA),2019?
1. Hindu 2. Muslim 3. Buddhist 4. Sikh 5. Christian 6. Parsi 7. Jain Code A. 2 , 5 , 6 and 7 only B. 1 , 2 , 4 and 5 only C. 3 , 4 , 1 ,5 and 6 only D. 1, 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 and 7 only
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D
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| Ans 1 D
Explanation
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Agricultural drones and Namo Drone Didis
Source: Hindustan Times
Context: GS 2 ( Government program for Women empowerment and Inclusive growth)
UPSC Syllabus relevance: The Namo Drone Didi and Lakhpati Didi initiatives promoting economic empowerment
Why in news
- Recently the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi participated in Sashakt Nari – Viksit Bharat programme and witnessed agricultural drone demonstrations conducted by Namo Drone Didis at Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Pusa, New Delhi.
About the Programme
- In the course of the program, Prime Minister will distribute drones to 1,000 Namo Drone Didis;
- The Namo Drone Didi and Lakhpati Didi initiatives play a crucial role in realizing the Prime Minister’s vision of promoting economic empowerment and financial independence among women, particularly in rural areas;
- As part of the event, the Prime Minister will honor Lakhpati Didis who have achieved success with the assistance of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission;
- These accomplished women are actively supporting and inspiring other members of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) for their progress;
- Additionally, Prime Minister will disburse approximately eight thousand crore rupees in bank loans to SHGs at subsidized interest rates through Bank Linkage Camps established by banks in each district and there will also be allocation of around two thousand crore rupees in the Capitalization Support Fund to support SHGs.
NaMo Drone Didi Initiative
- Launched under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra, the NaMo Drone Didi Initiative is a government scheme designed to empower rural women through training in becoming drone pilots for agricultural applications;
- The initiative’s goal is to equip 15,000 women-led Self-Help Groups (SHGs) with agricultural drones, enabling them to perform tasks such as crop monitoring, fertilization, and seed sowing.
Lakhpati Didi Initiative
- The Prime Minister unveiled the Lakhpati Didi Initiative during his Independence Day speech on August 15, 2023, with the primary goal of encouraging women to establish micro-enterprises within their villages;
- Under this initiative, the government aims to train two crore women, particularly those in self-help groups (SHGs), to enable them to generate a sustainable annual income of at least Rs 1 lakh per household;
- The DAY-NRLM spearheads this initiative, focusing on multiple livelihood activities within SHG households, coupled with value chain interventions to ensure a yearly income of Rs 1 lakh or more.
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)
- This flagship poverty alleviation program, implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, aims to diminish poverty by facilitating poor households’ access to self-employment and skilled-wage employment opportunities;
- DAY-NRLM follows a demand-driven approach, allowing states to formulate their state-specific poverty reduction action plans.
About Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
- The inception of SHGs traces back to 1975 in Bangladesh, credited to Mohammed Yunus of Chittagong University and it was initially designed as a program for overall poverty eradication, it evolved to specifically focus on rural development through the empowerment of women;
- SHGs in India: It can be attributed to the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and after gained further momentum after 1991-92 when the integration of Self Help Groups with banks.
- Self-Help Groups (SHGs) represent informal associations where individuals unite to enhance their living conditions collectively;
- These groups are characterized by self-governance and peer control, comprised of individuals sharing similar socio-economic backgrounds and a collective aspiration to pursue common goals;
- The essence of SHGs revolves around the principle of “Self Help,” fostering self-employment initiatives and poverty alleviation.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
1. They are generally government agencies that provide financial assistance. 2. They promote self-employment initiatives and poverty alleviation through collective action. 3. The inception of SHGs traces back to 1975 in South Africa. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1 , 2 and 3
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Q. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2010)
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc., whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self Help Groups. 2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: D |
| Answer 2– C
Explanation – · Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are voluntary associations of the economically poor, usually drawn from the same socio-economic background and who resolve to come together for a common purpose of solving their issues and problems through self-help and community action. · The inception of SHGs traces back to 1975 in Bangladesh, credited to Mohammed Yunus of Chittagong University and it was initially designed as a program for overall poverty eradication, it evolved to specifically focus on rural development through the empowerment of women; · In 1984, the concept of social mobilization through the organizing of SHGs was introduced based on Prof. Yunus’s Grameen Bank model. · Initially, NABARD along with impaneled NGOs designed and developed the promotional ecosystem, including the SHGs-Bank linkage program. · In the year 1990, the RBI recognized SHGs as an alternate credit flow model. · Therefore, option C is correct answer.
