10th April 2024 – Daily Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (10-04-2024)

 

 

News at a Glance

 

Andhra Pradesh: Andhra University listed in the Asia Book of Records 2024 and India Book of Records 2024
TSBB organised a workshop on the implementation of BIOFIN-Finance Solutions
National: Candidates have a right to privacy from voters: SC
Centre-State conflict over control on industrial alcohol
Science and Technology: India among nations with highest burden of viral hepatitis: WHO
Peter Higgs, physicist behind Higgs boson particle, dies at 94
Economy: Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules re-implemented

 

 

Andhra University listed in the Asia Book of Records 2024 and India Book of Records 2024

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/andhra-university-in-visakhapatnam-sets-records-with-event-featuring-nick-vujicic/article68042880.ece

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Awards and Honours

Context: ‘Change from Human Being to Being Human’ held at AU campus sets records.

Why in news

  • Andhra University was listed in the Asia and India Book of Records 2024 for its recent activity of ‘Change from Human Being to Being Human’.

Key Highlights

  • Andhra University was listed in the Asia Book of Records 2024 and India Book of Records 2024 for its recent activity of ‘Change from Human Being to Being Human’ held at AU campus on February 6
  • Motivational speaker Nick Vujicic addressed the conference.
  • Around 60,000 people gathered at the event to swear on its theme.

 

Nick Vujicic

  • Nicholas James Vujicic is an Australian-American motivational speaker of Serbian descent.
  • Vujicic has tetra-amelia syndrome, a disorder characterised by the absence of arms and legs.
  • As a child, he struggled mentally and emotionally, as well as physically, but eventually came to terms with his disability and, at the age of seventeen, started his own non-profit organization, Life Without Limbs.
  • Vujicic presents motivational speeches worldwide, on life with a disability, hope, and finding meaning in life.

 

Andhra University

  • Andhra University is a public university located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, India.
  • It was established in 1926. It is graded as an A++ institution by NAAC receiving a score of 3.74 on a scale of 4.
  • King Vikram Deo Verma, the Maharaja of Jeypore was one of the biggest donors of the university.
  • The university emblem was designed by Sri Kowta Rammohan Sastri with the guidance of Cattamanchi Ramalinga Reddy.

 

India Book of Records

  • The “Indian Book of Records” is a record-keeping organization that recognizes and documents achievements and records in India.
  • Some potential advantages of this organization include: It provides a platform for individuals and organizations to showcase their achievements and accomplishments.

 

Asia Book of Records

  • Asia Book of Records, the keeper of records for Asian countries, works under the World Records Union.
  • It has its headquarters in India and Vietnam.
  • It has close association with various record books, including Vietnam Book of Records, Nepal Book of Records, Cambodia Book of Records, India Book of Records, Indo-China Book of Records, Bangladesh Book of Records, US Book of Records, Ukraine Book of Records, and Indonesia Book of Records.
  • Each year they publish the annual edition of Asia Book of Records, in collaboration with the WorldKing.

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Andhra University:

1.       Andhra University was recently listed in the Asia and India Book of Records 2024 for its recent activity of ‘Change from Human Being to Being Human’.

2.       Andhra University was established in 1926.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Answer 1– C

Explanation

·         Andhra University was listed in the Asia Book of Records 2024 and India Book of Records 2024 for its recent activity of ‘Change from Human Being to Being Human’ held at AU campus on February 6 Motivational speaker Nick Vujicic addressed the conference.

·         Around 60,000 people gathered at the event to swear on its theme. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Andhra University is a public university located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. It was established in 1926.

·         It is graded as an A++ institution by NAAC receiving a score of 3.74 on a scale of 4.

·         So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option C. 

 

 

Marine fishing ban from April 15 to June 14 in AP

Source: The New Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Apr/09/marine-fishing-ban-from-april-15-to-june-14-in-ap

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Agriculture production in Telangana

Context: The objective of marine fishing ban is to ensure the conservation of marine species during their breeding season, particularly the majority of prawn and fish species.

Why in news

  • The Animal Husbandry, Dairy Development, and Fisheries Department of Andhra Pradesh have issued ban orders on marine fishing.

