11th March 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (11-03-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

National: Re-constituted National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Kerala Tops Chart of Highest Passport Penetration Among Women in the Country
International: Second Thomas Shoal
Economy: India Signs Trade Agreement with EFTA
Science and Technology: Legal Framework for Genomics
IndiaAI Mission: Cabinet Clears Rs 10k Cr Plan to Set Up Computing Capacity
Research on Resveratrol-Copper for Preventing Metastasis
Environment and Ecology: India’s Golden Langur Population Estimation

 

 

 Re-constituted National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Source: The Hindu

Context: Government ensures Madiga representation in re-constituted National Commission for Scheduled Castes

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS 2 (Indian Constitution Bodies and reform)

Why in news

  • The Union government has taken a significant step to ensure representation for the Madiga community in the re-constituted National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

About the Madiga Community

  • The Madiga community, one of the most populous Scheduled Caste communities in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, holds a substantial presence in these regions.
  • According to the 2011 census, Madigas constituted 48.27% of the total Scheduled Caste population in United Andhra Pradesh, numbering 6,702,609.

National Commission for the Scheduled Castes (NCSC)

  • The NCSC is a constitutional body established to safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Castes and the Anglo-Indian Community.
  • It is tasked with protecting their social, economic, educational, and cultural interests. The headquarters of the NCSC is located in New Delhi.

Constitutional Provisions and Scheduled Castes

  • Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions related to the NCSC.
  • Scheduled Castes are defined in Article 366(24), and Article 341(1) empowers the President to specify the castes, races, or tribes deemed as Scheduled Castes for the purpose of the Constitution.
  • Furthermore, Article 341(2) grants Parliament the authority to include or exclude castes, races, or tribes from the list of Scheduled Castes.

Duties and Functions of the Commission:

  • To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or under any other law for the time being in force or under any order of the government, and to evaluate the working of such safeguards.
  • To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes.
  • To participate and advise in the planning process of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any state.
  • To present to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards.
  • To make in such reports, recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or any state for effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare, and socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes.
  • To discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development and advancement of the Scheduled Castes as the President may, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify.

About Scheduled Castes

  • According to the 2011 Census, Scheduled Castes represent 16.6% of the country’s population, with the highest numbers found in Uttar Pradesh, followed by West Bengal and Tamil Nadu.

Constitutional Framework for Scheduled Castes Upliftment

  • Several constitutional provisions are devoted to addressing the issues faced by Scheduled Castes:
  • Article 15 prohibits discrimination against Scheduled Castes in various spheres.
  • Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form.
  • Article 46 directs the State to promote the educational and economic advancement of Scheduled Castes and other weaker sections of society.
  • Article 243D(4) mandates reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats.
  • Article 243T(4) mandates reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in Municipalities.
  • Article 330 provides for the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 332 provides for the reservation of seats in the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

Conclusion

  • The government’s decision to ensure Madiga representation in the re-constituted NCSC is a significant step towards inclusive governance and reflects the commitment to uphold the rights and interests of Scheduled Castes in India.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to National Commission for the Scheduled Castes (NCSC):

1. NCSC can inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes.

2. The headquarters of the NCSC is located in Hyderabad.

3. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions related to the NCSC.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Answer: D

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 1 B

Explanation

·         The Union government has taken a significant step to ensure representation for the Madiga community in the re-constituted National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

·         Duties and Functions of the Commission:

·         To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or under any other law for the time being in force or under any order of the government, and to evaluate the working of such safeguards.

·         To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes functions from its Headquarters at New Delhi and from the Regional Offices of the Commission located in six States. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions related to the NCSC.

·         The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.

·         By this amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely- (i) the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), and (ii) the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) w.e.f. 19 February, 2004. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

Kerala Tops Chart of Highest Passport Penetration Among Women in the Country

Source: The Hindu

Context: The high number of female passport holders underscores the recent shift in migration patterns from Kerala.

