Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (12-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Andhra Pradesh: APSSDC plans tie-ups with UK-based organisations to enhance skillsets of workforce |
| National: About Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) |
| Economy: ADB raises India’s GDP growth forecast in 2024-25 at 7% |
| International: India, Mauritius revise tax treaty, aim to plug evasion |
| Seventh round of trade negotiations between India, Peru conclude |
| Ecology: Invasive chital threaten natural ecosystems in Andamans |
APSSDC plans tie-ups with UK-based organisations to enhance skillsets of workforce
Source: The Hindu
APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Current Events, Skill Development in Andhra Pradesh, Government Policy
Context: The focus of government is on improving English language proficiency and employability of work force in healthcare sector
Why in news
- The Andhra Pradesh State Skill Development Corporation (APPSC) is planning to collaborate with UK-based organisations to enhance the skillsets of the workforce in the State.
Key Highlights
- Skill Development and Training Principal Secretary Suresh Kumar and APPSC Managing Director P. Raja Babu held a discussion with the British Deputy High Commissioner to Andhra Pradesh and Telangana Gareth Wynn Owen on the potential areas of collaboration on April 11.
- The skill development department has received proposals from many UK-based organisations including the British Council, Skill and Education Group, Pearson, Cambridge University and Neath Port Talbot College Group to offer training in worker rights, blended learning models and online courses.
- These training programmes would be organised to prepare and certify health workers, particularly from India, for employment in the UK.
- The government is evaluating these proposals and the feasibility of implementation of the projects in collaboration with the UK-based companies will be explored.
- The focus will be on improving the English language proficiency and employability of the work force in the State, particularly in the healthcare sector.
Andhra Pradesh – Scenario
- Andhra Pradesh has a population of 4.94 Crore as 10 populous state of country.
- The state has 26 districts.
- Andhra Pradesh is strategically located with a 974 km coastline
- The state has 30 existing urban centers, 3 mega cities and 12 smart cities planned.
- Andhra Pradesh has a huge potential for the job market as the various industrial belts are been planned.
About APPSC
- The Govt. of AP has formed 7 different Missions to achieve double digit growth for the state and to make AP among the most developed state in the country.
- Among these, the Knowledge and Skills Mission has been formed to provide trained and skilled manpower to all other Missions.
- To bring the faster execution State Government Andhra Pradesh has established The Department of Skill Development, Entrepreneurship and Innovation (DSDEI)
- DSDEI has been further created to coordinate and synergize skilling efforts of all departments under which APSSDC is formed.
Vision
- To eliminate the poverty and create decent work for all by investing in the social capital through employment-oriented and industry aligned skill development and livelihood generation
Mission
- Identify the gaps in the existing skills ecosystem and upgrade skills to international standards through significant industry involvement, develop necessary frameworks for quality assurance and establish state-of-art skill colleges across all MP Constituencies to redefine employability skills in the State of Andhra Pradesh.
- Ensure the effectiveness of the different skill development programs conducted by state government departments, corporations, societies and agencies by convergence and standardization.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Andhra Pradesh State Skill Development Corporation (APPSC):
1. APPSC is planning to collaborate with France-based organisations to enhance the skillsets of the workforce in the State. 2. Vision of APPSC is to eliminate the poverty and create decent work for all by investing in the social capital. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct? A. Statement 1 B. Statement 2 C. Statements 1 and 2 D. None of the above
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| Answer 1– B
Explanation
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Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance)
Context: Adjudicating Authority plays a significant role in the prevention of money laundering.
Why in news
- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) Adjudicating Authority has upheld the attachment of over Rs 751 crore linked to Congress’s Associated Journal Limited (AJL) and Young Indian.
Key Highlights
- The Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) on April 10 confirmed the attachment of assets worth Rs 751.9 crore belonging to the Congress party-promoted National Herald newspaper.