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Rhodamine-B in news
Source: The Hindu
Context: Rhodamine-B is an industrial dye which is not allowed in food anywhere in the world as it is toxic.
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Health Issue and government taken steps)
Why in News
- The Karnataka government prohibited the use of artificial colours in ‘Gobi Manchurian’ and ‘Cotton Candy’ in the state, citing presence of cancer-causing chemicals.
Key highlights
- Samples of Gobi Manchurian and Cotton Candy sold across Karnataka were collected by the department and analysed in laboratories.
- Based on the results, the Food Safety Commissioner ordered a ban on usage of any artificial colours in preparation of ‘Gobi Manchurian’.
- While for ‘Cotton Candy’, the Commissioner prohibited the use of artificial colours, like ‘Rhodamine B’, over and above the prescribed limits.
- According to report in case of any violation of the Food Safety and Standards Act – 2006 rule 59, the department can file a case in court which can lead to imprisonment from seven years to life term and fine up to ₹10 lakh.
About Rhodamine-B
- It is a water-soluble chemical compound.
- While it appears green in powder form, it turns vivid fluorescent pink when it comes in contact with water.
- It is a chemical commonly used for dyeing in the textile, paper, leather, and paints industry as a coloring agent that helps in attaining the red and pink spectrum.
- “As per the Food Safety Standards Act, 2006, preparation, packaging, importing, selling and serving food items with Rhodamine-B in wedding ceremonies and other public events is a punishable offence.
- It is an industrial dye which is not allowed in food anywhere in the world as it is toxic.
Why is it harmful?
- Researchers have identified that if food containing this chemical is consumed regularly, it can cause damage to the cerebellum tissue in the brain and to the brainstem that connects the brain to the spinal cord.
- These damages can lead to functional abnormalities and can hinder humans’ motor functioning.
- The chemical is toxic for humans and can cause oxidative stress on cells and tissues if ingested.
- It becomes particularly hazardous when it is mixed with food products, leading to cancer and tumour over time.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Which of the following statements with regards to Rhodamine-B is/are correct?
1. As per the Food Safety Standards Act, 2006, preparation, packaging, importing, selling and serving food items with Rhodamine-B in wedding ceremonies and other public events is a punishable offence. 2. Researchers have identified that if food containing Rhodamine-B chemical is consumed regularly, it can cause damage to the cerebellum tissue in the brain. Code A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 |
Q. Recently, Foot and mouth disease was in the news. The foot and mouth disease is caused by: (UPSC Prelims 2016)
A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Fungi Answer: B
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| Answer 3 C
Explanation · The Karnataka government prohibited the use of any artificial colours in the preparation of Gobi Manchurian and restricted the usage of specific artificial colours, like Rhodamine B, in Cotton Candy. · As per the Food Safety Standards Act, 2006, preparation, packaging, importing, selling and serving food items with Rhodamine-B in wedding ceremonies and other public events is a punishable offence. · Violating the Food Safety and Standards Act – 2006 rule 59 can lead to imprisonment from seven years to life term and a fine of up to ₹10 lakh. · It is an industrial dye which is not allowed in food anywhere in the world as it is toxic. So, statement 1 is correct. · Rhodamine-B is considered harmful because it can cause damage to brain tissue and hinder motor functioning if consumed regularly. · Researchers have identified that if food containing this chemical is consumed regularly, it can cause damage to the cerebellum tissue in the brain and to the brainstem that connects the brain to the spinal cord. · These damages can lead to functional abnormalities and can hinder humans’ motor functioning. So, statement 2 is correct. · Therefore option C is correct answer.
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The second biggest man-made methane leak, ever
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Pollution and its Impact)
Context: Methane is a potent greenhouse gas — it traps heat in the atmosphere and adds to global warming.
Why in news
- Scientists recently disclosed that a drilling incident at an exploration well in southwestern Kazakhstan’s Mangistau region last year resulted in one of the largest man-made methane leaks, potentially ranking as the second biggest in history.
About Methane
- Methane is a potent greenhouse gas — it traps heat in the atmosphere and adds to global warming.
- Leaks from fossil fuel operations are the biggest source of methane emissions.
- About 40% of human-caused methane emissions come from such operations.
What happened
- The drilling incident at the exploration well caused a fire that raged between June and December 2023 and released 127,000 tonnes of methane into the atmosphere.
- Plumes of gas could be seen from space, which is how scientists behind five satellite instruments detected the leak 115 times during the six months.
- The leak has now been stopped and the well is currently being sealed with cement.