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 2 (Government’s initiative for Women)

Why in news

  • Kerala boasts the highest number of women passport holders in India, with 42 lakhs out of 99 lakh passports issued to women in the state, while Maharashtra follows closely with 40.8 lakh female passport holders.

Total Passport Holders in Kerala

  • Kerala also has the highest number of total passport holders in India, with 98.92 lakh, including male and female.
  • The state’s population of around 4 crore boasts close to 1 crore (99 lakh) passport holders, indicating a high passport penetration rate.

 

Migration Patterns and Overseas Education

  • The high number of female passport holders underscores the recent shift in migration patterns from Kerala, characterized by a notable increase in the state’s youth, especially female students, heading to various countries for higher education.
  • A survey conducted in 2023 found that more women from Kerala are pursuing overseas education, with females representing 32% of the survey respondents.

 

Passport Issuance Trends

  • In 2023, Kerala saw more than 15.5 lakh new passports being issued, while Maharashtra was at No.2 with 15.1 lakh and Uttar Pradesh saw 13.7 lakh new passports issued.
  • The number of total passports issued in India rose 17% compared to the previous year.

 

Comparison with Other States

  • In comparison, India’s most populous state, Uttar Pradesh, with a population of around 24 crore, has just 88 lakh passport holders.
  • Maharashtra, with a population of 13 crore, has 98 lakh passport holders.
  • Punjab, known for its overseas migrants, has only 70.14 lakh passport holders.

 

Sex Ratio and Recent Changes

  • Kerala also leads in terms of the number of women passport holders, with 42 lakh out of the 99 lakh passports issued in the state belonging to women.
  • On a pan-India basis, the share of women passport holders is 35%, with 3.1 crore out of the total 8.8 crore passports issued to females.
  • The latest trends also indicate that the ratio of passport holders among the different states remains largely unchanged in recent years.

 

Impact of COVID-19 on Passport Issuance

  • The number of passports being issued has risen significantly since the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • While 1.38 crore new passports were issued in India last year, the pre-COVID year of 2019 saw only 1.11 crore such documents issued.
  • The COVID pandemic saw a sharp decline in the number of passports issued, with the figure falling to 54.13 lakh for 2020, before bouncing back to 73.63 lakh in 2021.

 

Significance of Emigration

  • Kerala is home to one of the largest diasporas in the world, and emigration – which started in the 1970s – has been the most important factor that made the state the second richest in India by living standards.
  • Starting with the Persian Gulf in the early years, Malayalis have emigrated to various parts of the world, including the US, Canada, the UK, Israel, and Europe.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to recent survey:

1. Kerala has the highest number of total passport holders in India.

2. The number of passports being issued has decreased significantly since the COVID-19 pandemic.

3. Maharashtra leads in terms of number of women passport holders.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

Q. Which state has the highest sex ratio, as per the 2011 Census? (UPSC Prelims 2012 )

A. Mizoram

B. Nagaland

C. Manipur

D. Kerala

Answer: D

 

 

Answer 2– B

Explanation –

·         Kerala has the highest number of total passport holders in India, with 98.92 lakh passports issued, indicating a significant passport penetration rate in the state. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         The number of passports being issued has risen significantly since the COVID-19 pandemic.  While 1.38 crore new passports were issued in India last year, the pre-COVID year of 2019 saw only 1.11 crore such documents issued. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         India’s most populous state, Uttar Pradesh, with a population of around 24 crores, has just 88 lakh passport holders.

·         Maharashtra, with a population of 13 crore, has 98 lakh passport holders.

·         Kerala also leads in terms of the number of women passport holders, with 42 lakhs out of the 99 lakh passports issued in the state belonging to women. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

Second Thomas Shoal

Source: The Hindu

Context: Second Thomas Shoal: A Symbol of Defiance in the South China Sea.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS Paper – 2 (Bilateral Groupings & Agreements Important International Institutions)

Why in News

  • The Second Thomas Shoal, an uninhabited tear-drop shaped atoll located in the Spratly Islands within the Philippines’ exclusive economic zone, symbolizes the Philippines’ defiance in the South China Sea amidst competing claims, particularly from China.