Key Highlights

  • The Animal Husbandry, Dairy Development, and Fisheries Department of Andhra Pradesh have issued ban orders on marine fishing.
  • Effective from April 15 to June 14 , spanning 61 days, this ban applies to all registered Mechanised & Motorised fishing vessels fitted with OBM & IBM along the entire coast of Andhra Pradesh.
  • The objective of this ban is to ensure the conservation of marine species during their breeding season, particularly the majority of prawn and fish species.
  • Government warned that any violation of these orders will result in penalties under the law, including the seizure of boats and catches, hefty fines, and the discontinuation of government subsidies and benefits provided to fishermen.

Implementation

  • A total of 2,059 boats (749 mechanised and 1310 motorised boats) will be anchored along the 24-km-long Visakhapatnam coast between Bhimili and Yarada beaches during the 61-day annual fishing ban period starting from April 15 to June 14.

Conserving marine resources

  • Andhra Pradesh is one of the maritime states of India. Andhra Pradesh has a total of 12 districts that are situated along its coastline.
  • The State has all required supporting infrastructure like State-of-the-art facilities for shipment at 3 ports at Visakhapatnam, Krishnapatnam & Kakinada.
  • The AP State stood first in the country in the fisheries sector both in terms of total fish and prawn production and total value of fish products.
  • The contribution of fisheries sector to State GSDP is 7.40 %
  • The sector is providing employment opportunities to nearly 14.5 lakh people directly and indirectly in the state.

 

 

Welfare Programmes:

  • State in coordination with funding agencies of Govt. of India and External Aided Projects, NABARD etc., has been implementing various welfare schemes for the benefit of fishers, farmers and other stakeholders.
  • Welfare schemes include “Rebate on Diesel” for marine fishing boats, relief to coastal fishers during ban on marine fishing, revolving fund assistance to fisherwomen cooperatives, ex-gratia to deceased fishermen families, power tariff to aquaculture farmers, fishing and aquaculture inputs under PMMSY and other GOI schemes, issuance of Kisan Credit Card (KCC), assistance to fishers and entrepreneurs for establishment of marketing outlets etc. stocking of quality fish seed in public water bodies, etc.

YSR Matsyakara Nestham Scheme

  • It was launched in 2019 by Andhra Pradesh government.
  • A financial assistance of Rs. 10,000 to fishermen operating mechanised, motorised, non-motorised fishing nets, hunting rafts during the “no fishing” duration every year between April and June.
  • A diesel subsidy of Rs. 9 per litre for fishing boats. The same would be provided in identified fuel filling stations.
  • An enhanced ex-gratia of Rs. 10 lakh to died fishermen (while on the occuaption) families who use mechanized, motorized boats and hunting rafts.
  • All the fishermen in 18 to 60 years of age group can avail this benefit.
  • Implementation agency at the state/district level is Department of Fisheries, Govt. of Andra Pradesh

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to Andhra Pradesh:

1.       The AP State stood first in the country in the fisheries sector both in terms of total fish and prawn production and total value of fish products.

2.       YSR Matsyakara Nestham Scheme was launched in 2023 by Andhra Pradesh government.

3.       61-day annual fishing ban period in 2024 starts from April 15 to June 14

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      1, 2 and 3

 

 

Answer 2– C

Explanation

•         The AP State stood first in the country in the fisheries sector both in terms of total fish and prawn production and total value of fish products. Andhra Pradesh Fisheries contribute 10% of total fish and shrimp production of India. Accordingly, the government is focussed on developing this huge industry on a large scale. So, statement 1 is correct.

•         YSR Matsyakara Nestham Scheme was launched in 2019 by Andhra Pradesh government. A financial assistance of Rs. 10,000 to fishermen operating mechanised, motorised, non-motorised fishing nets, hunting rafts during the “no fishing” duration every year between April and June. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

•         The Animal Husbandry, Dairy Development, and Fisheries Department of Andhra Pradesh have issued ban orders on marine fishing. Effective from April 15 to June 14 , spanning 61 days, this ban applies to all registered Mechanised & Motorised fishing vessels fitted with OBM & IBM along the entire coast of Andhra Pradesh. So, statement 3 is correct.  Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

 Candidates have a right to privacy from voters: SC judgment

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/candidate-has-a-right-to-privacy-need-not-disclose-every-belonging-unless-substantial-sc/article68046109.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Judiciary, Elections)

Context: The Supreme Court has advocated right to privacy for election candidate

Why in news

  • The Supreme Court on April 9 held that an election candidate has a right to privacy from voters and need not lay out every scrap of his or her personal life and possessions, past and present, for the electorate to examine with a magnifying glass.

