Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (07-05-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Science and Technology: Scientists have succeeded in developing GOLDENE |
| Eta Aquariid meteor shower |
| Environment: Lakshadweep coral reefs undergoing severe bleaching |
| Polity and Governance: People with disabilities to get quotas in all trains irrespective of fare concessions |
| Use of ‘pregnant person’ as genders other than women by the Supreme Court |
Scientists have succeeded in developing GOLDENE
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology)
Context: Gold has become the first metal to be formulated into (freestanding) 2D sheets
Why in News
- Researchers have created a free-standing sheet of gold that is only one atom thick known as GOLDENE.
What is Goldene?
- Goldene is the one-atom thick material that has been developed by Sweden’s Linköping University .
- It is not that such 2D materials have not been created before.
- Since the 2004 development of graphene, the atom-thin material made of carbon, scientists have identified hundreds of 2D materials.
- Goldene is the first free-standing 2D metal, to the best of our knowledge.
- These sheets of goldene are roughly 100 nanometres thick (a nanometre is a billionth of a metre), approximately 400 times thinner than the thinnest commercially available gold leaf.
Development of Goldene
- To create goldene, researchers first sandwiched an atomic monolayer of silicon between layers of titanium carbide.
- When they deposited gold on top of this sandwich structure, the gold atoms diffused into the material and replaced the silicon atoms, forming a trapped monolayer of gold atoms.
- Subsequently, scientists etched away the titanium carbide layers to create a free-standing, one atom thick layer of gold.
- This was done with the help of an age-old Japanese technique used to forge katanas and high-quality knives, using a chemical popularly known as Murakami’s reagent.
Many Potential applications
- Scientists believe that the super thin, super light material can potentially revolutionise the electronics industry.
- Goldene holds promise as a great catalyst because it’s much more economically viable than thicker, three-dimensional gold.
- This means that electronics, which use gold due to its electrical conductivity, can potentially use lesser amounts for the same purpose.
- Moreover, the technique used by the scientists to create goldene can also be applicable to other metallic objects.
- Scientists say that future applications could include carbon dioxide conversion, hydrogen-generating catalysis, selective production of value-added chemicals, hydrogen production, water purification, etc.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q1. Which of the following are the applications of Goldene?
1. Electronics 2. Carbon dioxide conversion 3. Hydrogen production 4. Water purification Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (A) |
| Answer 1- D
Explanation: · Goldene is the one-atom thick material that has been developed by Sweden’s Linköping University. · Goldene holds promise as a great catalyst because it’s much more economically viable than thicker, three-dimensional gold. · This means that electronics, which use gold due to its electrical conductivity, can potentially use lesser amounts for the same purpose. · Moreover, the technique used by the scientists to create goldene can also be applicable to other metallic objects. · Scientists say that future applications could include carbon dioxide conversion, hydrogen-generating catalysis, selective production of value-added chemicals, hydrogen production, water purification, etc. · Therefore, option D is the correct answer. |
Lakshadweep coral reefs undergoing severe bleaching
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Environment and Ecology
Context: Coral bleaching of Lakshadweep islands
Why in News
- The ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has found that coral reefs in the Lakshadweep Sea have undergone severe bleaching due to prolonged marine heatwaves since October 2023.
Key Highlights
- According to senior scientists at the CMFRI heading the research, coral bleaching threatens Lakshwadeep’s diverse marine ecosystems.
- Bleaching leaves corals exposed to disease and starvation, and has major consequences for their long-term health.
What are coral reefs?
- Corals are sessile animals, i.e. they permanently attach themselves to the ocean floor. They are classified as either ‘hard’ or ‘soft’.
- Hard corals have stony skeletons made out of limestone that are produced by coral polyps. When polyps die, their skeletons are left behind and used as foundations for new polyps.
- These stonly coral skeletons, over thousands and millions of years, form complex coral reefs, which have often been referred to as “rainforests of the sea” — home to thousands of marine species, and vibrant ecosystems.
- Almost all of Lakshadweep’s islands are coral atolls, with their soil largely derived from corals, and extant coral reefs around them.
What is coral bleaching?
- Coral bleaching takes place when the water is too warm. In such conditions, corals expel the microscopic algae which live in their tissues, and, in simple terms, produce food for them.
- Without these algae, corals’ tissues become transparent, exposing their white skeleton. This is called coral bleaching.
- Bleached corals are not dead, but run the risk of starvation and disease. According to experts, without their algae, corals can survive for about two weeks.