- The Enforcement Directorate (ED) had provisionally attached these properties in November 2023 in a PMLA case against Associated Journals Ltd (AJL) that publishes National Herald, and Young Indian (YI), that owns the newspaper.
- Congress leaders Sonia Gandhi and Rahul Gandhi together control YI, with 38% shares each. YI is being investigated by the ED after accusations that it acquired AJL and its assets for a “pittance” against an alleged loan extended by the Congress.
Origin of PMLA
- Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted by the NDA government to prevent money-laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from money-laundering.
- PMLA and the Rules notified there under came into force with effect from July 1, 2005.
- The Act and Rules notified there under impose obligation on banking companies, financial institutions and intermediaries to verify identity of clients, maintain records and furnish information in prescribed form to Financial Intelligence Unit – India.
Salient features
Punishment for money-laundering
- The Act prescribes that any person found guilty of money-laundering shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment from three years to seven years and where the proceeds of crime involved relate to any offence under paragraph 2 of Part A of the Schedule (Offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substance Act, 1985), the maximum punishment may extend to 10 years instead of 7 years.
Powers of attachment of tainted property
- The Director or officer above the rank of Deputy Director with the authority of the Director, can provisionally attach property believed to be “proceeds of crime” for 180 days.
- Such an order is required to be confirmed by an independent Adjudicating Authority.
Adjudicating Authority
- The Adjudicating Authority is the authority appointed by the central government through notification to exercise jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred under PMLA.
- It decides whether any of the property attached or seized is involved in money laundering.
- The Adjudicating Authority shall not be bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure,1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to the other provisions of PMLA. The Adjudicating Authority shall have powers to regulate its own procedure.
What is the role of the Adjudicating Authority?
- Section 5 of the PMLA provides for the attachment of any property that is suspected to have been acquired with the proceeds of crime in a case of any offence that is listed in the schedule of the law.
- The attachment order is issued if the ED Director feels that “such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of such proceeds of crime”.
- This provisional attachment order is valid for a period of 180 days.
- It must be confirmed within this time by an Adjudicating Authority appointed by the central government, failing which the property is automatically released from attachment.
- Because the initial attachment is provisional, the accused can continue to enjoy the property until the Adjudicating Authority confirms the attachment — after which the ED has the power to claim possession.
What happens after the Adjudicating Authority confirms the attachment?
- The accused has the right to challenge the Adjudicating Authority’s confirmation order at the PMLA’s Appellate Tribunal within 45 days. If the Appellate Tribunal too confirms the order, the accused can file a plea in the High Court, and so on.
- Unless the property is released along the way, it shall remain out of bounds for the owner until the trial is completed. Following final confirmation, in case of a residential property, the ED will ask the owner to vacate the premises along with his belongings, and will take over possession.
- In case of a conviction, the trial court may order confiscation of the attached property, and vest the rights to the property with the central government.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q2. Consider the following statements concerning “The Prevention of Money Laundering Act”:
1. It is an emergency-era law enacted to prevent money laundering and to provide confiscation of property. 2. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the entity responsible for enforcing the provisions of the act. 3. Verification by adjudicating authority is mandatory to claim the possession of properties attached under the act. Which among the following statements is/are correct?
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Q. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Action – The Act under which it is covered 1, Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms – The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties – The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3., Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others – The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Answer: (B)
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| Answer 2 C
Explanation · Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) has upheld the attachment of over Rs 751 crore linked to Congress’s Associated Journal Limited (AJL) and Young Indian. · The Prevention of Money Laundering Act was enacted in 2002 during the NDA government to prevent money laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from money laundering. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. · The Enforcement Directorate is an entity responsible for enforcing the provisions associated with the act. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. · The Adjudicating Authority is the authority appointed by the central government through notification to ensure whether any of the property attached or seized is involved in money laundering. Hence, statement 3 is correct. · The Adjudicating Authority is not bounded by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure,1908, but guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to the other provisions of PMLA. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
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ADB raises India’s GDP growth forecast in 2024-25 at 7%
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Indian Economy, Gross Domestic Product, International Financial Organisations)
Context: India’s economy is expected to remain robust over the next two years according to Asian Development Bank Report
Why in news
- Headline growth in the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is forecast to slow from 7.6% in 2023-24 to 7% this year, before improving to 7.2% in 2025-26, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) said.