Key Highlights

  • A Bench of Justices Aniruddha Bose and Sanjay Kumar said a candidate’s choice to retain his privacy on matters which were of no concern to the voters or were irrelevant to his candidature for public office did not amount to a ‘corrupt practice’ under Section 123 of the Representation of People Act, 1951.
  • Such non-disclosure would not amount to a “defect of a substantial nature” under Section 36(4) of the 1951 Act.
  • Justice Kumar, who wrote the judgment, observed there was no compulsion on a candidate to lay his life threadbare for the electorate to prod and scrutinise.
  • But the Court said every case would turn on its own peculiarities on what would amount to a non-disclosure of assets of a substantial nature. Suppressing information about a collection of expensive watches from voters would be a substantial defect.
  • The direction came as the apex court upheld the election of Independent MLA Karikho Kri from Tezu in the 2019 Arunachal Pradesh Assembly election.

 

Corrupt practices under the Representation of the People Act, 1951

  • Section 123 of the RPA, 1951 definescorrupt practices’ to include bribery, undue influence, false information, and promotion or attempted promotion of feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language” by a candidate.
  • Section 123 (2) deals with undue influence which it defines as any direct or indirect interference on the part of the candidate with the free exercise of any electoral right.
  • This could also include threats of injury, social ostracism and expulsion from any caste or community.
  • Section 123 (4) extends the ambit of “corrupt practices” to the intentional publication of false statements which can prejudice the outcome of the candidate’s election.

 

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following pairs:

 

  Sections of Representation of the People Act, 1951  Corrupt practices description
1 Section 123 defines corrupt practices
2 Section 123 (2) extends corrupt practices to intentional publication of false statements
3 Section 123 (4) interference by candidate with the free exercise of any electoral right

 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2020)

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.

2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Ans- D

 

Answer 3 C

Explanation

·         Section 123 of the RPA, 1951 definescorrupt practices’ to include bribery, undue influence, false information, and promotion or attempted promotion of feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language” by a candidate. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

·         Section 123 (2) deals with ‘undue influence’ which it defines as “any direct or indirect interference or attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate or his agent, or of any other person, with the consent of the candidate or his election agent, with the free exercise of any electoral right.” This could also include threats of injury, social ostracism and expulsion from any caste or community. So, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

  • Section 123 (4) extends the ambit of “corrupt practices” to the intentional publication of false statements which can prejudice the outcome of the candidate’s election. So, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

Centre-State conflict over control on industrial alcohol

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-questions-centres-rigid-position-on-control-over-industrial-alcohol/article68047651.ece#:~:text=A%20nine%2Djudge%20Constitution%20Bench,a%20grave%20threat%20to%20public

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Federal polity, Centre-State relations, Role of Judiciary)

 Context: Supreme Court is evaluating States’ view to regulate inflow of industrial alcohol as presently, Centre is in complete control of every aspect of such industries.

Why in news

  • A nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court on April 9 questioned the Centre’s rigid position to have exclusive control over industrial alcohol.

Members of Supreme Court Constitutional Bench

  • A nine-judge Constitution bench, is examining the issue of overlapping jurisdiction between the Centre and states in the production, manufacturing, supply, and regulation of industrial alcohol.
  • Bench is headed by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, comprising justices Hrishikesh Roy, Abhay S Oka, B V Nagarathna, J B Pardiwala, Manoj Misra, Ujjal Bhuyan, Satish Chandra Sharma and Augustine George Masih.
  • The nine-judge bench is hearing a batch of 30 appeals referred to it by a five-judge bench in December 2010 doubting the correctness of a 1990 judgment that took away state’s power in relation to industrial alcohol under Entry 33 of the Concurrent List.