The environmental impact of the Kazakhstan leak
- According to the US Environmental Protection Agency’s Greenhouse Gas Equivalency Calculator, “the environmental impact of such a leak is comparable to that of driving more than 717,000 petrol cars for a year,” the BBC reported.
- Methane is one of the biggest drivers of climate change, second only to carbon dioxide.
- Its concentration in the atmosphere has more than doubled in the last couple of centuries and is responsible for around 30 per cent of the rise in global temperatures since the Industrial Revolution.
- The Kazakhstan methane leak is the latest addition to the long list of such leaks from the oil and gas sector.
- In September 2022, underwater blasts tore apart two pipelines carrying Russian gas to Germany – Nord Stream 1 and 2 – releasing up to 230,000 tonnes of methane into the atmosphere.
- Most of these leaks are due to equipment failure.
- Notably, 2023 witnessed the highest levels of greenhouse gas concentrations ever in the atmosphere.
- Methane concentrations increased by 11 parts per billion (ppb).
- According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), rapid and sustained reductions in methane emissions are needed to limit near-term warming and improve air quality.
- The average global temperature has already risen at least 1.2 degree Celsius above pre-industrial times.
Way forward
- To ensure that the planet doesn’t breach the 1.5 degree and 2 degree Celsius thresholds set by the 2015 Paris Agreement, countries urgently need to implement certain steps, including curbing greenhouse gases like methane and carbon dioxide.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to Methane Emissions:
1. Methane emissions trap heat in the atmosphere. 2. Methane is the second biggest driver of climate change after Sulphur dioxide. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Consider the following; (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only Answer: B
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Answer 4: A Explanation: · The International Energy Agency recommends rapid and sustained reductions in methane emissions to limit near-term warming and improve air quality. · About 40% of human-caused methane emissions come from fossil fuel operations. · Methane emissions trap heat in the atmosphere, contributing to global warming and climate change. So, statement 1 is correct. · Methane is the second most abundant anthropogenic GHG after carbon dioxide (CO2), accounting for about 16 percent of global emissions. · Methane is more than 28 times as potent as carbon dioxide at trapping heat in the atmosphere. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option A is correct answer.
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SIPRI Report
Source: The Times of India
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 2 (International relations, Important reports )
Context: India Remains World’s Top Arms Importer: SIPRI Report
Why in news
- India maintains its position as the world’s leading arms importer, with a 4.7% increase in imports between 2014-2018 and 2019-2023, as revealed by a new report from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI).
Key Highlights
- Russian Dominance: Russia remains India’s primary arms supplier, accounting for 36% of its imports.
- However, this marks the first five-year period since 1960-1964 where Russian deliveries constituted less than half of India’s imports.
- Pakistan’s Arms Imports: Pakistan witnessed a significant increase of 43% in its arms imports, making it the fifth-largest importer globally in 2019-2023. China emerges as its dominant supplier, providing 82% of its imports.
- East Asia Trends: Arms imports surged in two of China’s neighboring countries, with Japan experiencing a 155% increase and South Korea seeing a 6.5% rise. China’s own imports decreased by 44%, attributed to the adoption of locally produced systems over imports, primarily from Russia.
- US Influence: Concerns over China’s ambitions drive high levels of arms imports by US allies and partners in Asia and Oceania. The US, sharing these perceptions, is increasingly becoming a supplier to the region.
- Middle East Dynamics: Thirty percent of global arms transfers were directed to the Middle East in 2019-2023. Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Egypt ranked among the top 10 importers, with Saudi Arabia holding the second position. While Saudi Arabia’s imports declined by 28% from the record level in 2014-2018, Qatar’s imports surged almost fourfold, making it the third-largest importer globally in 2019-2023.
About SIPRI
- The SIPRI is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament.
- Established in 1966 at Stockholm, SIPRI provides data, analysis and recommendations, based on open sources, to policymakers, researchers, media and the interested public.
Other SIPRI’s Reports and Publications
- SIPRI’s Reports and Publications
- Arms Transfers Database
- Military Expenditure Database
- Nuclear Weapons Database
- Conflict, Peace, and Security Reports
- Arms Control and Disarmament Reports
- Regional and Thematic Reports
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5 Consider the following statements with reference to latest SIPRI reports:
1. India’s continued its status as the world’s leading arms importer. 2. US has emerged as India’s main arms supplier, accounting for 36% of its imports. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the : ( UPSC Prelims 2019 )
A. International Monetary Fund B. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development C. World Economic Forum D. World Bank Answer: C
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| Answer 5– A
Explanation · The SIPRI is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament. · Established in 1966 at Stockholm, SIPRI provides data, analysis and recommendations, based on open sources, to policymakers, researchers, media and the interested public. · According to recent SIPRI report India’s continued its status as the world’s leading arms importer. So, statement 1 is correct. · The report states a 4.7% increase in India’s arms imports between 2014-2018 and 2019-2023. · The report highlights Russia as India’s main arms supplier, accounting for 36% of its imports. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option A is correct answer.