Conflict and Accusations

  • The Philippines has accused China of obstructing, harassing, and blocking Philippine vessels near the shoal, while China claims that Philippine vessels have trespassed into Chinese waters without authorization.

South China Sea Dispute

  • The South China Sea, rich in marine life and strategically significant, is at the center of territorial and sovereignty disputes involving countries such as China, Taiwan, Malaysia, Philippines, Brunei, and Vietnam.

 

Geopolitical Significance

  • For China, the South China Sea is crucial for securing strongholds to safeguard its growing economy and energy exports.
  • For ASEAN countries, the verdict of the dispute could provide leverage in their own disputes with Beijing.
  • The USA sees the region as vital for its rebalancing strategy, while India’s increasing presence and economic interests in the Indo-Pacific region highlight the importance of freedom of navigation through the South China Sea.

 

Resource Availability

  • The South China Sea holds vast reserves of oil and natural gas, along with one third of the world’s marine biodiversity, making it a significant region for resource exploration and biodiversity conservation efforts.

 

Multilateralism and International Concerns

  • The South China Sea has become a litmus test for multilateralism, particularly following the 2016 verdict of the Permanent Court of Arbitration, which China has refused to accept.
  • The aggressive posture of China in the region raises concerns about the defiance of international laws, such as the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), and its potential impact on freedom of navigation in the high seas.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statement with reference to the South China Sea:

1. The South China Sea’s northern border is marked by China and Taiwan.

2. Its western boundary includes the Indo-Chinese peninsula nations like Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, and Singapore.

3. To the south, the sea is bordered by Indonesia and Brunei.

4. The eastern edge of South China Sea is referred to as the eastern Philippine Sea.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 4 only

 

 

Q. The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries? (UPSC Prelims 2019)

1. China

2. Vietnam

3. Malaysia

4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 4

B. 1 and 2

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer : C

 

 

Answer 3 D

Explanation

·         Answer: D

·         Explanation

·         The South China Sea is a marginal sea of the Western Pacific Ocean. It’s the world’s largest sea, covering around 3,500,000 square kilometers. The South China Sea is bordered by China, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam.

·         The South China Sea’s northern border is marked by China and Taiwan. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Its western boundary includes the Indo-Chinese peninsula nations like Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, and Singapore. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         To the south, the sea is bordered by Indonesia and Brunei. So, statement 3 is correct.

·         The eastern edge is defined by the Philippines, referred to as the West Philippine Sea. So, statement 4 is incorrect.

·         Therefore option D is correct answer.

 

 

India Signs Trade Agreement with EFTA

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS – 2 (International Treaties & Agreements)

 Context: India Signs Trade Agreement with EFTA: What is the Significance of the Deal?

Why in news

  • Recently India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), consisting of Norway, Switzerland, Iceland, and Liechtenstein, inked the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) to foster investment and bolster trade in goods and services between the two entities.

Key Highlights of the Agreement

  • The agreement consists of 14 chapters covering various aspects such as trade in goods, rules of origin, trade in services, investment promotion, intellectual property rights (IPRs), and more.
  • EFTA countries have committed to investing $100 billion in India over the next 15 years, reflecting the potential for economic growth and job creation.
  • The two-way trade between India and EFTA countries was $18.65 billion in 2022-23, with Switzerland being India’s largest trading partner in the EFTA bloc, followed by Norway.

Significance of the Deal

  • The timing of the agreement is crucial due to the upcoming elections in over 64 countries, including India, which could lead to a pause in free trade agreements (FTAs) as political priorities shift during election periods.
  • There is a significant shift in global investment away from China, presenting an opportunity for countries like India to attract investment. The signing of the agreement allows India to capitalize on this shift.
  • India is separately negotiating a comprehensive free trade agreement with the European Union (EU), indicating its commitment to expanding its trade relations globally.