Centre’s stand

  • Solicitor general Tushar Mehta, representing the Centre said that regulation of industrial alcohol lies with the Centre under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951.
  • Hence, only the Union has legislative power to levy excise duty on alcohol not fit for human consumption.
  • He added that every industry covered by Schedule I of the 1951 Act would be impacted by the court’s interpretation, not simply industrial alcohol, which was the petitioners’ sole point of contention.
  • Such an industry was covered by Entry 52 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
  • As per SG, though trade and commerce, supply, distribution, and production of the products of such industries were included as Entry 33(a) of the Concurrent List, this had to be read in consonance with and as an extension of the Centre’s power under Entry 52.
  • States’ power extended to only “intoxicating liquors” fit for human consumption. This was covered under Entry 8 of the State List along with Entry 6 (public health).
  • Union government retained control over an industry if its products had an effect over the entire country.

Revenue control

  • Centre has retained control over industrial alcohol in public interest.
  • Under Entry 52, centre has power over taxing, manufacture, and production of industrial alcohol to ensure equitable distribution of resources.

States’ views

  • States like Kerala, Maharashtra, Punjab and even a petition from Uttar Pradesh raised alarm about industrial alcohol being used to make intoxicating liquor.
  • In such cases, they argued that States cannot remain mute spectators and wait for tragedy to strike.

1989 case

  • In 1989, a 7-judge Constitution Bench in Synthetics & Chemicals Ltd v. State of Uttar Pradesh held that states’ powers, as per Entry 8 of the State List, were limited to regulating “intoxicating liquors” which are different from industrial alcohol.

Supreme Court’s observation

  • “There is a strong possibility of denatured spirit or industrial alcohol being misused for the purpose of human consumption.
  • The State is the guardian of public health. States are concerned about liquor tragedies happening within their jurisdictions.
  • “Why can’t the State make regulations to prevent the misuse of industrial alcohol and its conversion into intoxicating liquor?” Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor-General Tushar Mehta, appearing for the Centre.
  • Chief Justice Chandrachud referred to States like Gujarat and Bihar, where intoxicating liquor was prohibited, and where there was a high possibility of industrial alcohol being abused.
  • The CJI recounted hooch tragedies of the past.

158th Law Commission of India

  • 158th Law Commission of India in 1998 had recommended amendments in the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 “in the interest of maintaining balance between the Union and the States also with a view to eliminate the room for abuse of law and misuse of alcohol.”

Conclusion

  • Centre, on its part, has maintained that any liquid containing alcohol not fit for human consumption but meant for industrial use will fall within the regulation regime of the Centre. Giving States power to regulate industrial alcohol to prevent abuse would mean amending the Entry 52 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.       Regulation of industrial alcohol lies with the Centre under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951.

2.       Entry 52 of the Union List gives the Union power to “control” industries.

3.       Entry 8 of the State List gives state governments power to regulate “the production, manufacture, possession, transport, purchase and sale of intoxicating liquors.”

4.       158th Law Commission of India had recommended that the Industries Act be amended “in the interest of maintaining balance between the Union and the States.

Code:

A.      1, 2 and 3 only

B.      2 and 4 only

C.      2,3 and 4 only

D.      All of the above

 

Q. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?(UPSC Prelims 2017)

A.      There is an independent judiciary in India.

B.      Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

C.      The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

D.      It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

 

Answer: D

 

Answer 4– D

Explanation –

·         Subjects in the Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both states and the Centre, but where a central law exists, the state law cannot be repugnant to it. Industrial alcohol is listed in the industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDRA).

·         Solicitor general Tushar Mehta, recently representing the Centre said that regulation of industrial alcohol lies with the Centre under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA), 1951. So, statement 1 is correct.

·         Entry 52 of the Union List, and Entry 33 of the Concurrent List mention industries, whose control is “declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in public interest”. So, statement 2 is correct.

·         Entry 8 in the State List under the Seventh Schedule gives states the power to legislate on the production, manufacture, possession, transport, purchase and sale of “intoxicating liquors”.  So, statement 3 is correct.

·         158th Law Commission of India in 1998 had recommended amendments in the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 “in the interest of maintaining balance between the Union and the States also with a view to eliminate the room for abuse of law and misuse of alcohol.” So, statement 4 is correct.

·         Therefore, option D is correct answer.

 

 

India among nations with highest burden of viral hepatitis: WHO

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/india-nations-highest-viral-hepatitis-who-prevent-9260706/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS-2 (Government Policies) GS – 3 (Public Health)

Context : 2.9 crore people in India are living with Hepatitis B infection and 0.55 crore living with Hepatitis C infection.