- While Lakshadweep has been gripped by marine heat waves since October 2023, coral bleaching was spotted only last week.
- If the water does not cool down, the bleaching can eventually lead to the death of Lakshwadeep’s corals.
- Lakshadweep Sea has previously seen coral bleaching events in 1998, 2010 and 2015, but the scale of the current one is unprecedented.
Measuring Temperature of Coral Reefs
- Corals experience thermal stress when sea surface temperatures exceed 1 degree celsius above the maximum mean temperature.
- This stress worsens if the high temperatures persist over a period of time.
- Scientists use the Degree Heating Week (DHW) indicator to measure accumulated heat stress in an area over the past 12 weeks, by adding up any temperature that exceeds the bleaching threshold during that time period. This is calculated in celsius-weeks.
- DHW values above 4 degree celsius-weeks cause significant coral bleaching.
How hot is the Lakshadweep Sea right now?
- The Lakshadweep region has been experiencing marine heat waves since October 2023, resulting in coral bleaching observed recently. Continued high temperatures could lead to the decline of corals in Lakshadweep.
- The current temperature of the Lakshadweep Sea is of concern. Corals experience thermal stress when sea surface temperatures exceed 1 degree Celsius above the maximum mean temperature.
- This stress intensifies with prolonged exposure to elevated temperatures.
- Scientists gauge accumulated heat stress using the Degree Heating Week (DHW) indicator over the past 12 weeks, measured in celsius-weeks.
- A DHW value exceeding 4 degree celsius-weeks signifies coral bleaching, a threshold already surpassed in Lakshadweep.
Problem of coral bleaching
- A 2022 study by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, had reported that marine heatwaves are increasing in the Indian Ocean.
- The study reported a significant increase in marine heatwaves, due to the rapid warming in the Indian Ocean and strong El Niños.
- Earlier, these heat waves used to be rare in the tropical Indian Ocean, but have now become an annual affair.
- The western Indian Ocean region experienced the largest increase in marine heatwaves at a rate of about 1.5 events per decade, followed by the north Bay of Bengal at a rate of 0.5 events per decade.
- An underwater survey showed that 85% of the corals in the Gulf of Mannar near the Tamil Nadu coast got bleached after the marine heatwave in May 2020.
Impact of Coral Bleaching
- Heat waves pose a significant threat to the livelihoods of coastal communities, as well as to the tourism and fisheries sectors.
- Moreover, they endanger vital marine habitats, including seagrass meadows.
- Like corals, seagrass meadows and kelp forests are experiencing adverse effects such as impaired photosynthesis, reduced growth, and hindered reproductive functions due to the heatwaves.
- Lakshadweep, being formed by coral reefs, highlights the importance of reef health for the structural integrity of the islands.
- Coral reef loss could lead to the accumulation of organic matter, impeding the formation of corals in the future.
- The heat waves threaten livelihoods of coastal communities, tourism and fisheries sectors, and critical marine habitats, including seagrass meadows.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q2. Which of the following differences between hard and soft corals is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 |
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (D) |
| Answer 2– C
Explanation:
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People with disabilities to get quotas in all trains irrespective of fare concessions
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Polity and Governance
Context: Approval of quotas for people with disabilities (PwDs) in all trains irrespective of fair concessions
Why in News
- The Ministry of Railways has approved quotas for people with disabilities (PwDs) in all trains, irrespective of whether any concessional fare facility is available or not.
Key Highlights
- According to railway sources, the PwD quota will be earmarked in all reserved Express/Mail trains, including Rajdhani, Shatabdi, Duronto, Humsafar, Gatimaan, and Vande Bharat express trains.
- To avoid misuse of the provision, the facility of booking tickets under the PWD quota online will only be available to people who have been issued with Unique Identity Cards by Indian Railways.
- To book tickets at reservation counters, the facility will be extended on the production of a Unique Identity Card or the copy of the concessional certificate in the prescribed format.
- The Centre for Railway Information Systems, the IT arm of the railways, was told to modify its computerised reservation software to ensure the verification of Unique Idenitity Cards even in those trains where concessional fare facility is not available.
- In case both of the specially designed seats earmarked for PWDs in Vande Bharat express trains are booked, but one or both of the seats reserved for their accompanying escorts remain vacant, such vacant seats or seats will also be allotted to a passenger with a disability.
- They added that no decision has been taken yet on restoring the rail travel concession to senior citizens and other categories of passengers who were given concessional fares before the pandemic.