India’s Push for Investment Commitment

  • India sought investment commitments to balance its trade deficit, offset tariff disparities, and benefit its services sector, particularly in pharma, chemicals, food processing, and engineering.
  • The deal could help India diversify its imports away from China.

Challenges for India

  • Accessing the EFTA market might pose challenges for India, including tariff elimination, agricultural trade barriers, non-tariff barriers, competitive markets, and intellectual property rights (IPR) protection.

About The European Free Trade Association (EFTA)

  • The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organization set up for the promotion of free trade and economic integration to the benefit of its four Member States – Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland – and the benefit of their trading partners around the globe.
  • EFTA was founded by the Stockholm Convention in 1960. Since the beginning of the 1990s, EFTA has actively pursued trade relations with third countries in and beyond Europe.
  • In 2021, EFTA was the tenth-largest trader in the world in merchandise trade and the eighth-largest in trade in services.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following countries:

1. Norway

2. Romania

3. Switzerland

4. Liechtenstein

5. Iceland

Which of the above are members of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5

B. 3, 4, and 5

C. 1, 3, 4 and 5

D. 1, 2, 3 and 5

 

Q. Consider the following countries: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5

B. 3, 4, 5 and 6

C. 1, 3, 4 and 5

D. 2, 3, 4 and 6

Ans: C

 

 

Answer 4: C

Explanation:

·         India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), comprising Norway, Switzerland, Iceland, and Liechtenstein, recently signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

·         The agreement aims to foster investment opportunities between India and the EFTA nations.

·         TEPA also seeks to enhance trade in goods and services, strengthening economic ties between the two entities.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 

Legal Framework for Genomics

Source: The Hindu

 UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Inclusive Growth Biotechnology

Context: : Why India Urgently Needs a Legal Framework for Genomics?

Why in news

  • The rapid advancements in genomics over the past two decades have paved the way for significant progress in healthcare and research, and as the costs of sequencing continue to decrease, the next decade is expected to see widespread use of genome sequencing in clinical settings, with population-scale genome programs laying the groundwork for this paradigm shift.

India’s Progress

  • India’s journey in human genomics began with its first genome sequencing in 2009, reaching 1,000 genomes by 2019, and recently completing 10,000 genomes.
  • These milestones have provided valuable insights into population-specific diseases, prevalence rates, and have underpinned decision-making and research acceleration.

Challenges and Opportunities

  • Given India’s vast, diverse population of over 1.4 billion, there is a critical need for ambitious and practical strategies to ensure genomics benefits reach everyone.
  • This requires large-scale sequencing efforts, a robust legal and policy framework, and active industry participation.
  • Genetic testing services in India operate in silos, creating fragmented genetic data pools.
  • Aggregating test results could enhance public health decisions but lacks a system for collection and analysis, hindering accessibility for health policy-making.

The Role of Policies

  • Effective regulations and clear policies are vital for advancing human genomics ethically and equitably.
  • They foster trust, encourage collaboration, and support innovation, aligning with societal needs to maximize healthcare benefits from genomics.

About Genome Sequencing

  • The human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of each human body.
  • It carries the complete genetic information responsible for the development and functioning of the organism.
  • Genome sequencing has been used to evaluate rare disorders, preconditions for disorders, and even cancer from the viewpoint of genetics.
  • It has also been used as a tool for prenatal screening and in public health to read the codes of viruses.

Conclusion

  • India has the potential to lead in making genomics accessible on a massive scale, offering significant health and quality of life improvements.
  • Achieving this requires proactive efforts in policy-making, regulation, and ensuring ethical and equitable use of genomics technologies.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statement with reference to genome:

1. The human genome refers to the complete set of DNA contained within the nucleus of each human cell.

2. Genome sequencing is employed to analyze rare disorders, genetic predispositions, and cancer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Q. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? (UPSC Prelims 2017)

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.