Why in news

  • India is one of the countries with the highest burden of viral hepatitis — an infection that causes liver inflammation, damage and may lead to liver cancer according to the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO).

Key Highlights of report

  • There were over 50,000 new Hepatitis B cases and 1.4 lakh new Hepatitis C cases reported in 2022.
  • Hepatitis B and C infections killed 1.23 lakh people in India in 2022 as per the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
  • Both infections are transmitted from mother to child during delivery, during transfusion of blood that hasn’t been screened properly, during contact with the blood of an infected person or while sharing of needles by drug users.
  • Since hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination, the report highlights the need to ensure coverage.
  • Hepatitis C is curable with medicines.

About Hepatitis B and C

  • Hepatitis B is known to cause acute infection with nausea, vomiting and yellowing of the eye and skin for several weeks.
  • Liver failure happens in severe cases. But the challenge is the chronic, life-long liver disease that it causes, especially when children get it.
  • The chronic infection can lead to scarring of the liver called cirrhosis and increase the risk of liver cancer. There are medicines to slow the progress of the virus in chronic cases.
  • Many people with the hepatitis C virus don’t have symptoms or know they are infected. Those who do develop symptoms two to 12 weeks after exposure report yellow skin or eyes, loss of appetite, nausea, stomach ache, fever, dark urine, light-coloured stool, joint pain and exhaustion.
  • Globally, with nearly 1.3 million deaths a year, viral hepatitis kills as many people as tuberculosis.
  • Both remained the second biggest infectious killer in 2022, behind only the deaths caused by the Covid-19 pandemic. There are around 304 million people living with Hepatitis B and C across the world as per the report.

Diagnostics and Treatment

  • In India, coverage of diagnosis and treatment for the viral hepatitis infections remains very low.
  • The report says that only 2.4 per cent of the Hepatitis B cases were diagnosed and 0 per cent received treatment.
  • For Hepatitis C, the coverage of diagnostics and treatment was found to be better in India, with 28 per cent being diagnosed and 21 per cent receiving treatment.
  • The coverage remains poor despite the fact that several Indian companies manufacture generic versions of the drugs as well as diagnostics.
  • In fact, the cost of treatment with different combinations of drugs in India remains one of the lowest, as per the report.
  • Although there’s a national viral hepatitis control programme — and ILBS was one of the driving forces behind it — its reach is limited.
  • People have not been utilising the free diagnostics and treatment offered under the programme.

Hepatitis B vaccine

  • Hepatitis B infections in the country, are mainly being driven by transmission from mother to child.
  • Hepatitis B vaccine is offered to children under the Universal Immunisation Programme in India.
  • The government’s viral hepatitis control programme also offers the vaccine to high-risk adults such as healthcare workers as well.
  • Treatment for both Hepatitis B and C is available under the programme.

Hepatitis C treatment

  • There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis C. The best way to prevent the disease is to avoid contact with the virus.
  • Unlike Hepatitis B, where the drugs have to be taken for life, the treatment for Hepatitis C lasts for 12 to 24 weeks
  • There are effective treatments for hepatitis C. The goal of treatment is to cure the disease and prevent long-term liver damage.
  • Antiviral medications, including sofosbuvir and daclatasvir, are used to treat hepatitis C.
  • Some people’s immune system can fight the infection on their own and new infections do not always need treatment. Treatment is always needed for chronic hepatitis C.
  • People with hepatitis C may also benefit from lifestyle changes, such as avoiding alcohol and maintaining a healthy weight. With proper treatment, many people can be cured from hepatitis C infection and live healthy lives.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination

Reason (R): There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis C.

A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

Q. Which of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)

A.      Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

B.      Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

C.      Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

D.      Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Ans: B

 

 

Answer 5 A

Explanation

·         Hepatitis B infections in the country, are mainly being driven by transmission from mother to child.

·         Hepatitis B vaccine is offered to children under the Universal Immunisation Programme in India. So, assertion is correct.

·         There is no effective vaccine against hepatitis C. The best way to prevent the disease is to avoid contact with the virus. Hepatitis C is curable with medicines. The treatment for Hepatitis C lasts for 12 to 24 weeks. Antiviral medications, including sofosbuvir and daclatasvir, are used to treat hepatitis C. So, reason is correct. But reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

Peter Higgs, physicist behind Higgs boson particle, dies at 94

Source: India Today

https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/peter-higgs-man-behind-discovery-of-higgs-boson-particle-dies-2525332-2024-04-09

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Quantum Physics, Higgs Boson particle)

Context: Peter Higgs won the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics for his work, alongside Francois Englert of Belgium, for proposing the existence of God particle.