Constitutional Framework for Disabled in India
- Article 21 of our Indian Constitution states that “Protection of Life and Personal Liberty: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.”
- Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) states that the State shall make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, within the limits of its economic capacity and development.
- The subject of ‘relief of the disabled and unemployable’ is specified in the state list of the Seventh Schedule of the constitution.
Welfare Schemes for Persons with Disabilities
- Deen Dayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS)
- It is a Central Sector Scheme of the Government of India that provides financial assistance to voluntary organizations working for the education and rehabilitation of persons with disabilities.
- The scheme was launched in 1999 and was revised and renamed in 2003.
- Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995
- Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 categorically provides for non-discrimination in transport, non-discrimination on the road and non-discrimination in built environment respectively.
- As per Section 46 of the PwD Act, the States are required to provide for –
- Ramps in public buildings;
- Adaptation of toilets for wheel chair users;
- Braille symbols and auditory signals in elevators or lifts;
- Ramps in hospitals, primary health centres and other medical care and rehabilitation institutions
- The Act cast responsibility on the States to take measures to make public transport accessible for PwDs and also make provision for auditory signals at red lights in public roads, curb cuts and slops in pavements, engraving on the surface at zebra crossings etc.
- Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 categorically provides for non-discrimination in transport, non-discrimination on the road and non-discrimination in built environment respectively.
- Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan)
- It is a nation-wide Campaign launched by Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) of Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment to provide universal accessibility to persons with disabilities.
- The campaign aims at providing equal opportunity to persons with disabilities to participate in all the aspects of life and live independently.
- The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on developing accessible physical environment, transportation system and Information & communication ecosystem.
- Unique Disability ID
- Unique ID for Persons with Disabilities project is being implemented with a view of creating a National Database for PwDs, and to issue a Unique Disability Identity Card to each person with disabilities.
- The project will encourage transparency, efficiency and ease of delivering the government benefits to the person with disabilities.
- The project will also help in stream-lining the tracking of physical and financial progress of beneficiary at all levels of hierarchy of implementation – from village level, block level, District level , State level and National level.
- The UDID project is initiated by Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities.
Global initiatives
- Convention On the Rights of Persons With Disabilities (CRPD)
- The Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and its Optional Protocol was adopted on 13 December 2006 at the United Nations Headquarters in New York, and was opened for signature on 30 March 2007.
- It is the first comprehensive human rights treaty of the 21st century and is the first human rights convention to be open for signature by regional integration organizations.
- The Convention entered into force on 3 May 2008.
- International Day of Persons with disabilities
- International Day of Persons with Disabilities (IDPD) is a UN day that is celebrated every year on 3 December.
| CARE MCQ | |
| Q3. Consider the following statements
1. Deen Dayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS) is a Central Sector Scheme that provides financial assistance for the education of persons with disabilities. 2. Accessible India Campaign is a nation-wide Campaign launched by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to provide universal accessibility to persons with disabilities. 3. Unique ID for Persons with Disabilities project is being implemented to issue a Unique Disability Identity Card to each person with disabilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law? (UPSC Prelims 2011)
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government run schools. 2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business. 3. Ramps in public buildings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D) |
| Answer 3 C
Explanation · Deen Dayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS): It is a Central Sector Scheme of the Government of India that provides financial assistance to voluntary organizations working for the education and rehabilitation of persons with disabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. · Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan): It is a nation-wide Campaign launched by Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) of Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment to provide universal accessibility to persons with disabilities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. · Unique Disability ID: Unique ID for Persons with Disabilities project is being implemented with a view of creating a National Database for PwDs, and to issue a Unique Disability Identity Card to each person with disabilities. Hence statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
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Eta Aquariid meteor shower
Source: Hindustan Times
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Science and Technology
Context: The Eta Aquariid meteor shower will peak on May 5 and 6.
Why in News
- NASA announces peak of Eta Aquariids Meteor Shower on May 5-6 with up to one meteor per minute. The Eta Aquariid meteor shower is active between 19 April and 28 May 2024. It will peak between midnight and dawn on 6 May 2024.
Eta Aquariid meteor shower
- The Eta Aquariid meteor shower is formed when Earth passes through the orbital plane of the famous Halley’s Comet, which takes about 76 years to orbit the Sun once.
- While it was observed as early as 240 BCE, it was only in 1705 that astronomer Edmond Halley realised that the periodic appearances were re-appearances of the same comet.
- Last seen in 1986, Halley’s comet is due to enter the inner solar system again in 2061.