Key Highlights
- As India accounts for 80% of South Asia’s GDP, it is still the fastest-growing sub-region with improving domestic demand as prices moderate in most economies.
- As per its Asia Development Outlook report released, the bank expects retail inflation to ease to 4.6% this year and 4.5% in 2025-26.
- India’s “persistent” food inflation is expected to drop to 5.7% as farm output returns to normal trends this year.
- With the S. reporting a resurgence in inflation in March, dimming prospects of much-anticipated interest rate cuts from the Federal Reserve, the ADB noted that a ‘higher for longer’ interest rate regime would have some impact on Asia’s inflation outlook, with a slightly smaller dent in growth.
- However, this impact would be “more pronounced and persistent” for India, given the higher sensitivity of its inflation pace to exchange rate fluctuations, and its greater reliance on imported goods, it said.
- Moreover, if the spike in shipping costs triggered by the strife in the Red Sea persists, it could add to inflation pressures across developing Asia.
- A projected normal monsoon this year will also help revive rural consumption, which was muted last year due to erratic rainfall affecting the farm sector, with greater demand for work under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act scheme signalling the resultant stress.
About CPI-based inflation or Retail Inflation
- Consumer price index (CPI) tracks the change in retail prices of goods and services which households purchase for their daily consumption.
- To measure inflation, we estimate how much CPI has increased in terms of percentage change over the same period the previous year. If prices have fallen, it is known as deflation (negative inflation).
- RBI pays very close attention to this figure in its role of maintaining price stability in the economy.
- The CPI monitors retail prices at a certain level for a particular commodity; price movement of goods and services at rural, urban and all-India levels.
- The change in the price index over a period of time is referred to as CPI-based inflation, or retail inflation.
- Generally, CPI is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation, as a tool by the central bank and government for inflation targeting and for inspecting price stability, and as deflator in the national accounts.
- CPI also helps understand the real value of salaries, wages, and pensions, the purchasing power of the nation’s currency, and regulating rates.
- CPI, one of the most important statistics to ascertain economic health, is generally based on the weighted average of the prices of commodities. It basically gives an idea of the cost of the standard of living.
High Food Inflation in India
- Despite the Reserve Bank of India’s best efforts to control inflation, the country continues to grapple with high food prices.
- India’s susceptibility to food inflation stems from being an agriculture-centric economy amid global macroeconomic and geopolitical upheavals.
- These global shocks, exacerbated by conflicts such as the Ukraine-Russia war and tensions in West Asia, directly impact food prices worldwide.
- Contributing factors include fluctuations in agricultural output, limited access to modern farming techniques, and reliance on increasingly erratic rainfall.
- Additionally, inefficiencies and waste in India’s food supply chain result in elevated consumer prices.
- India is also vulnerable to food inflation due to its reliance on imports of certain essential food items, such as edible oils and pulses.
- The global prices of these commodities can be affected by factors such as weather conditions, crop production in other countries, and geopolitical tensions.
Asian Development Bank
- The Asian Development Bank (ADB) assists its members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
- Its Headquarters is located in Manila, Philippines
- ADB’s highest policy-making body is the Board of Governors, which comprises one representative from each member – 49 from the Asia and Pacific region and 19 from outside the region.