2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.

3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

 

 

 

Answer 5– C

Explanation

·         The human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of each human body. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         It carries the complete genetic information responsible for the development and functioning of the organism.

·         Genome sequencing has been used to evaluate rare disorders, preconditions for disorders, and even cancer from the viewpoint of genetics. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         It has also been used as a tool for prenatal screening and in public health to read the codes of viruses.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 

IndiaAI Mission: Cabinet Clears Rs 10k Cr Plan to Set Up Computing Capacity

Source: The Hindu

Context: IndiaAI mission was announced by the Indian PM last year with the aim of establishing the computing powers of AI within the country.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS 3 (Science and Technology )

Why in news

  • The Union Cabinet has approved the IndiaAI Mission with an outlay of Rs 10,372 crore for the next five years.

What is India’s AI Mission

  • The IndiaAI Mission, to be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC), aims to establish a computing capacity of more than 10,000 graphics processing units (GPUs) and develop foundational models trained on datasets covering major Indian languages for priority sectors like healthcare, agriculture, and governance.
  • It also includes the development of AI Curation Units (ACUs) in 50-line ministries and an AI marketplace to offer AI as a service and pre-trained models to those working on AI applications.
  • The implementation will be through a public-private partnership model with 50% viability gap funding. Of the total outlay, Rs 4,564 crore has been earmarked for building computing infrastructure.

Key Features of IndiaAI Mission

  • IndiaAI Compute Capacity: Building a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s rapidly expanding AI start-ups and research ecosystem.
  • IndiaAI Innovation Centre: Undertaking the development and deployment of indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors.
  • IndiaAI Datasets Platform: Streamlining access to quality non-personal datasets for AI Innovation.
  • IndiaAI Application Development Initiative: Promoting AI applications in critical sectors for the problem statements sourced from Central Ministries, State Departments, etc.
  • IndiaAI FutureSkills: Conceptualized to mitigate barriers to entry into AI programs and will increase AI courses in undergraduate, Masters level, and Ph.D. programs.
  • IndiaAI Startup Financing: Supporting and accelerating deep-tech AI startups and providing them with streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI projects.
  • Safe & Trusted AI: Enabling the implementation of responsible AI projects including the development of indigenous tools and frameworks.

Significance of India AI Mission

  • The IndiaAI Mission will further the vision of Making AI in India and Making AI Work for India.
  • It seeks to showcase to the international community the positive applications of the revolutionary technology for societal benefit, thereby elevating India’s global competitiveness.
  • Additionally, it aims to generate employment opportunities that require advanced skills, tapping into the country’s demographic advantage.

What is AI

  • Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to the capability of computers or robots to perform tasks typically requiring human intelligence and judgment.
  • It includes Machine Learning (ML) as a subset, and Deep Learning (DL) techniques enable automatic learning from large volumes of unstructured data like text, images, or video.

Other Government Schemes for AI INDIAai

  • Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI)
  • US India Artificial Intelligence Initiative
  • Responsible Artificial Intelligence (AI) for Youth
  • Artificial Intelligence Research, Analytics and Knowledge Assimilation Platform.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to India AI Mission:

1. Building a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s rapidly expanding AI start-ups and research ecosystem is one of the aims of the mission.

2. The IndiaAI Mission will be implemented by the Ministry of Science and Technology.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (UPSC Prelims 2020)

1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units

2. Create meaningful short stories and songs

3. Disease diagnosis

4. Text-to-Speech Conversion

5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C.  2, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: B

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 6 B

Explanation

  • The Union Cabinet has approved the IndiaAI Mission with an outlay of Rs 10,372 crore for the next five years.