- Like Eta Aquariids, the Orionids meteor shower is also caused by the Halley’s Comet, and appears every October.
Why are Eta Aquariids unique?
- The Eta Aquariid meteor shower is known for its rapid speed. This makes for long, glowing tails which can last up to several minutes.
- According to NASA, about 30 to 40 Eta Aquarid meteors can be seen per hour during the peak of the meteor shower, if observed from the Southern Hemisphere. The number decreases to about 10 meteors per hour if being viewed in the Northern Hemisphere.
- This is due to the location of the “radiant” — the position in the sky where the meteor shower seems to come from.
- In the Northern Hemisphere, Eta Aquarid meteors most often appear as ‘Earthgrazers’ — long meteors which appear to skim the surface of the Earth.
- In the South, however, they can be seen higher up in the sky, and hence are more visible.
How to catch the Eta Aquariid meteor shower?
- The meteor shower is likely to be visible across the sky.
- More specifically, the shower seems to be originating from the Aquarius constellation — hence ‘Eta Aquariid’.
- The meteor shower is going to be visible to the naked eye on a clear night sky, provided there is minimum light pollution (from the Moon or artificial lighting from buildings, streetlights on Earth).
- Even a basic telescope will significantly improve chances of catching this night-time spectacle.
What are comets?
- Comets are composed of dust, rock and ice, and orbit around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits which can, in some cases, take hundreds of thousands of years to complete.
- According to NASA, a total of 3,910 comets are currently known, although billions more are theorised to be orbiting the Sun beyond Neptune, in the Kuiper Belt and even more distant Oort cloud.
- Comets come in different sizes, although most are roughly 10 km wide. However, as they come closer to the Sun, comets “heat up and spew gases and dust into a glowing head that can be larger than a planet”, according to NASA’s website. This material also forms a tail which stretches millions of miles.
Where Do Meteors Come From?
- Meteors come from leftover comet particles and bits from broken asteroids. When comets come around the Sun, they leave a dusty trail behind them.
- Every year Earth passes through these debris trails, which allows the bits to collide with our atmosphere where they disintegrate to create fiery and colorful streaks in the sky.
How exactly are meteor showers related to comets?
- Meteors are simply grains of dust or rock that burn up as they enter the Earth’s atmosphere. This burning also creates a brief tail.
- Since most meteors are tiny (the size of a grain of sand) they completely burn up in Earth’s atmosphere.
- However, once in a while, a large enough meteor passes through and hits the ground (at which time it is called a meteorite), often causing significant damage.
Meteor Shower
- A meteor shower can be observed when Earth passes through the clouds of dust left behind in a comet’s orbital plane.
- Meteor showers come from comets, which are frozen leftovers from the formation of our solar system, some 4.6 billion years ago.
- The sky lights up with small and large meteor tails as the debris left behind by the comet interacts with Earth’s atmosphere.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Meteors comes only from the leftover particles of broken asteroids. Statement II: A meteor shower can be observed from the Earth. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1 C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Q. What is the difference between asteroids and comets? (UPSC Prelims 2011)
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material. 2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury. 3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B) |
| Answer 4 C
Explanation · Meteors are often referred to as shooting stars or falling stars because of the bright tail of light they create as they pass through the sky. · Meteors come from leftover comet particles and bits from broken asteroids. When comets come around the Sun, they leave a dusty trail behind them. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. · A meteor shower can be observed when Earth passes through the clouds of dust left behind in a comet’s orbital plane. Hence, statement 2 is correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |
Use of ‘pregnant person’ as genders other than women by the Supreme Court
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- Polity and Governance, Judiciary
Context: Use of Gender-Neutral Vocabulary by Supreme Court
Why in news
- Amidst a debate over the use of gender-neutral vocabulary to identify the sexes, a Supreme Court bench has opted to use the expression “pregnant persons” while stating in its order that pregnancy can also be experienced by “some non-binary people and transgender men among other gender identities”.
Background
- On April 22, the SC had in the case of the minor allowed the request of the girl’s mother for the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), terming it a “very, very exceptional case where we have to protect her”.
- By its April 29 order, a two-judge bench presided by CJI Chandrachud recalled its earlier order allowing a 14-year-old rape survivor to terminate her almost 31-week pregnancy.
- The 22-page judgement, authored by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, uses the expressions pregnant person or persons 41 times while adjudicating a matter pertaining to the termination of pregnancy of a 14-year-old girl who was sexually assaulted.