- Masatsugu Asakawa is the President of ADB and the Chairperson of ADB’s Board of Directors. He was elected President by ADB’s Board of Governors and assumed office on 17 January 2020.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q3. Consider the following statements:
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
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Q. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2019)
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans- A
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| Answer 3– B
Explanation – · As per a recent ADB Report, Headline growth in the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is forecast to slow from 7.6% in 2023-24 to 7% this year. · U.S. recently reported a resurgence in inflation dimming prospects of much-anticipated interest rate cuts from the Federal Reserve. · The impact of US federal policy would be “more pronounced and persistent” for India, given the higher sensitivity of its inflation pace to exchange rate fluctuations and its greater reliance on imported goods. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. · Asian Development Bank consists of 49 from the Asia and Pacific region and 19 from outside the region. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct. · It is headquartered in Manilla, Philippines. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. · Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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India, Mauritius revise tax treaty, aim to plug evasion
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS-2 (India-Mauritius Bilateral Relations)
Context: Amendment of India-Mauritius DTAA shifts focus from bilateral investment to preventing tax evasion, with new Principal Purpose Test.
Why in news
- India has signed a protocol amending the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with Mauritius to plug treaty abuse for tax evasion or avoidance.
Key Highlights
- India has signed a protocol amending the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with Mauritius to plug treaty abuse for tax evasion or avoidance.
- The amended pact has included what is called the Principal Purpose Test (PPT), which essentially lays out the condition that the tax benefits under the treaty will not be applicable if it is established that obtaining that duty benefit was the principal purpose of any transaction or arrangement.
- In the amended protocol, Article 27B has been introduced in the treaty defining the ‘entitlement to benefits’.
- The PPT will deny treaty benefits, such as the reduction of withholding tax on interest royalties and dividends, where it is established that obtaining that treaty benefit is one of the principal purposes for the party engaged in the transaction.
- The amendment to the India-Mauritius treaty was signed on March 7 at Port Louis and was made public later.
- Mauritius has been a preferred jurisdiction for investments in India due to the non-taxability of capital gains from the sale of shares in Indian companies until 2016.
- The treaty was last amended in May 2016 allowing the right to tax capital gains arising from sale or transfer of shares of an Indian company acquired by a Mauritian tax resident and exempting investments made until March 31, 2017 from such taxation.
- This recent amendment, however, does not clarify if the past investments will be grandfathered. The Ministry of Finance is yet to issue a clarification on the same.
India-Mauritius trade
- The DTAA was a major reason for a large number of foreign portfolio investors (FPI) and foreign entities to route their investments in India through Mauritius.
- Mauritius remains India’s fourth largest source of FPI investments, after the US, Singapore, and Luxembourg.
- FPI investment from Mauritius stood at Rs 4.19 lakh crore at the end of March 2024, which is 6 per cent of the total FPI investment of Rs 69.54 lakh crore in India.
- FPI investment from Mauritius had stood at Rs 3.25 lakh crore, out of total FPI investment of Rs 48.71 lakh crore at the end of March 2023.
Amendment
- The two nations have now also amended the preamble of the treaty to incorporate the thrust on tax avoidance and evasion.
- The earlier objective of ‘mutual trade and investment’ has now been replaced with an intent to “eliminate double taxation” without creating opportunities for non-taxation or reduced taxation through tax evasion or avoidance including through “treaty shopping arrangements” aimed at obtaining relief provided under this treaty for the indirect benefit of residents of third jurisdictions.
- The recent amendment reflects India’s intent to align with global efforts against treaty abuse, particularly under the BEPS framework.
- India is yet to make any announcements regarding Pillar Two amendments in its domestic tax laws.
Pillar Two
- In October 2021, over 135 jurisdictions agreed to implement a minimum tax regime for multinationals under ‘Pillar Two’.
- Following this, in December 2021, Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) released the Pillar Two model rules — Global Anti-Base Erosion (GloBE) rules — which will introduce a global minimum corporate tax rate set at 15 per cent.
- The minimum tax is proposed to apply to MNEs with revenue above €750 million and is estimated to generate around $150 billion in additional global tax revenues annually.