Key Features of IndiaAI Mission

  • IndiaAI Compute Capacity: Building a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s rapidly expanding AI start-ups and research ecosystem.
  • IndiaAI Innovation Centre: Undertaking the development and deployment of indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors.
  • IndiaAI Datasets Platform: Streamlining access to quality non-personal datasets for AI Innovation. So, statement 1 is correct.

The IndiaAI Mission will be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC). So, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The mission aims to establish a computing capacity of more than 10,000 GPUs.

Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

Research on Resveratrol-Copper for Preventing Metastasis

Source: The Hindu

 UPSC Syllabus relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology)

Context: : Tata Memorial Centre’s Research on Resveratrol-Copper for Preventing Metastasis and Reducing Chemotherapy Toxicity

Why in news

  • A recent study by researchers at the Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), Mumbai, indicates promising results suggesting the use of resveratrol-copper to prevent metastasis and decrease chemotherapy toxicity, based on findings from cell lines, animal studies, and two phase-2 clinical trials, potentially circumventing the need for further trials.

Toxic Effects of Chemotherapy and Cell-Free Chromatin Fragments

  • The study has highlighted that the toxic effects of chemotherapy are primarily caused by cell-free chromatin fragments that emerge from dying cells.
  • These fragments have the ability to enter healthy cells, integrate into their genomes, trigger DNA damage, cause apoptosis, and induce inflammation.
  • This challenges the traditional belief that chemotherapy toxicity is solely due to the direct damaging effect of drugs on healthy cells.

Resveratrol-Copper Combination and Chemotherapy Toxicity

  • The research team found that using a combination of two nutraceuticals, resveratrol and copper, minimizes the damaging effects of cell-free chromatin fragments.
  • Preclinical studies showed promising results when the resveratrol-copper combination was used, and it was tested on patients undergoing autologous bone marrow transplantation for multiple myeloma and patients with advanced gastric cancer.
  • In both studies, the toxicity of chemotherapy was significantly reduced among patients who received the resveratrol-copper combination.

Potential for Preventing Metastatic Spread

  • Furthermore, evidence from preclinical studies suggests that the resveratrol-copper nutraceuticals may prevent the metastatic spread of cancer.
  • Studies in mice showed that oncogenes contained in the cell-free chromatin fragments were carried by blood and had accumulated in the brain cells in mice, indicating the potential for metastasis prevention. However, it’s important to note that the study did not investigate whether the dissemination of oncogenes to brain cells indeed led to the development of metastases.

Use of Resveratrol-Copper for Preventing Metastasis

  • Despite the absence of clinical trials supporting the use of a resveratrol-copper combination to prevent metastasis, Dr. Mittra expressed that there should be no problem in patients using the nutraceutical for this purpose once it becomes available.
  • He emphasized that being a non-toxic combination, it is unlikely to cause any harm, and highlighted the multiple health benefits suggested by preclinical studies.

Conclusion and Future Prospects

  • The research conducted at TMC has shed light on the potential of the resveratrol-copper combination in reducing chemotherapy toxicity and preventing metastasis.
  • While the effectiveness of this combination is still under investigation, the findings from preclinical studies and phase-2 clinical trials provide a strong foundation for further research and potential future applications in cancer treatment and prevention.
  • In conclusion, the study’s findings have opened up new possibilities for the use of nutraceuticals in cancer treatment and prevention, and the potential benefits of the resveratrol-copper combination warrant further exploration through randomized trials and subsequent regulatory approvals.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. According to the recent study by researchers at the Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), Mumbai, what is not suggested to prevent metastasis and decrease chemotherapy toxicity?

1. Resveratrol-copper

2. Vitamin C

3. Omega-3 fatty acids

4. Zinc supplements

Code

A. 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 4

 

Q. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2022)

1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.

2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.