Why in news

  • Nobel prize-winning physicist Peter Higgs, who proposed the existence of the so-called “god particle” that helped explain how matter formed after the Big Bang, has died at age 94.

Higgs boson

  • Higgs predicted the existence of a new particle — the so-called Higgs boson — in 1964
  • He theorized there must be a subatomic particle of certain dimension that would explain how other particles — and therefore all the stars and planets in the universe — acquired mass.
  • Without something like this particle, the set of equations physicists use to describe the world, known as the standard model, would not hold together.
  • Higgs’ work helps scientists understand one of the most fundamental riddles of the universe: how the Big Bang created something out of nothing 13.8 billion years ago.
  • Without mass from the Higgs, particles could not clump together into the matter we interact with every day.

Standard Model of Physics

  • The Standard Model of particle physics is the theory describing three of the four known fundamental forces (electromagnetic, weak and strong interactions – excluding gravity) in the universe and classifying all known elementary particles.
  • In the Standard Model, the Higgs particle is a massive scalar boson with zero spin, even (positive) parity, no electric charge, and no colour charge that couples to (interacts with) mass. It is also very unstable, decaying into other particles almost immediately upon generation.

Nomenclature

  • The boson had been nicknamed the ‘God particle’ by the media, after a book by Nobel laureate Leon Lederman.
  • Scientists object to the term because they say religion has no role to play in evidence-based physics.

Large Hardron Collider

  • The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest particle collider: a marvel of modern particle physics that has enabled researchers to plumb the depths of reality.
  • In 2012, in one of the biggest breakthroughs in physics in decades, scientists at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, announced that they had finally found a Higgs boson using the $10 billion particle collider built in a 17-mile (27-kilometer) tunnel under the Swiss-French border.
  • The collider was designed in large part to find Higgs’ particle. It produces collisions with extraordinarily high energies in order to mimic some of the conditions that were present in the trillionths of seconds after the Big Bang.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements with regards to Higgs boson particle:

1. Higgs boson particle was found by scientists using Large Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN in 2012.

2. Without something like this particle, standard model, would not hold together.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this observation? (UPSC Prelims 2019)

A.      ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

B.      ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

C.      Possibility of intergalactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.

D.      It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Answer: B

 

 

Answer 6 C

Explanation

·         The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest particle collider: a marvel of modern particle physics that has enabled researchers to plumb the depths of reality.

·         In 2012, in one of the biggest breakthroughs in physics in decades, scientists at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, announced that they had finally found a Higgs boson using the $10 billion particle collider built in a 17-mile (27-kilometer) tunnel under the Swiss-French border. So, statement 1 is correct.

·          The Standard Model of particle physics is the theory describing three of the four known fundamental forces (electromagnetic, weak and strong interactions – excluding gravity) in the universe and classifying all known elementary particles.

·         In the Standard Model, the Higgs particle is a massive scalar boson with zero spin, even (positive) parity, no electric charge, and no colour charge that couples to (interacts with) mass. It is also very unstable, decaying into other particles almost immediately upon generation. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules re-implemented

Source: The Hindu

 https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/the-import-restrictions-on-solar-pv-cells-explained/article68047931.ece

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Indian Economy, Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme, Solar Energy)

Context: Recent government orders on attempts to increase local sourcing of solar modules to support India’s renewables manufacturing ecosystem has been widely reported in the media as ‘import restrictions’.

 

Why in news

  • Ministry of New and Renewable Energy’s (MNRE), ordered to re-implement its 2021 notification of an ‘Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic [PV] Modules’, also called the ALMM list.

About ALMM list

  • ALMM list consists of manufacturers who “are eligible for use in Government Projects/Government assisted projects/ projects under Government schemes & programmes…. including projects set up for sale of electricity to the Central and State Governments.”
  • However, this notification was “kept in abeyance” two years after it was issued, for the past financial year.