Supreme Court Judgement
- The Supreme court bench explained, “We use the term ‘pregnant person’ and recognise that in addition to cisgender women, pregnancy can also be experienced by some non-binary people and transgender men among other gender identities”.
- The ruling elaborated on the “primacy of the pregnant person’s consent in abortion” and also said, “In case there is a divergence in the opinion of a pregnant person and her guardian, the opinion of the minor or mentally ill pregnant person must be taken into consideration as an important aspect in enabling the court to arrive at a just conclusion”.
- The SC noted after the girl filed a rape case, the medical board of the Grant Government Medical College & Sir JJ Group of Hospitals, Mumbai, prepared a report dated March 28, 2024, stating that the pregnancy may be terminated given the girl’s physical and mental health.
- It, however, sought the permission of the High Court since the gestational age of the fetus was above 24 weeks, which is the permissible age for termination of pregnancy under the MTP Act.
Supreme Court on MTP Act
- Elaborating on this, the SC which touched upon the legislative intent of the MTP Act said, “Firstly, the health of the woman is paramount. This includes the risk avoided by the woman not availing of unsafe and illegal methods of abortion.
- Secondly, disallowing termination does not stop abortions, it only stops safe and accessible abortions”.
- The opinion of the RMP and the medical board must balance the legislative mandate of the MTP Act and the fundamental right of the pregnant person seeking a termination of the pregnancy”.
- Moreover, no penalty may be attracted to an RMP merely for forming an opinion, in good faith, on whether a pregnancy may be terminated.
- This is because the MTP Act requires and empowers the RMP to form such an opinion.
- It’s bona fide assured, no aspersions may be cast on the RMP. The same applies to medical boards constituted under Section 3(2-C) and Section 3(2-D) of the MTP Act”.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
- The preamble of the MTP Act states that it is an “act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners.”
- The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (MTP Act) which was amended in 2021 governs the circumstances under which abortions are legally permitted in India.
- The 2021 amendment extended the gestational limit from 20 to 24 weeks for “certain categories of women”.
- These are listed under Rule 3B of the MTP Rules.
- The categories include:
- Survivors of sexual assault or rape or incest
- Minors
- Change of marital status during the ongoing pregnancy (widowhood and divorce)
- Women with physical disabilities [major disability as per criteria laid down under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016)].
- Mentally ill women including mental retardation.
- The foetal malformation that has a substantial risk of being incompatible with life or if the child is born it may suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities to be seriously handicapped.
- Women with pregnancy in humanitarian settings or disaster or emergency situations as may be declared by the Government.
- The Act provided for termination of pregnancy if it does not exceed twenty weeks and for a certain “category of women” if pregnancy exceeds twenty weeks but does not exceed twenty-four weeks.
- However, the Supreme Court judgment made the “up to 24 weeks” clause applicable to all women.
- The Act also directs that every State government or Union territory must constitute a Medical Board for the purpose of examining if the case is fit to be granted relief under the MTP Act.
- The Medical Board shall consist of
- (a) a Gynaecologist
- (b) a Paediatrician;
- (c) a Radiologist or Sonologist; and
- (d) such other number of members as may be notified in the Official Gazette by the State Government or Union territory, as the case may be.
- The Act also by rule makes it mandatory that the medical practitioner who assists the termination of the pregnancy shall not reveal the name and other particulars of the woman whose pregnancy has been terminated.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following Statements:
1. The 2021 amendment of Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act extended the gestational limit from 20 to 24 weeks. 2. The extension of the gestational limit is applied to only married women. 3. A woman’s right to reproductive choice is a part of Article 21 of Constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only |
Q. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (UPSC Prelims 2018) (A) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution (B) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV (C) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III (D) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution Answer – (C)
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| Answer 5 D
Explanation · The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (MTP Act) which was amended in 2021 governs the circumstances under which abortions are legally permitted in India. · The 2021 amendment extended the gestational limit from 20 to 24 weeks for “certain categories of women”. These are listed under Rule 3B of the MTP Rules. Hence Statement 1 is correct. · The Supreme court in 2022 judgement stated that the whole Rule 3B(c) cannot be read in isolation but has to be read together with other sub-clauses under 3B. · When other sub-clauses do not distinguish between married or unmarried women, for example survivors of sexual assault, minors, etc., only 3B(c) cannot exclude unmarried women, the court held. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. · A woman’s right to reproductive choice is an inseparable part of her personal liberty under Article 21 of Constitution. She has a sacrosanct right to bodily integrity. Hence Statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option D is the correct answer. |