3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation

Which of the following given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

 

 

 

Answer 7– A

Explanation

·         A recent study by researchers at the Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), Mumbai, indicates promising results suggesting the use of resveratrol-copper to prevent metastasis and decrease chemotherapy toxicity, based on findings from cell lines, animal studies, and two phase-2 clinical trials, potentially circumventing the need for further trials.

·         The study highlights that the toxic effects of chemotherapy are primarily caused by cell-free chromatin fragments that emerge from dying cells.

·         Therefore, option A is correct answer.

 

 

 

India’s Golden Langur Population Estimation

Source: The Hindu

Context: The latest survey of India’s golden langur was carried out in two phases, covering the Manas Biosphere Reserve and fragmented forests in the western part of Assam.

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance GS 3 (Environment and Ecology)

Why in news

  • The latest survey of India’s golden langur, conducted by the Primate Research Centre NE India (PRCNE), Assam Forest Department, Bodoland Territorial Council, Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON), and Conservation Himalayas, has revealed an estimated population of 7,396 golden langurs in India.

Survey Details and Population Estimation

  • The survey was conducted in two phases during March-April 2020 and 2021, covering the western part of the Manas Biosphere Reserve and fragmented forest habitats in the Bongaigaon, Kokrajhar, and Dhubri districts of western Assam.
  • The block count method was used to assess the abundance, spatial distribution, and densities of the golden langur populations.
  • The survey observed 7,720 individuals of golden langurs in 706 unique groups and 31 lone males or floating males. The minimum population size was estimated to be 7,396 individuals in 707 groups, inclusive of bisexual and male bands, along with 31 lone males.

Threat to Fragmented Populations

  • The population of golden langurs is divided into two major sub-populations: the northern extended population and the southern fragmented population.
  • The northern population was estimated at 5,566 in 534 groups and 23 lone males, while the southern fragmented population was estimated at 1,830 langurs in 173 groups and eight lone males.
  • The survey report highlighted an unstable situation in the fragmented habitats of the golden langurs, emphasizing the need for corridor linkage among the fragmented habitats through plantations and canopy bridges to offset potential threats from anthropogenic interactions.

Why Are Golden-Headed Langurs Endangered

  • The golden-headed langur, also known as the Cat Ba langur, is a critically endangered species endemic to Cát Bà Island, Vietnam.
  • The main threats to the golden-headed langur include hunting for meat and traditional medicine, habitat fragmentation and depletion due to deforestation, inbreeding, and disturbance by tourism.
  • The IUCN Red List classified the Cat Ba langur as Critically Endangered in 2009 due to illegal hunting.

Conclusion

  • The comprehensive population estimation of India’s golden langur has revealed a population of 7,396 individuals, emphasizing the need for conservation efforts to protect the species from the various threats it faces.
  • The survey report underlines the importance of addressing the unstable situation in the fragmented habitats of the golden langurs and the need for corridor linkage to ensure their survival.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q8. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s Golden Langur Population Estimation:

1. The survey estimated the population to be 7,396 individuals in 707 groups.

2. The survey utilized the block count method to assess the abundance, spatial distribution, and densities of the golden langur populations.

3. The survey covered the western part of the Manas Biosphere Reserve and fragmented forest habitats in the Bongaigaon, Kokrajhar, and Dhubri districts of western Assam.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

 

Q. Consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2012)

1. Black-necked crane

2. Cheetah

3. Flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: B

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 8 D

Explanation

  • The latest survey of India’s golden langur, conducted by the Primate Research Centre NE India (PRCNE), Assam Forest Department, Bodoland Territorial Council, Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON), and Conservation Himalayas estimated the population to be 7,396 individuals in 707 groups, inclusive of bisexual and male bands, along with 31 lone males. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • The survey utilized the block count method to assess the abundance, spatial distribution, and densities of the golden langur populations. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • The survey covered the western part of the Manas Biosphere Reserve and fragmented forest habitats in the Bongaigaon, Kokrajhar, and Dhubri districts of western Assam. So, statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

 

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