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Divyastra Mission
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology Defence Technology Indigenization of Technology)
Context: PM Modi Announces Mission Divyastra Success: The Agni-5 Missile with MIRV Technology
Why in news
- Agni missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology was recently test fired, signifying a significant milestone in India’s defense capabilities under Mission Divyastra.
Agni-5 Missiles and MIRV Technology
- The Agni missile series, developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), has been a cornerstone of India’s defense arsenal since the early 1990s.
- The latest variant, the Agni-5, is distinguished by its incorporation of MIRV technology, a capability possessed by only a select few countries globally.
- MIRV technology enables a single missile to target multiple, widely dispersed locations, enhancing its effectiveness in striking diverse strategic targets.
- With a range exceeding 5,000 km, the Agni-5 is designed to address security challenges, particularly in relation to China.
Strategic Implications and International Context
- The possession of MIRV-equipped missiles places India in a select group of nations, currently including the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom.
- Furthermore, these missiles can be launched from both land and sea, including submarines.
- While Pakistan is reportedly developing a similar system, there are suspicions regarding Israel’s possession or development of MIRV-equipped missiles.
- The successful testing of Agni-5 marks a continuation of India’s efforts to strengthen its missile capabilities, with previous tests dating back to 2012.
- The Agni series encompasses a range of missile systems, with the Agni-5 representing the latest advancement in India’s long-range missile technology.
Significance of MIRV Technology
- The unique lethality of MIRV technology lies in its ability to carry multiple warheads, enabling a single missile to release warheads at different speeds and directions.
- This feature enhances its capability to strike multiple targets with precision, making it a potent strategic asset.
- The development of MIRV technology is a complex and challenging endeavor, requiring the integration of large missiles, small warheads, accurate guidance systems, and sophisticated mechanisms for the sequential release of warheads during flight.
- The rarity of this technology underscores the significance of India’s achievement in joining the select group of nations possessing MIRV capabilities.
Strategic Context and Future Implications
- India’s pursuit of MIRV technology is situated within the broader regional dynamics, particularly in the context of its strategic rivalry with China.
- The perceived advantages for India include addressing the imbalance in land-based ballistic missile forces, ensuring parity in sea-based nuclear deterrent capabilities, and hedging against the potential deployment of ballistic missile defense systems by China.
- The successful integration of MIRV technology into the Agni-5 missile represents a significant stride in India’s efforts to bolster its strategic defense capabilities, with implications for regional security dynamics.
India’s Missile Technology Evolved Over the Years
- India’s missile development program has come a long way since the early Agni series missiles.
- The Agni missile family, developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), has progressively increased in range and capabilities, from the Agni-I with a range of 700-1,250 km to the Agni-IV with a range of 3,500-4,000 km .
- The Agni-5, with its range of over 5,000+ km ,represents a significant leap in India’s missile technology.
- The indigenous development of the Agni series missiles highlights India’s focus on self-reliance in its defense sector.
Agni-5 Comparison with Other Global ICBMs
- The Agni-5 missile, with its range, payload capacity, and MIRV capability, is comparable to other advanced ICBMs deployed by global powers.
- For instance, Russia’s RS-28 Sarmat (Satan 2) ICBM, introduced in 2022, has a range of up to 18,000 km (11,200 miles) and can carry up to 10 MIRVs.
- While the exact specifications of the Agni-5’s MIRV capability remain classified, its successful test under Mission Divyastra demonstrates India’s technological advances and positions it among the elite group of nations with advanced ICBM capabilities.