Recent re-implementation

  • The government’s re-introduction of this rule has been premised on the estimation that following measures, such as the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, India’s domestic sector has boosted its production capacities and bettered price competitiveness to meet local demand.
  • This is an import substitution effort, and not an attempt to restrict imports.
  • While the government did not give an explicit reason for re-implementation of ALMM lit, it has been reported that it stems from concerns and demands of renewable power producers who had secured sale contracts with the government before these rules were issued, when solar modules and cells were overwhelmingly imported from China at highly competitive rates.
  • India’s domestic renewables sector, at the time, was unlikely to meet the spike in demand for solar power production equipment at rates offered by Chinese manufacturers.

 

Chinese dominance

  • Chinese government policies have prioritised solar PV as a strategic sector
  • As per reports, China was the most cost-competitive location to manufacture all components of the solar PV supply chains.
  • The reason being the lower cost of power supplied to the industry, as electricity accounts for more than 40% of production costs for polysilicon and almost 20% for ingots and wafers.

India’s dependence on Chinese and Vietnamese imports

  • India is overwhelmingly import dependent to meet its demand for solar cells and modules — with China and Vietnam being the country’s major suppliers.
  • India imported about $11.17 billion worth solar cells and modules in the past five years. This is worth 0.4% of India’s total exports in the same period.
  • And until January of 2023-24, China accounted for 53% of India’s solar cell imports, and 63% of solar PV modules.
  • China commands more than 80% share of the manufacturing capacity across polysilicon, wafer, cell and modules.
  • In comparison, the manufacturing capacity in India is relatively low and is largely restricted to the last manufacturing stage.

 

Government initiatives

  • In January 2019, Union government notified ALMM orders.
  • Union Finance Minister proposed the ₹19,500 crore PLI scheme in the Union Budget of 2022-23. This was to scale domestic manufacturing of the entire solar supply chain — from polysilicon to solar modules.
  • The government introduced a 40% customs duty on PV modules and 25% on PV cells. These duties were halved as solar capacity additions slowed.

 

Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme

  • Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India is implementing the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme under National Programme on High Efficiency Solar PV Modules, for achieving domestic manufacturing capacity of Giga Watt (GW) scale in High Efficiency Solar PV modules and solar PV cells, with an outlay of Rs. 24,000 crore.
  • Solar PV manufacturers are selected through a transparent selection process.
  • This Scheme has provision for Production Linked Incentive (PLI) to the selected solar PV module manufacturers for five years post commissioning, on manufacture and sale of High Efficiency Solar PV modules.

Way ahead

  • Solar power accounted for about one-third of all energy generated from renewables between April 2023 and February 2024.
  • The government’s ambitious target of 500 GW of installed capacity from non-fossil fuels by 2030 is the main driver to scale solar power in India.
  • India has an estimated solar power potential of 748.99 GW. Hence, the potential of solar energy is not fully tapped, so far. India accounts for the fastest rate of growth for demand of electricity through 2026 among major economies.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements:

1.       Union Ministry of Commerce, is implementing the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme under National Programme on High Efficiency Solar PV Modules.

2.       India is import dependent on US, China and Vietnam to meet its demand for solar cells and modules.

3.       China was the most cost-competitive location to manufacture all components of the solar PV supply chains, due to lower cost of power supplied to the industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      3 only

 

Q. Consider the following statement:(UPSC Prelims 2023)

Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.

Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A.      Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B.      Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C.      Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

D.      Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: (D)

 

 

Answer 7– D

Explanation

  • Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India is implementing the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme under National Programme on High Efficiency Solar PV Modules, for achieving domestic manufacturing capacity of Giga Watt (GW) scale in High Efficiency Solar PV modules and solar PV cells, with an outlay of Rs. 24,000 crore.  So, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • India is overwhelmingly import dependent to meet its demand for solar cells and modules — with China and Vietnam being the country’s major suppliers.
  • As per the data, India exported solar modules valued at USD 1031.36 million in 2022-23. Out of this, the total export value for the US alone remained at USD 1000 million, which was close to 97% of the total exports of solar modules from India. So, India exports Solar equipment to US. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Chinese government policies have prioritised solar PV as a strategic sector. China was the most cost-competitive location to manufacture all components of the solar PV supply chains.
  • The reason being the lower cost of power supplied to the industry, as electricity accounts for more than 40% of production costs for polysilicon and almost 20% for ingots and wafers. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option D.

 

 

 

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