- The Pillar Two also provides for a co-ordinated system of taxation of a top-up tax on profits arising in a jurisdiction whenever the effective tax rate, on a jurisdictional basis, is below the minimum rate of 15 per cent.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. “Principal Purpose Test “which was recently seen in news is associated with which of the following?
A. Israel- Hamas Conflict B. India- Mauritius Trade Agreement C. Experiment to study Total Solar Eclipse D. Exploring Critical Minerals in Ocean
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Q. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’,
Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2015)
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (D)
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| Answer 4 B
Explanation · India has recently signed a protocol amending the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with Mauritius to plug treaty abuse for tax evasion or avoidance. · The amended pact has included what is called the Principal Purpose Test (PPT), which essentially lays out certain conditions under the treaty. · As per the PPT, tax benefits under the treaty will not be applicable if it is established that obtaining that duty benefit was the principal purpose of any transaction or arrangement. · The PPT will deny treaty benefits, such as the reduction of withholding tax on interest royalties and dividends, where it is established that obtaining that treaty benefit is one of the principal purposes for the party engaged in the transaction. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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Seventh round of trade negotiations between India, Peru conclude
Source: The Print
https://theprint.in/economy/seventh-round-of-trade-negotiations-between-india-peru-conclude/2037357/
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (India- Peru Bilateral Relations))
Context: The seventh round of negotiations for the India-Peru Trade Agreement concluded in New Delhi
Why in news
- The recent India-Peru Trade talks made a significant progress towards fostering closer economic ties between both countries.
Key Highlights
- The talks were held from 8 to 11 April and delegates from both India and Peru engaged in fruitful discussions aimed at understanding each other’s priorities and concerns, with a shared goal of ensuring mutual respect and benefit.
- Bilateral discussions held during the sidelines of the 9th CII India-LAC Conclave in August last year played a key role in resuming of the negotiations.
- During the recent trade negotiations, substantial convergence in the text of the agreement was achieved during the round, reflecting the commitment of both parties to advancing bilateral trade relations.
- Both nations held detailed discussions on addressing the aspirations and sensitivities of both India and Peru, paving the way for a comprehensive and mutually beneficial agreement.
History
- India and Peru established diplomatic relations on 26 March 1963.
- The Congress of Peru reactivated the Peru-India Parliamentary Friendship League on 30 April 2003.
- The Parliament of India established an India-Peru Parliamentary Friendship Group in December 2007.
- Peru supports India’s candidature for a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council, and also supports India in the Kashmir dispute.
- India is building on the foundations of its over six decades of successful diplomatic relations with Peru where the two nations have cooperated with each other in multilateral forums such as the NAM, the G-77 etc. and are working together to support a reformed and expanded United Nations (UN).
- Peru is a member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) which aims to mobilise more than US$1 trillion by 2030 to promote solar power globally.
Trade Relations
- Peru has emerged as a key trading partner for India in the Latin American & Caribbean Region, with bilateral trade witnessing remarkable growth over the past two decades.
- From a modest figure of USD 66 million in 2003, trade between India and Peru has surged to approximately USD 3.68 billion in 2023.
Ongoing trade agreement negotiations
- The ongoing trade agreement negotiations hold immense potential to further bolster collaboration across various sectors, creating new avenues for mutual benefit and advancement.
- The next round of negotiations is scheduled for June 2024, with inter-sessional negotiations expected to take place over virtual conferencing to address any outstanding issues.
- As the negotiations progress, stakeholders from both nations remain optimistic about the prospects of deepening economic cooperation and unlocking new opportunities for trade and investment.
About Peru
- Peru, is a country in western South America.
- It is bordered in the north by Ecuador and Colombia, in the east by Brazil, in the southeast by Bolivia, in the south by Chile, and in the south and west by the Pacific Ocean.
- Peru formally proclaimed independence from Spain in 1821, following the military campaigns of José de San Martín and Simón Bolívar.