- Conclusion
- The successful testing of the Agni-5 missile with MIRV technology under Mission Divyastra heralds a new chapter in India’s defense capabilities, positioning the country as a formidable player in the realm of advanced missile technology.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology:
1. MIRV technology enables a single missile to carry vehicle for satellite launch. 2. The possession of MIRV-equipped missiles is currently held by the only Russia, and India. 3. MIRV technology allows a single missile to target multiple locations. How many above statements is/are correct? A. One only B. Two only C. All three D. None
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Q. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2014)
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: A
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| Answer 6– A
Explanation · MIRV technology enables a single missile to carry multiple warheads, enhancing its capability to strike multiple targets with precision. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · The possession of MIRV-equipped missiles is currently held by the United States, Russia, and China, among others. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · MIRV technology allows a single missile to target multiple locations, thus enhancing its strategic effectiveness. So, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option A is correct answer. |
Oscars Awards
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus relevance: Preliminary ( Awards and Honours)
Context: 96th Oscars Awards 2024
Why in news
- The highly anticipated 96th Academy Awards ceremony concluded with flair at the Ovation Hollywood in Los Angeles.
Key highlights
- Christopher Nolan’s “Oppenheimer” was the most nominated film with 13 nominations, followed by Yorgos Lanthimos’ “Poor Things” with 11 nominations.
- It is noteworthy that Oppenheimer won 7 out of 13 nominations.
The full list of winners is as follows
- Best picture: “Oppenheimer”
- Best director: Christopher Nolan, “Oppenheimer”
- Best actress: Emma Stone, “Poor Things.”
- Best actor: Cillian Murphy, “Oppenheimer”
- Best supporting actress: Da’Vine Joy Randolph, “The Holdovers”
- Best supporting actor: Robert Downey Jr., “Oppenheimer”
- Best original screenplay: Justine Triet and Arthur Harari, “Anatomy of a Fall”
- Best adapted screenplay: Cord Jefferson, “American Fiction”
- Best animated feature: “The Boy and the Heron”
- Best animated short: “War is Over!
- Best international feature: “The Zone of Interest” (United Kingdom)
- Best original song: Billie Eilish and Finneas O’Connell, “What Was I Made For?” from “Barbie”
- Best sound: Tarn Willers and Johnnie Burn, “The Zone of Interest”
- Best cinematography: Hoyte van Hoytema, “Oppenheimer”
- Best editing: Jennifer Lame, “Oppenheimer”
About Oscars Awards
- The Academy Awards, also known as the Oscars, are a series of awards that recognize achievements in the film industry.
- The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, located in Beverly Hills, California, presents these awards annually.
- The first Academy Awards were presented in 1929.
- The Academy Awards are often considered the most prestigious film award in the world.
- The awards are peer-voted and are given to film artists who work on movies that are released in theaters.
- The Academy Awards’ best-known award is the Academy Award of Merit, also known as the Oscar statuette.
- The statuette is made of gold-plated bronze on a black metal base and is 13.5 inches tall and weighs 8.5 pounds.
- It depicts a knight in an Art Deco style holding a sword on a reel of film with five spokes.
Indians in Oscars Awards
- MM Keeravani and Chandrabose : Won a oscars for Best Original Song in 2023.
- Kartiki Gonsalves and Guneet Monga : Won an Oscar in 2023 for Best Documentary Short for their work on Kartiki Gonsalves & Guneet Monga.
- R. Rahman : Won Oscars in 2008 for Best Original Song and Best Original Score for his work on Slumdog Millionaire.
- Gulzar : Won an Oscar in 2009 for Best Original Song for “Jai Ho” from Slumdog Millionaire.
- Bhanu Athaiya : Won an Oscar in 1982 for Best Costume Design for her work on Gandhi.
- Satyajit Ray : Received an honorary Oscar in 1992 for his filmmaking and humanitarian work.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to 96th Oscars Awards:
1. Oppenheimer received 13 Awards making it the most Awarded film at the 96th Oscars Awards. 2. Emma Stone won the award for Best Actress for her role in “Poor Things.” 3. Billie Eilish and Finneas O’Connell won the award for Best Original Song. How many of the above statements are correct? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
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Q. For outstanding contribution to which one of the following fields is Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize given? (UPSC Prelims 2009)
A. Literature B. Performing Arts C. Science D. Social Service Ans: C
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| Answer 7– B
Explanation · “Oppenheimer” received 13 nominations, making it the most nominated film at the 96th Oscars Awards. “Oppenheimer” won 7 out of its 13 nominations at the 96th Oscars Awards. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · Emma Stone won the 2024 Academy Award for Best Actress for her role as Bella Baxter in the 2023 film Poor Things. Stone also serves as a producer on the film, which is an adaptation of Alasdair Gray’s 1992 novel. · Stone also won a Golden Globe and BAFTA Award for Best Actress for her performance in Poor Things. So, statement 2 is correct. · Billie Eilish and Finneas O’Connell won the award for Best Original Song for “What Was I Made For?” from the film “Barbie” at the 96th Oscars Awards. So, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore option B is correct answer.
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