Conclusion
- India and Peru are the most promising economies of their respective regions.
- Diplomatic relations started in the seventies have helped trade and economic exchanges that form the bedrock of the relations.
- Today, the bilateral agreements among these countries include education, geology, natural resources, investment promotion, health, taxation, and in the last few years, the negotiations for an FTA.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements with regards to India- Peru relations:
1. India and Peru established diplomatic relations after Indian independence. 2. Peru is a member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), which was started by India. 3. Peru does not support India’s candidature for a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council, as it itself is contender for the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Q. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2014)
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
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| Answer 5 A
Explanation · India and Peru established diplomatic relations on 26 March 1963. So, first statement is correct. · Peru is a member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) which aims to mobilise more than US$1 trillion by 2030 to promote solar power globally. So, second statement is correct. · Peru supports India’s candidature for a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council, and also supports India in the Kashmir dispute.So, third statement is incorrect.
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Invasive chital threaten natural ecosystems in Andamans
Source: The Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/invasive-species-natural-ecosystems-threaten-9262836/
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Invasive Species)
Context: Lacking natural predators or competitors and possessing strong swimming abilities, the Chital rapidly proliferated across the Andamans.
Why in news
- In a bid to manage the teeming population of chital (spotted deer) in Ross Island (officially known as the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island), the Andaman and Nicobar Islands administration recently sought help from the Wildlife Institute of India.
About Chital
- Chital, native to mainland India, were introduced to the tiny island (0.3 sq km small) by the British in the early 20th century.
- Having no natural predators or competitors, and being good swimmers, chital swiftly spread across the Andamans.
- Over the past two decades, studies have examined the seemingly innocuous herbivores’ deleterious impact on the islands’ native flora and fauna — bringing to spotlight the topic of invasive species, and the threat they pose to endemic ecosystems.
Invasive alien species
- The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) defines invasive alien species (IAS) as “species whose introduction and/or spread outside their natural past or present distribution threatens biological diversity”.
- These include animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms, and can influence all kinds of ecosystems.
- These species need an introduction either through natural or human intervention, survive on native food resources, reproduce at a fast rate, and edge out native species in the competition over resources.
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
- In India, the legal definition of IAS under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (amended in 2022), is narrower.
- They are defined as “species of animal or plant which is not native to India, and whose introduction or spread may threaten or adversely impact wildlife or its habitat.”
- This leaves out species within India which might be invasive to a particular region — like the chital in Andamans, which are protected in mainland India, but have become a menace in the island chain.
Invasive wildlife in India
- The list of invasive wildlife in India is dominated by certain species of fish such as the African catfish, Nile tilapia, red-bellied piranha, and alligator gar, and turtle species such as the red-eared slider.
- The red-eared slider, for instance, is a favourite among India’s exotic pet owners, and many have been abandoned in local water bodies.
- This turtle, native to North America, notoriously edges out local freshwater species, owing to its fast rates of reproduction, and the following competition for food.
Impact
- Invasive species act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem.
- In habitats where there is no competition, invasive species can dominate the entire ecosystem.
- Along with causing dramatic changes to biodiversity and ecosystems, the global economic cost of IAS was over $423 billion annually in 2019.
- These costs arise out of the damage IAS inflict on an area’s natural ecosystem.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the following statements with regards to Invasive species is not correct?
A. Invasive species act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem. B. In India, the legal definition of IAS under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (amended in 2022), is narrower. C. As per the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) invasive alien species (IAS) include animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms. D. Chital are invasive to Andamans, as well as mainland India.
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Q. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (UPSC Prelims 2023)
A. The International Union for Conservation of Nature B. The United Nations Environment Programme C. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development D. The World Wide Fund for Nature
Ans-: (A)
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| Answer 6– D
Explanation · Invasive species act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem. In habitats where there is no competition, invasive species can dominate the entire ecosystem. So, statement A is correct.
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